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GROUP E ASASI Final 22NOV2020 SIR ZAINOL

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. One of the elements essential to Frederick Taylor's approach to improving worker productivity was:

i.teamwork.

ii. a hierarchy of needs.

iii. rules of work.

iv. open communication

a)

i and ii

b)

iii and iv

c)

iii only

d)

iv only

2.

The principle of ___________, which said that every job could be broken down into a series of elementary motions.

a)

motion economy

b)

division of labor motion

c)

marginal motion

d)

micro-motion analysis

3.

According to the principles of scientific management, the best way to improve productivity is to_______

a)

give employees greater recognition for their efforts.

b)

establish open two-way communications among all of the organization's employees and managers.

c)

use time-motion studies to find the best method of doing each job, then teach those methods to employees.

d)

use job rotation and job enlargement to make work more interesting and challenging.

4.

Which of the following statements is the best description of how scientific management viewed employees?

a)

Employees are like machines that must be programmed to perform in a certain way

b)

Most employees are creative and intelligent individuals who should be given a great deal of freedom and flexibility in how they perform their jobs

c)

Employees will only exert their maximum effort if they believe that their goals are attainable

d)

Employees are individuals who do not respond in the same way to a particular management style

5.

The most important impact of the Hawthorne studies was that it____________

a)

helped managers find the level of lighting associated with optimum productivity.

b)

showed that employees could be programmed like machines to perform simple repetitive tasks, and thus led to the development of assembly lines.

c)

changed the direction of research away from Taylor's scientific management toward the study of human-based management.

d)

showed that physical working conditions have no impact on worker productivity

6.

Abraham Maslow thought that once needs at one level of his hierarchy were met ____________

a)

motivation would diminish.

b)

another, higher order need would emerge to motivate that person.

c)

that type of need would never again be an effective motivator.

d)

he or she would become more interested in lower-level needs.

7.

Fauziah always strives to excel in her career. Several years ago, she finished college, finally achieving a Ph.D. Although she works as an educator and has a secure position at an urban college, she does not hold a faculty position at a prestigious university. It is obvious to her colleagues that Fauziah is unsatisfied with her position at work. She constantly gives coworkers subtle reminders of her superior academic credentials and only participates in work activities where she will assume a leadership role. Analyzing Fauziah's situation using Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs are unmet?

a)

self-actualization needs

b)

esteem needs

c)

social needs

d)

physiological needs

8.

While Maslow's research categorized a person's needs in terms of higher order and lower order needs, Herzberg's research recognized that ___________

a)

employees aspire to satisfy lower order needs at work and higher order needs through other life activities.

b)

certain work related factors satisfied higher order needs, while other work related factors satisfied lower order needs.

c)

the physical environment and general working conditions were of no consequence to employees. These factors did not affect higher or lower order needs.

d)

hygiene factors satisfied higher order needs and motivating factors satisfied lower order needs.

9.

According to Herzberg, the difference between motivators and hygiene factors is __________

a)

motivators cause persons to work smarter, while hygiene factors cause people to work harder.

b)

hygiene factors make employees more enthusiastic about the work itself, whereas motivators make employees enthusiastic about how many hours they have to work and their next day off.

c)

hygiene factors develop more loyalty from workers, while motivators make workers enthusiastic about moving on to a different company.

d)

overall, motivators related to greater job satisfaction, while hygiene factors made the work place a satisfying place to thrive.

10.

Theory X managers are likely to believe

that:

i. the average person dislikes work and will seek

to avoid it when possible.

ii. most employees know more about their job than the boss.

iii. employees are not motivated mainly by the chance for advancement and recognition.

iv. job satisfaction is primarily related to higher order needs.

a)

i and ii

b)

ii and iii

c)

i and iii

d)

iii and iv

11.

Equity theory states that employees will perform well if they _______

a)

understand the nature of their responsibilities.

b)

have an opportunity to impress others in the organization.

c)

believe the reward they receive fairly compensates them for their efforts when compared to others in similar positions.

d)

know that their supervisor has set reasonable performance goals and communicated them clearly.

12.

