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DC Bio Final Prep

Total questions: 213

Worksheet time: 6hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the scientific method
a)
Something in science
b)
Just a fun experiment
c)
Process that scientist use to study the world around them.
2.

What is the independent variable?

a)

The variable that is not changed

b)

The variable that is being observed

c)

The variable that you purposely manipulate

d)

The variable that responds to the change

3.

What is the dependent variable?

a)

The variable that does not change

b)

The variable that you purposely manipulate

c)

The variable that is kept constant on purpose

d)

The variable that responds to the change

4.

What is the control group?

a)

The group that changes

b)

The group that is used as a comparison

c)

The group that responds to the changes

d)

The group that wants everything their own way

5.

Quantitative or Qualitative? Number of eggs in a carton.

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

6.

Quantitative or Qualitative? Smoothness of the eggs in a carton.

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

7.
An if/then statement that shows cause and effect relationship is included in the:
a)
Question
b)
Hypothesis
c)
Materials List
d)
Data table
8.

What are diverse ways that scientists study the natural world and propose explanations based on evidence?

a)

Scientific Law

b)

Scientific Theory

c)

Scientific Inquiry

d)

Scientific Calculator

9.

An explanation or interpretation of an observation usually influenced by an individual's experiences is called a(an):

a)

qualitative observation

b)

inference

c)

quantitative observation

d)

hypothesis

10.

An explanation of why something happens based on years of extensive testing and observations:

a)

observation

b)

inference

c)

theory

d)

hypothesis

11.
Factor that you keep the same in an experiment
a)
Independent Variable
b)
Dependent Variable 
c)
Controlled Variable
d)
Operational Definition
12.
What are diverse ways that scientists study the natural world and propose explanations based on evidence? 
a)
Scientific Law
b)
Scientific Theory
c)
Scientific Inquiry 
d)
Scientific Calculator 
13.
What is a statement that describes what scientists expect to happen every time under a particular set of conditions?
For example: law of gravity
a)
Communicating
b)
Scientific Inquiry 
c)
Scientific Theory
d)
Scientific Law
14.
What are the two factors to look for when determining if the reaction is at equilibrium?
a)
Forward reaction rate is faster than the reverse and concentrations are equal
b)
Forward and reverse reaction rates are equal and concentration is conctant
c)
Forward and revers reaction rates are equal and concentration is equal
d)
Forward reaction rate is faster than the reverse and concentration is equal
15.
It is a chemical reaction where the reactants form products that, in turn, react together to give the reactants back.
a)
reversible reaction
b)
irreversible reaction
c)
decomposition reaction
d)
synthesis
16.
Which of the following is NOT true at equilibrium?
a)
The forward and reverse reactions proceed at the same rate.
b)
The concentrations of reactants and products do not change.
c)
The concentration of the reactants is equal to the concentration of the products.
d)
The forward and reverse reactions continue to occur.
17.

An atom that has a different number of neutrons than the standard for that element.

a)

element

b)

isotope

c)

molecule

d)

organism

18.

The correct order for the organization of living things is

a)

cell -> tissue -> organ -> organ system -> organism

b)

cell -> atom -> organ system -> organism -> tissue

c)

cell -> atom -> molecule -> organism -> organ system

d)

tissue -> cell -> organism -> organ -> organ system

19.

a major component of genes and proteins

a)

nitrogen

b)

sulfur

c)

iron

d)

oxygen

20.

major part of photosynthesis and respiration

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

sulfur

d)

calcium

21.

non found naturally in earth, must be combined with other elements like oxygen

a)

phosphorus

b)

sulfur

c)

calcium

d)

hydrogen

22.

makes up about 63% of the mass of animals and 75% of the mass of plants

a)

nitrogen

b)

carbon

c)

oxygen

d)

hydrogen

23.

What is the meaning of isotope?

a)

Elements with same mass number but different proton number

b)

Elements with same nucleon number but different proton number

c)

Elements with different nucleon number and different proton number

d)

Elements with different mass number but same proton number

24.
Radiometric dating is possible because the rates of decay of radioactive isotopes _____.
a)
change over time
b)
change from place to place
c)
are constant
d)
vary widely
25.
The function of the plasma membrane is....
a)
to regulate what enters and leaves the cell.
b)
fight bacteria and viruses that enter the cell.
c)
provide rigid support and protection to the cell.
d)
make sure each cell can move
26.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
27.
"Water Fearing" 
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
Hydrophilic 
c)
Hydroelectric 
d)
Hydroloric
28.
Cell membrane allows some things to pass freely and others to not
a)
Phospholipid Bilayer
b)
Selectively Permeable Membrane
c)
Fluid Mosaic Model
29.
___________ allow cells to recognize each other and act like ID tags. 
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
30.
___________ strengthens and stabilizes the cell membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
31.
The majority of the cell membrane is made of which macromolecule?
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbs
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic acids
32.
Something is ___________ ____________
when some molecules can cross the membrane while others cannot. 
a)
Selectively (or Semi) Permeable 
b)
Totally Transparent
c)
Liquid Licorice 
d)
Heavily Patrolled 
33.
Classify the compound based on the functional group present.
a)
carboxylic acid
b)
aldehyde
c)
alcohol
d)
ether
34.
Classify the compound based on the functional group present.
a)
aldehyde
b)
ketone
c)
carboxylic acid
d)
ester
35.
Classify the compound based on the functional group present.
a)
aldehyde
b)
ketone
c)
alcohol
d)
carboxylic acid
36.

