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Worksheets

Laboratory Procedures: Part I

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most bacteria grow best at a pH of:

a)

1

b)

3

c)

9

d)

7

2.

Which of the following is not a method of culturing animal viruses?

a)

Laboratory animal inoculation

b)

Cell culture

c)

Agar plate inoculation

d)

Embryonated egg inoculation

3.

Horses typically have higher ______ values then other species.

a)

AST

b)

ALP

c)

ALT

d)

GGT

4.

Which of the following is a lentivirus?

a)

Coronavirus

b)

Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)

c)

Herpes virus

d)

Parvovirus

5.

Which of the following would be a parenteral route of pathogen transmission?

a)

Transfusion

b)

Contaminated food

c)

Droplet infection

d)

Direct contact

6.

What immunoglobulin is usually present in the greatest quantity?

a)

IgA

b)

IgD

c)

IgE

d)

IgG

7.

Phagocytes are a type of:

a)

Red blood cell

b)

White blood cell

c)

Platelet

d)

Antibody

8.

A hospital-acquired disease is known as:

a)

Endemic

b)

Nosocomial

c)

Ergasteric

d)

Iatrogenic

9.

Which of the following tests is not included in a routine CBC?

a)

Total WBC count

b)

Differential WBC count

c)

Total protein

d)

Reticulocyte count

10.

Ketonuria is most commonly associated with what condition?

a)

Liver disease

b)

Urinary tract infection

c)

Renal failure

d)

Diabetes mellitus

11.

Which of the following is the best time to collect a urine sample to evaluate the specific gravity of a canine patient?

a)

First morning sample

b)

MIdday sample

c)

Late afternoon sample

d)

Last sample of the day

12.

Squamous epithelial cells are not normally seen in urine samples obtained by:

a)

Catheterization

b)

Manual expression

c)

Free catch

d)

Cystocentesis

13.

Which of these tubes must never be placed on a blood rocker after being filled with blood?

a)

Blue top

b)

Green top

c)

Purple top

d)

Red top

14.

Where on the blood smear would you select to start your WBC differential count?

a)

Thickest area

b)

Feathered edge

c)

Monocellular layer

d)

Thinnest area

15.

Which of the following results may be found in a patient with a degenerative left shift?

a)

Leukocytosis

b)

No bands are present

c)

Lymphocytes outnumber neutrophils

d)

Bands outnumber mature neutrophils

16.

Bile acids aid in the digestion of

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Fats

d)

Globulins

17.

A correction for nucleated red blood cells (nRBC) is done to avoid a falsely:

a)

Elevated PCV

b)

Elevated WBC count

c)

Decreased PCV

d)

Decreased WBC count

18.

RBCs with multiple, irregularly spaced projections are known as:

a)

Crenated cells

b)

Schistocytes

c)

Acanthocytes

d)

Anisocytes

19.

Reticulocytes on a modified Wright stain (e.g. Diff-Quik) appear

a)

Polychromatic

b)

Hypochromic

c)

Hyperchromic

d)

Crenated

20.

What is the most useful way to report WBC differential results?

a)

As percentages

b)

As relative numbers

c)

As absolute numbers

d)

As decimal numbers

21.

The buffy coat in a spun hematocrit tube consists of:

a)

WBCs

b)

WBCs and platelets

c)

WBCs and NRBCs

d)

Platelets and NRBCs

22.

A common laboratory test for chronic pancreatitis is a fecal test for:

a)

Amylase

b)

Lipase

c)

Trypsin

d)

Bilirubin

23.

What microorganism is frequently recovered from the ears of dogs with chronic otitis externa?

a)

Candida sp.

b)

Crytococcus sp.

c)

Microsporum sp.

d)

Malassezia sp.

24.

What screening component can be used as a screening test for hypothyroidism?

a)

ALT

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Total protein

d)

Creatine kinase

25.

Which of the following is a common finding on a blood smear from an animal with autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

a)

Heinz bodies

b)

Howell-Jolly bodies

c)

Spherocytes

d)

Target cells

26.