Which of the following problems would indicate that a manager failed to apply the basic concepts of expectancy theory?

a)

Employees are frustrated because they have no say in their organization's goals and objectives

b)

Some of the organization's employees reduce their effort because they feel that they are being treated unfairly compared to other employees

c)

Employees are unwilling to work toward achieving an important goal because they believe the reward offered is not sufficient to justify the effort

d)

Employees are confused and frustrated because managers do not provide them with adequate feedback about their job performance

13.

Which of the following statements about human resource management opportunities and challenges is most accurate?

a)

the age composition of the labor force is becoming younger

b)

workers are becoming less loyal to their firms, resulting in higher turnover

c)

workers are now demanding that more of their compensation be in wages and salaries and less in fringe benefits

d)

the number of workers who have received training in high tech fields far exceeds the number of job openings in these areas

14.

Dominic Chin is a human resource manager at a major corporation. If Dominic's company is like most firms today, which of the following statements about Dominic's job is likely to be the most accurate?

a)

Most of Dominic's time will be devoted to clerical duties such as processing payroll checks and keeping employee files updated.

b)

Dominic's job will be simpler in the future than it was in the past, because the percentage of new workers entering the labor force who are poorly educated and unprepared for work is slowly but steadily declining.

c)

Government laws and regulations concerning hiring, worker safety, pay, and unionization will make Dominic's work complex and challenging.

d)

Dominic and his fellow human resource managers will be given complete responsibility for performing all human resource functions within the organization.

15.

The first step in the human resources planning process is to:

a)

prepare a forecast of human resource needs

b)

assess future labor demand.

c)

prepare job specifications for each position within the organization

d)

prepare a human resource inventory.

16.

A job analysis results in two written statements. They are:

a)

the human resource inventories and the affirmative action statement.

b)

the labor supply assessment and the labor demand assessment.

c)

the job description and the job specification.

d)

the job title review and the performance appraisal

17.

Which of the following statements identifies a key difference between a job description and a job specification?

a)

A job description is concerned with the short-run objectives of a job, but a job specification is concerned with the job's long-run objectives.

b)

A job description is based on a human resource inventory, while a job specification is the result of a performance appraisal.

c)

A job description is a statement about the job, while a job specification is a statement about the person who does the job.

d)

A job description is a brief summary of what a job involves, while a job specification is a detailed and technically complete statement of what a job involves.

18.

Which of the following statements about recruiting is most accurate?

a)

It is important for a firm to recruit and hire people who are not only skilled but also fit in with the firm's culture and leadership style.

b)

Recruiting internally will almost always result in better qualified applicants than recruiting externally.

c)

Small firms generally have a strong advantage when it comes to recruiting.

d)

One advantage of using external sources when recruiting is that this approach tends to result in higher morale among the firm's existing employees.

19.

In a(n) ______________ an inexperienced worker learns by working alongside an experienced employee to master the skills and procedures of a craft.

a)

orientation period

b)

vestibule program

c)

indentureship program

d)

apprenticeship program

20.

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between employee training and employee development?

a)

They are just two names for the same thing.

b)

Training is short-term skills oriented while development is long-term career oriented.

c)

Development is provided by the company and is designed to meet the specific needs of the organization, whereas training focuses on more general skills and normally is provided by schools, colleges and institutions other than the employer

d)

Training focuses on conceptual skills while development seeks to improve technical skills.

21.

Which of the following statements about performance appraisals is the most accurate?

a)

The most difficult step of a performance appraisal is almost always the actual evaluation of the employee's performance.

b)

Performance standards do not have to be measurable in order to be effective.

c)

The discussion of the results of a performance evaluation with an employee should allow the employee an opportunity to make suggestions about how to improve on current procedures.

d)

Most employees have a good understanding of the standards they are expected to meet, even if their managers do not explicitly communicate these standards.

22.

When workers are a part of a team their compensation should be:

a)

based strictly on their individual performance in order to encourage each worker to exert his or her maximum effort.

b)

based strictly on the achievements of their team in order to encourage teamwork and cooperation.

c)

a stated wage or salary that is not based on either team or individual performance, because it is very difficult to measure individual performance in a team environment

d)

based on team performance, with additional rewards for those workers who make outstanding individual contributions.

23.

One of the reasons many firms have chosen to use temporary employees rather than rehire full-time employees is that:

a)

the government provides strong tax incentives to hire temporary workers.

b)

such workers usually are more loyal to the firm.

c)

most labor laws only apply to full-time workers, so there are fewer legal hassles associated with hiring temporary workers.

d)

it enables them to avoid the prohibitively high costs associated with terminating employees.

