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Biology Benchmark #2 Fall 2020

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What would most likely happen if airborne pollution blocked the sun's rays so significantly that only 5% of plants survived?

a)

The atmosphere would fill with oxygen, and animals would begin to die.

b)

All animals would evolve to begin using carbon dioxide as a food source.

c)

The atmosphere would fill with carbon dioxide, and animals would begin to die.

d)

All animals would evolve to use a mixture of oxygen and carbon dioxide during respiration.

2.

This diagram represents a closed terrarium exposed to sunlight. What must happen for the carbon cycle to continue in this terrarium?

a)

All organisms must continue to exchange gases.

b)

The snails must double their production of carbon dioxide.

c)

The plant must produce carbon dioxide at a faster rate.

d)

The decomposers must begin to produce oxygen.

3.

Pollution during the Industrial Revolution darkened the trees. Which moths most likely survived this environmental change?

a)

light-colored moths that migrated away

b)

dark-colored moths that mimicked the light-colored moths

c)

dark-colored moths that were better camouflaged from predators

d)

light-colored moths that were better camouflaged from predators

4.

Which statement describes a genetic adaptation that allows arctic foxes and their offspring to survive in the tundra?

a)

Arctic foxes bear live young.

b)

Arctic foxes are warm-blooded.

c)

Arctic foxes eat rodents, birds, and fish.

d)

Arctic foxes are white in the winter and brown in the summer.

5.

The graph shows the number of hare and the number of lynx in a specific ecosystem over time.

a)

A rise in the lynx population caused a rise in the hare population.

b)

The hare population was limited by the number of lynx in the ecosystem.

c)

The lynx population was limited by the number of hares in the ecosystem.

d)

The hare population drastically decreased in the 1920s because of a decrease in the lynx population.

6.

In nature, which type of behavior causes animals to produce aggressive displays and sounds?

a)

imprinting

b)

territoriality

c)

conditioning

d)

habituation

7.

Which graph best illustrates the growth of a population introduced into an environment with limited resources?

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.

When a large number of animals are eaten by predators, what happens to reduce the impact of that loss?

a)

The predators move on to eat different kinds of animals in the future.

b)

The predators become more likely to catch diseases that will limit their numbers.

c)

The remaining animals become better at hiding so they are less likely to be eaten.

d)

The remaining animals will have more available food, allowing them to have more offspring to replace the animals lost to the predators.

9.

What will most likely be the result as humans move into new areas, forests are clear cut and housing developments are built?

a)

Global temperatures will decrease because trees are removed.

b)

Many organisms will lose their homes because their habitats have been destroyed.

c)

Better sanitation in the area will reduce the amount of pollution.

d)

The rainfall in the area will increase because there will be increased runoff.

10.

Which will most likely result in a negative growth rate in the human population of a country?

a)

The death rate is higher than the birth rate.

b)

The birth rate is higher than the death rate.

c)

The country has improved economic conditions.

d)

The country has made improvements in sanitation.

11.

How would a reduction in the processing of fossil fuels impact society?

a)

Petroleum products would become more expensive and pollution would increase.

b)

Petroleum products would become less expensive and pollution would decrease.

c)

Petroleum products would be conserved and pollution would increase.

d)

Petroleum products would be conserved and pollution would decrease.

12.

Which action does not demonstrate resource conservation?

a)

using paper plates

b)

collecting rainwater

c)

using a reusable water bottle

d)

turning off electric devices when not in use

13.

Which RNA is a copy made from a DNA strand that can be transported to a ribosome?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

siRNA

d)

tRNA

14.

A scientist analyzes a tissue sample and discovers that 30% of the nitrogenous bases are guanine (G). What percentage of the bases are thymine (T)?

a)

70%

b)

40%

c)

30%

d)

20%

15.

Which process produces mRNA from DNA?

a)

synthesis

b)

replication

c)

translation

d)

transcription

16.

Which RNA sequence will result from the transcription of the DNA sequence AAT TTC CGA ATG GGA?

a)

AAU UUC CGA AUG GGA

b)

AGG GTA AGC CTT TAA

c)

TTU UUG GCT TUC CCT

d)

UUA AAG GCU UAC CCU

17.

A mutation in which cell can create a change in heritable traits?

a)

body cell

b)

gamete cell

c)

somatic cell

d)

prokaryote cell

18.

What is most likely to result when a mutation affects a DNA sequence?

a)

The codons will be unable to create bonds with the enzymes.

b)

The nucleic acids will be unable to create bonds with the ribosomes.

c)

The amino acid sequence will be changed and a different protein will be formed.

d)

The protein sequence will be changed and a different set of nucleic acids will be formed.

19.

Which statement is true of meiosis?

a)

Organisms use meiosis to grow.

b)

Organisms use meiosis to replace blood cells.

c)

Organisms use meiosis to repair damaged cells.

d)

Organisms use meiosis to make reproductive cells.

20.