Serum electrolyte levels should be determined when evaluating the function of the:

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Kidneys

d)

Heart

27.

Kidney disease leads to the accumulation of metabolic waste in the blood, a condition known as:

a)

Hypernaturia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Azotemia

d)

Azoturia

28.

A good presurgical screening test for von Willebrand disease is a(n)

a)

Total platelet count

b)

Buccal mucosal bleeding time

c)

Activated clotting time

d)

Activated partial thromboplastin time

29.

An animal that tested positive for heartworm infection might also have an elevation of which of the following blood cells?

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Monocytes

30.

What cat blood type is considered the universal donor?

a)

A

b)

O

c)

AB

d)

None exists in the cat?

31.

To separate serum, whole blood should be spun down in a centrifuge at:

a)

4500 rpm for 30 minutes

b)

10,000 rpm for 10 minutes

c)

8500 rpm for 30 minutes

d)

2500 rpm for 10 minutes

32.

Laserflow technology is used in:

a)

Hematology analyzers

b)

Chemistry analyzers

c)

Coagulation analyzers

d)

Electrolyte analyzers

33.

Impedance is:

a)

Used in analytic instruments to stop a test

b)

Blockage of light or electric current in analytic instruments

c)

Lack of synchronicity between the jugular pulse and the heartbeat

d)

Inability to feel pedal pulses

34.

Which product stains fat?

a)

New methylene blue

b)

Sudan III or IV

c)

Diff-Quik

d)

Giemsa

35.

Basophilic stippling is often associated with :

a)

Lead poisoning

b)

Autoimmune disease

c)

Anemia

d)

Neoplasia

36.

Fresh frozen plasma can be stored up to _____ and still contain clotting factors.

a)

1 month

b)

12 months

c)

36 months

d)

60 months

37.

If you count 40 reticulocytes per 1000 erythrocytes, what is the observed reticulocyte count?

a)

2%

b)

4%

c)

20%

d)

40%

38.

What is normally the largest mature blood cell in the peripheral blood of domestic species?

a)

Monocyte

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Lymphocyte

39.

With the exception of cats, most animals have a total blood volume equivalent to ____ of their body weight.

a)

7%

b)

15%

c)

25%

d)

40%

40.

What is tested in a minor crossmatch?

a)

T-cell production

b)

Recipient serum against donor erythrocytes

c)

Recipient erythrocytes against donor serum

d)

Recipient urine against donor erythrocytes

41.

An attenuated vaccine is one in which:

a)

Microorganisms are killed

b)

Microorganisms are weakened but are still alive

c)

Microorganisms are 100% virulent

d)

No microorganisms are found

42.

ELISA is an acronym for:

a)

Electro-linked immonsorbent assay

b)

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

c)

Enzyme-linked immunoassay

d)

Electrolytic isoantibody assay

43.

Vaccines may be administered by any of the following routes, except:

a)

Subcutaneously

b)

Intramuscularly

c)

Intranasally

d)

Intraperitoneally

44.

In assessing titers, how long after the first serum sample is collected should the second sample be collected?

a)

7 days

b)

3 days

c)

2 to 6 weeks

d)

14 weeks

45.

What microorganism are not free living?

a)

Algae

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteria

d)

Viruses

46.

The acid fact stain is used to identify the organism that causes:

a)

Anaplasmosis

b)

Colibacillosis

c)

RIngworm

d)

Tuberculosis

47.

Which of the following is not a simple stain?

a)

Methylene blue

b)

Crystal violet

c)

Safranin

d)

Gram stain

48.

Blood in the urine is reported as:

a)

Dysuria

b)

Hematuria

c)

Pyuria

d)

Proteinuria

49.

What is the half-life of fructosamine?

a)

3-5 days

b)

1-2 weeks

c)

3-5 months

d)

more than 6 months

50.

To avoid serum lipemia, animals should be fasted for:

a)

2 hours

b)

4 hours

c)

8 hours

d)

12 hours