24.

A major characteristic of a compressed workweek is that:

a)

workers receive the same pay for fewer hours of work.

b)

the pace of work is increased so that workers perform the same amount of work in fewer hours.

c)

employees work fewer days each week, but work more hours each workday.

d)

two or more part-time workers are hired to fill each full-time position.

25.

Comparing the business practices of the 1950s to those of today indicate that today's marketing managers:

a)

have a more ambitious goal of not just satisfying customers, but of exceeding their expectations.

b)

are much more focused on production and mass marketing.

c)

put less emphasis on earning a profit, since doing so makes it harder to satisfy the needs of the firm's stakeholders.

d)

operate essentially the same as their predecessors.

26.

According to the _________ concept, a firm must (1) find out what customers want and provide it, (2) make sure everyone in the organization has customer satisfaction as an objective, and (3) provide goods and services that will earn a profit.

a)

relationship marketing

b)

satisfaction marketing

c)

marketing

d)

consumer marketing

27.

A comparison of the marketing concept and customer relationship management indicates that customer relationship management:

a)

and the marketing concept are in fact identical.

b)

attempts to improve profits by keeping quality high, while the marketing concept attempts to improve profits by a careful design of the promotional mix.

c)

turns the marketing concept upside down. The marketing concept emphasized that marketing was the most important function performed by a firm, but customer relationship management views management to be the most important function.

d)

extends the marketing concept by calling for the firm to learn more about its customers so that it not only satisfies them, but exceeds their expectations over time.

28.

Which of the following tasks would be included in the marketing mix?

i. evaluating various distribution alternatives to determine the best way to get the product to the consumer

ii. examining various sources of funds to determine the best way to finance an expansion of the organization's production facilities to produce more products

iii. assigning tasks to specific workers on specialty product assembly lines

iv. developing pricing strategy to obtain a better profit for the firm

a)

i and ii

b)

i and iii

c)

i and iv

d)

All the above

29.

One of the social trends that marketers must monitor to maintain their close relationship with customers is the:

a)

increase in the number of competitors servicing the target market.

b)

amount of unemployment in the target market.

c)

number of people who can use computers with proficiency.

d)

increase in the number of older Malaysians.

30.

The factor that determines whether a product is classified as a consumer product or an industrial product is:

a)

the decision-making process used to purchase the good or service.

b)

who the buyer represents.

c)

the end use of the product.

d)

whether the good is new or used.

31.

Which of the following statements about the distinction between consumer goods and B2B goods is the most accurate?

a)

Consumer goods are typically more expensive than industrial goods.

b)

The same product can be classified as either a consumer good or an industrial good, depending upon its end use.

c)

Industrial goods tend to have a useful life of several years and can be depreciated while consumer goods typically last less than a year.

d)

Industrial goods are custom made to the specifications of the buyer, while the all consumer goods are mass-produced.

32.

Which of the following correctly identifies the motivation of firms using a market segmentation strategy?

a)

Firms can avoid the government's anti-trust laws by selecting a small slice of a larger market.

b)

This strategy enables a firm to identify common traits in different consumer groups.

c)

With limited resources, firms can better satisfy the wants and needs of a smaller target market.

d)

Government regulations require firms to maintain accurate records to show that the firm has not discriminated against a market segment.

33.

Which of the following is consistent with relationship marketing?

a)

maintaining transactional relationships with

customers

b)

working with buyers to determine their individual needs

c)

developing market share through mass media advertising

d)

focusing more on obtaining new customers than on retaining existing customers

34.

Which of the following represents an example of demographic segmentation?

a)

A firm producing recreational equipment divides its market into groups by region of the country, designing different products for people in different parts of the country.

b)

An automobile manufacturer offers different types of cars designed to appeal to different age groups and income levels.

c)

A motion picture company divides its market according to the attitudes and interests of its customers, marketing some films to people who enjoy action movies and targeting other movies to people who prefer romantic comedies.

d)

A company that produces food products has designed a special line of easy to prepare microwavable meals that are low fat and high in fiber to attract people interested in the health benefits of the foods they eat.

35.