The diagram below shows a process that frequently occurs during meiosis. What advantage is provided by this process?

a)

Daughter cells maintain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

b)

Daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

Daughter cells are genetically different from parent cells.

d)

Daughter cells are genetically identical to parent cells.

21.

Black hair color is dominant to white hair color in mice. Interpret the Punnett square to determine the expected phenotypic ratio for the offspring of a homozygous black mouse and a white mouse.

a)

4 Black: 0 White

b)

3 Black: 1 White

c)

2 Black: 2 White

d)

0 Black: 4 White

22.

Calico coat color (XBXR) is a sex-linked trait found in female cats. When a male cat with an orange coat (XRY) is crossed with a female cat with a black coat (XBXB), what is the probability of having orange cats?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

23.

What environmental factor is paired with the correct disease that it causes?

a)

asbestos exposure : asthma

b)

asbestos exposure : mouth cancer

c)

overexposure to the sun : skin cancer

d)

overexposure to the sun : vitamin D poisoning

24.

Which example best demonstrates an organism’s interaction with the environment affecting gene expression?

a)

a monkey learning to use a twig to capture termites for food

b)

a fox producing more offspring when prey are readily available

c)

a fish entering saltier waters and producing glands to remove excess salt

d)

a person with high blood pressure maintaining normal pressure levels through diet and exercise

25.

Which best explains the genetic similarities between species?

a)

More closely related species will have identical DNA.

b)

More closely related species will have fewer DNA similarities.

c)

More closely related species will have more similarities in DNA.

d)

There is no link between the relationships of species and their DNA.

26.

Which approach would be least helpful in determining genetic differences between species?

a)

analysis of DNA

b)

observation of mating habits

c)

examination of proteins encoded by DNA

d)

identification of amino acids that make up proteins

27.

A biochemist is working to isolate the insulin that a transgenic bacterial culture has produced. Which step of the transgenic process would have come right before the protein isolation?

a)

Insulin is purified and packaged for use.

b)

Bacteria cells are induced to take in the insulin plasmid.

c)

Cultured bacterial cells are induced to make the transgenic protein.

d)

Restriction enzymes cut the plasmid for insertion of the insulin gene.

28.

What is the goal of genetic engineering?

a)

to create a stronger, more resilient organism

b)

to create a homozygous hybrid

c)

to map the organism’s genes

d)

to map a new set of genes

29.

The table shows amino acid sequences in four different organisms. If these sequences code for proteins within the same protein family, which two organisms are most likely closely related to one another?

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 4

c)

2 and 3

d)

2 and 4

30.

Some marine worms and mollusks go through similar larval stages during development. Which can be inferred about their relationship?

a)

They share a common ancestor.

b)

They mate with each other.

c)

They compete for a habitat.

d)

They share the same food source.

31.

Which situation would most likely be a driving force for changes in a species?

a)

reduced diversity due to geographic isolation

b)

increased mating events due to environmental stability

c)

increased resources due to favorable weather conditions

d)

reduced offspring production due to asexual reproduction methods

32.

How is inheritance related to the process of natural selection?

a)

It promotes mutations of genetic material over time.

b)

It restricts the flow of DNA from one generation to the next.

c)

It reduces competition for mates and increases genetic continuity.

d)

It allows beneficial traits to be passed from generation to generation.

33.

A certain strain of bacteria used to be susceptible to penicillin. Today, that strain is resistant to penicillin. Which best explains this observation?

a)

The bacteria needed to become resistant to survive.

b)

The isolation of the strain caused it to become resistant.

c)

A mutation occurred and was passed to future generations.

d)

The mutation rate in the bacteria population greatly increased.

34.

A patient has a severe bacterial infection. Within a few weeks of treatment with an antibiotic, the bacterial population consists entirely of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. How can this outcome most likely be explained?

a)

The antibiotic caused a mutation in the bacteria’s RNA.

b)

The bacteria began reproducing at a faster rate than before the antibiotic treatment.

c)

The antibiotic created resistance in the bacteria, and the bacteria are passing the resistance to one another.

d)

A small population of antibiotic-resistant bacteria were present before the treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency.

35.

Why is the current system for the classification of organisms subject to change?

a)

New geographic locations are being discovered, leading to the identification of unique organisms.

b)

New organisms are being discovered, and observations of anatomical similarities lead to the identification of these organisms.

c)

Improved technology is being used to analyze the shapes of fossilized bone, which allows for a more precise comparison of organisms.

d)

Molecular evidence is being used to analyze amino acid sequences and other biochemical similarities, which allows for a more precise comparison of organisms.

36.

Which development has had the greatest impact on the understanding of evolutionary relationships?

a)

the ability to compare DNA

b)

the discovery of fossil remains

c)

advancements in morphological study

d)

comparisons of embryonic development

37.

The diagram shows a phylogenetic tree. In which phylum do organisms have a segmented body?

a)

Chordata

b)

Echinodermata

c)

Hemichordata

d)

Nematoda

38.