By employing a relationship marketing strategy, Jocelyn found success as an entrepreneur. The goal of this strategy is to:

a)

use radio and television advertising to attract new customers.

b)

work closely with existing customers to better satisfy their wants and needs.

c)

target large market segments of potential customers by working closely with a variety of suppliers.

d)

communicate to buyers the advantages offered by your firm's low prices and standardized products.

36.

Which of the following is the best example of cognitive dissonance?

a)

Cecelia Lim has been shopping for a new television set, but has not yet made a purchase because he is having trouble deciding which brand to buy.

b)

Fatimah decided to eat at a restaurant she previously avoided after learning that several movie stars she admires endorse the restaurant.

c)

Magaretta is torn between going to the movies with friends or staying home and studying for an exam tomorrow

d)

Roslan just bought an expensive hi-tech television and is already worried that he could have found a better deal if he had shopped more carefully.

37.

An important difference between accounting and other business functions, such as marketing and management, is that:

a)

Accounting functions must be performed by an "outsider" (rather than by an employee of the business) in order to avoid conflicts of interest.

b)

Accounting offers us insight into whether the business is financially sound.

c)

Accounting involves mainly clerical activities and thus requires very little analysis.

d)

. Accounting deals exclusively with numbers.

38.

The reports and financial statements prepared by accountants:

a)

Are more useful for profit-seeking businesses than they are for not-for-profit organizations.

b)

Are mainly used to help the firm complete its tax forms

c)

Provide information that can be used by decision-makers both inside and outside the organization.

d)

Are not as useful now that firms have moved into a more global environment.

39.

Given that measuring a firm's financial health is important to its survival, which of the following strategies is good advice for a person just starting a business?

a)

Create a method for keeping your books that makes sense to you. Outside agencies such as creditors and suppliers will not evaluate you by the way you keep books.

b)

All transactions are important. Separating transactions only serves to create a perception that some transactions are of lesser importance than others.

c)

Accounting systems used by big business are not suitable for small businesses.

d)

Select an accounting system that helps you make decisions, and helps you report information to others outside your firm.

40.

A basic difference between managerial accounting and financial accounting is that managerial accounting:

a)

adheres to rules set by the Government, while financial accounting uses a different group of rules set by the Ministry of Finance.

b)

handles recording and classifying information about transactions that have no direct financial impact on the firm, while financial accounting handles the recording and classifying of information about transactions that do have a financial impact.

c)

involves the preparation of the balance sheet and income statement while financial accounting involves the preparation of the statement of cash flows.

d)

provides information primarily intended for managers and others inside the company, while financial accounting provides information primarily intended for people outside the organization.

41.

__________ is the accounting practice of recording each transaction in two places in the accounting journal.

a)

Double-entry bookkeeping

b)

Double Trial balancing

c)

Account matching

d)

Entry duplication

42.

The sixth and final step in the accounting cycle involves:

a)

Performing a trial balance to verify that the accounting statements are internally consistent.

b)

Auditing the books to ensure that they were prepared according to generally accepted accounting principles.

c)

Preparing the income statement statements to evaluate the financial condition of the firm.

d)

Analyzing major accounting statements to evaluate the financial condition of the firm.

43.

A comparison of bookkeeping and accounting indicates that ______________

a)

The two are virtually the same in practice

b)

Bookkeeping involves recording financial information, while accounting is concerned with classifying, summarizing, and interpreting this information.

c)

Bookkeeping is more useful for small businesses while accounting is more useful for large businesses.

d)

Accounting is a subsystem of the process of bookkeeping.

44.

Accountant Alang Parody has just finished working on the balance sheet, income statement, and statement of cash flows for his company. The next step in the accounting cycle involves:

a)

Posting the results of these statements to the appropriate journal.

b)

Analyzing the firm's financial statements to evaluate the financial condition of the firm.

c)

Conducting forensic tests of the data to ensure its accuracy.

d)

Placing the data used to construct the statements into an archive known as a data warehouse.

45.

The balance sheet is composed of the following types of accounts:

a)

Revenue, expenses, and earnings.

b)

Operating expenses, cash flow, and capital expenditures

c)

Capital, cost, and valuation.

d)

Assets, liabilities, and owners' equity.

46.

The LIFO method of inventory valuation bases the cost of goods sold on the cost of:

a)

Merchandise that has been held in inventory for the longest period of time.

b)

Most recent merchandise purchased by the firm.

c)

Actual units customers purchased.

d)

Merchandise the firm acquired at the lowest cost

47.

Retailers attempt to sell older merchandise before more recently acquired merchandise is sold. The assumptions made by the __________ method of inventory valuation are most consistent with this approach.

a)

FIFO (first in, first out)

b)

LIFO (last in, first out)

c)

FILO (first in, last out)

d)

LILO (last in, last out)

48.

In order to understand if the results of ratio calculations indicate a financially strong company, the results:

a)

Should be compared to other firms in the same industry.

b)

Are compared to same size firms in the same geographic region of the country

c)

Are compared to the norms established by generally accepted accounting principles.

d)

Are compared to the largest firms in the country.

49.

No matter the size of the business, finance is a critical activity for:

a)

profit-seeking, but not for nonprofit organizations.

b)

profit-seeking and nonprofit organizations.

c)

nonprofit organizations, but not for profit-seeking businesses.

d)

accountants, but not for financial managers

50.

Which of the following companies is under capitalized?

a)

A large corporation that has been hit with a major lawsuit because one of its products has a design flaw that has led to serious injuries

b)

A new company struggling because it has insufficient start-up funds

c)

A medium-sized company that has decided to buy out a smaller competitor

d)

An electric utility that has recently experienced a significant increase in the cost of coal and labor

51.

The overall objective of financial planning is to:

a)

forecast the impact of technological trends.

b)

prepare financial statements for managers.

c)

optimize the firm's profitability.

d)

establish budgets for financial control

52.

One of the challenges of effective financial management is:

a)

to have sufficient cash on hand without compromising the firm's investment potential.

b)

ensuring the satisfaction of each of the stakeholder groups.

c)

working within the strict regulations of the Ministry of Finance.

d)

providing the financial data in a timely manner for management consultants to improve decision making.

53.

Mawar Indah Wholesale Company wants to improve cash flow. Which of the following strategies would be most likely to help Mawar Indah achieve this objective?

a)

Relaxing its credit policy for new customers

b)

Offering cash discounts to buyers who pay their accounts promptly

c)

Accepting IOUs from customers who buy in large quantities

d)

Offering extended payment plans to qualified buyers

54.

Selalu Kaya Company offers customers credit terms of 3/15 net 30. This gives customers a __________________

a)

fifteen percent discount if they pay in three days.

b)

three percent discount if they pay in thirty days

c)

three percent discount if they pay in fifteen days.

d)

fifteen percent discount if they pay in thirty days

55.

Businesses acquire long-term financing from two major sources:

a)

debt financing and government funds.

b)

equity financing and venture capital credit.

c)

bond earnings and commercial paper.

d)

debt financing and equity financing.

56.

Venture capital firms usually look to invest their funds in firms that __________.

a)

operate in established, mature industries

b)

present financial statements indicating stronger than average cash flows

c)

are new with great profit potential

d)

require extra funding to avoid financial difficulties

57.

After earning RM40 million in net income, Ramli Manufacturing distributed RM10 million in dividends to their stockholders. The board of directors of the firm decided to invest the remaining RM30 million back into the business. This RM30 million reinvestment of profits represents:

a)

retained income disposal

b)

retained earnings.

c)

preferred retained capital

d)

retained funds.

58.

As Jaya Kumar considers approaching a venture capital firm to provide funding for his new law firm, he should realize that a venture capital firm will:

a)

offer a pay back period of less than a year.

b)

charge a higher interest rate than a commercial bank.

c)

expect the company to provide a steady dividend income.

d)

probably want an ownership interest in the business.

59.

Successful use of financial leverage requires a firm to:

a)

negotiate with lenders to establish a line of credit

b)

establish and operate a venture capital organization to minimize the use of equity financing.

c)

register with the local government commission that administers market leverage.

d)

earn a higher return on its investments than the interest rate it pays to acquire funds.

60.

As a result of cash flow shortages, Untung Department Stores has fallen behind in payments to suppliers. Some suppliers are withholding shipments to Untung's until they receive payments on overdue accounts. To meet their immediate needs, Untung's Department Stores should utilize:

a)

vulture capital.

b)

contingency capital.

c)

long-term financing.

d)

short-term financing.