All life stems from a common ancestor. Which evidence best supports this statement?

a)

anatomical structures

b)

fossilized algae and plants

c)

DNA from living organisms

d)

presence of bone fragments in rock layers

39.

Which are units that make up proteins?

a)

fatty acids

b)

amino acids

c)

glucose molecules

d)

nucleotide molecules

40.

Which role do proteins play in the body?

a)

They provide long-term energy storage.

b)

They provide short-term energy storage.

c)

They provide structure to form DNA and RNA molecules.

d)

They provide structure for body tissue, hair, and fingernails.

41.

Which nucleic acid is correctly paired with its function?

a)

mRNA: lines up amino acids at the ribosome

b)

DNA: forms peptide bonds between amino acids

c)

tRNA: moves genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome

d)

mRNA: moves genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome

42.

Which is not a step in protein synthesis?

a)

tRNA brings in amino acids

b)

mRNA travels to the ribosome

c)

DNA polymerase reads the mRNA

d)

RNA polymerase makes mRNA from DNA

43.

How does an enzyme alter activation energy of a reaction?

a)

increases activation energy

b)

stabilizes the activation of a chemical reaction

c)

removes all energy needed to cause a reaction

d)

decreases the energy needed to cause a reaction

44.

This graph shows the effect of temperature on the enzyme activity of catalase. What is the optimal temperature for catalase?

a)

45 °C

b)

25 °C

c)

15 °C

d)

0 °C

45.

The products from cellular respiration are used in which other chemical process?

a)

Krebs cycle

b)

fermentation

c)

photosynthesis

d)

anaerobic respiration

46.

Which statement correctly compares aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

a)

Anaerobic respiration occurs in the presence of oxygen but aerobic respiration does not.

b)

Fermentation occurs during aerobic respiration but not during anaerobic respiration.

c)

Aerobic respiration produces 36 ATP, while anaerobic respiration produces only 2 ATP.

d)

Aerobic respiration produces 2 ATP, while anaerobic respiration produces 36 ATP.

47.

Which type of transport is most likely to be used to move a product made inside a cell to the extracellular matrix?

a)

diffusion

b)

active transport

c)

passive transport

d)

facilitated diffusion

48.

How does the cell membrane use the ATP produced by the cell’s mitochondria?

a)

to replace damaged phospholipids

b)

to produce receptors for hormones

c)

to move water into or out of the cell

d)

to transport ions against their concentration gradient

49.

Which organelles differentiate plant cells from animal cells?

a)

flagella and nuclei

b)

mitochondria and ribosomes

c)

cell walls and large central vacuoles

d)

contractile vacuoles and cell membranes

50.

Which organelles must work together to provide food and energy to a plant cell?

a)

chloroplast and mitochondria

b)

cell membrane and cell wall

c)

mitochondria and vacuole

d)

chloroplast and vacuole

51.

A scientist discovers several new prokaryotic organisms near a deep seafloor vent. Which best describes the general characteristics of these organisms?

a)

colonial, autotrophic

b)

multicellular, autotrophic

c)

single-celled, autotrophic

d)

multicellular, heterotrophic

52.

A student uses a microscope to observe a cell that has a cell wall, a plasma membrane, and circular DNA. What kind of cell is this student observing?

a)

plant cell

b)

animal cell

c)

eukaryotic cell

d)

prokaryotic cell

53.

How are the enzymes that nerve cells produce different from the enzymes that blood cells produce?

a)

Nerve cells contain more ribosomes than blood cells.

b)

Nerve cells contain more mitochondria than blood cells.

c)

The genes that are activated in nerve cells are different from those activated in blood cells.

d)

The molecules that nerve cells digest are more complex than those digested by blood cells.

54.

What determines cell differentiation once gene regulation has taken place?

a)

fluids

b)

proteins

c)

mitochondria

d)

adenosine triphosphates

55.

Which is an example of how humans maintain homeostasis in adverse environmental conditions?

a)

sweating in heat

b)

shivering in the heat

c)

digesting amino acids

d)

regulating glucose levels

56.

A saltwater plant is placed in fresh water. What will most likely happen to the cells of the plant?

a)

The cell wall will prevent water from flowing in or out of the cells.

b)

The cells will lose water and shrivel.

c)

The cells will gain water and swell.

d)

The cells will stay the same size.

57.

What would most likely be produced when a cell with eight chromosomes undergoes mitosis?

a)

two cells with four chromosomes each

b)

two cells with eight chromosomes each

c)

four cells with four chromosomes each

d)

four cells with eight chromosomes each

58.

During which phase of the cell cycle does most cell growth occur?

a)

cytokinesis

b)

interphase

c)

prophase

d)

mitosis

59.

Which part of an amoeba helps the cell regulate water entering and exiting the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosomes

d)

plasma membrane

60.

How does a Euglena identify a light source and move toward it so photosynthesis can occur?

a)

by using eyespots and flagella

b)

by using pseudopodia and flagella

c)

by using contractile vacuoles and cilia

d)

by using contractile vacuoles and pseudopodia