What functional group is -CH3

a)

Methyl

b)

Hydroxyl

c)

Carboxyl

d)

Carbonyl Ketone

37.
What is the amino group's structure?
a)
-COOH
b)
-NH2
c)
-PO4
d)
-OH
38.

What functional group is shown?

a)

carbonyl

b)

hydroxyl

c)

carboxyl

d)

amino

39.

Which functional group is shown in the picture?

a)

hydroxyl group

b)

carbonyl group

c)

carboxyl group

d)

amino group

40.

The four most common elements in living things are

a)

carbon, hydrogen, sulfur, iron

b)

cobalt, helium, nitrogen, oxygen

c)

carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

d)

calcium, lithium, nitrogen, oxygen

41.
In chemical compounds, covalent bonds form when
a)
the electronegativity difference between two atoms is very large.
b)
electrons are completely transferred between two metals.
c)
pairs of electrons are shared between two nonmetal atoms.
d)
two nonmetal atoms are attracted to each other by opposite charges.
42.
Proteins are polymers made of monomers called
a)
nucleotides
b)
lipids
c)
amino acids
d)
nitrogen bases
43.
Which are enzymes?
a)
simple carbohydrates
b)
proteins that speed up chemical reactions
c)
lipids that make up the cell membrane
d)
a building block of DNA
44.
Storing genetic information is a function belonging to which macromolecule? 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
45.

Macromolecules are formed by a process called polymerization, in which large compounds are built by joining smaller ones together.

The smaller units, or _____, join together to form _____.

a)

polymers, monomers

b)

monomers, polymers

c)

molecules, atoms

d)

cells, molecules

46.
What type of transport is this?
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
active transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
47.
What are two types of passive transport?
a)
endo and exocytosis 
b)
in a minute and later
c)
hydrophobic and hydrophillic 
d)
osmosis and diffusion
48.
Special proteins help move particles, but NO energy is needed. This is..
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
exocytosis
c)
active transport
d)
equilibrium
49.
When something is 'water loving' it is.....
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
Hydrophilic 
c)
Hydroelectric 
d)
Hydroloric
50.
This process is known as ________ transport.
a)
passive
b)
active
c)
protein
d)
temporary
51.
In which direction will these molecules diffuse?
a)
from right to left
b)
from left to right
c)
they will not move at all
d)
they will move in both directions equally
52.

The primary component of the cell membrane is the group of lipids called

a)

prostaglandins

b)

cholesterol

c)

phospholipids

d)

carbohydrate

53.
The region on an enzyme to which the substrate binds
a)
Active site
b)
Conformation
c)
Reaction site
d)
Zone of specificity
54.
Which of the following molecules speed up chemical reactions?
a)
Steroids
b)
Enzymes
c)
Sugars
d)
Waxes
55.
Which term refers to an enzyme no longer functioning due to a change in shape?
a)
Conformation
b)
Optimization
c)
Denaturation
d)
Specification
56.
The level of protein structure in which amino acids are bonded in a linear chain by peptide bonds.
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Quartenary
57.
Protein structure in which the adjacent amino acids of the polypeptide bond form hydrogen bonds to form alpha helices and beta pleated sheets
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Quartenary
58.
Protein structure in which the polypeptide folds into its 3-D conformation
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Quartenary
59.
Level in which two or more tertiary structures combine.
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Teriary
d)
Quartenary
60.

What are the proper complementary base-pairs?

a)

A--T and G--C

b)

A--G and C--T

c)

G--T and A--C

d)

A--C and T--G

61.

T A G G A C T


The complementary strand is...

a)

T A G G A C T

b)

A T G G T G A

c)

A T C C T G A

d)

T T C C A G T

62.

Which of the following base pairs with adenine in RNA?

a)

thymine

b)

guanine

c)

uracil

d)

cytosine

63.

Which are pyrimidines?

a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Cytosine

64.

Which are purines?

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Guanine

65.

When is DNA replicated before mitosis/meiosis?

a)

telophase

b)

G4-phase

c)

mesophase

d)

s-phase

66.

Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, phosphate, and..?

a)

nitrogenous base

b)

nucleic acid

c)

cholesterol

d)

fatty acid

67.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

Denitrogenous acid

c)

Deribonucleic acid

d)

Diribonucleic acid

68.

Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?

a)

deoxyribose sugar and adenine

b)

deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond

c)

deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus

d)

deoxyribose sugar and phosphate

69.

Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?

a)

polar bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

covalent bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

70.

Contains chlorophyll (green pigment) and uses the sun to make food

a)

cell membrane

b)

cell wall

c)

chloroplast

d)

cytoplasm

71.

rigid outer layer that supports and allows it to grow tall

a)

cell membrane

b)

cell wall

c)

chloroplast

d)

cytoplasm

72.

controls movement of materials in and out of the cell, maintains homeostasis

a)

cell membrane

b)

cell wall

c)

chloroplast

d)

cytoplasm

73.

jelly like material that protects cell organelles

a)

cell membrane

b)

cell wall

c)

chloroplast

d)

cytoplasm

74.

Plants perform photosynthesis through this organelle. It captures energy from the sun and uses it to produce food for the cell.

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Nucleus

75.

Animal cells can be distinguished from plant cells easily because of which of the following?

a)

Animal cells have mitochondria and plant cells do not.

b)

Plant cells have lysosomes and animal cells do not.

c)

Only plant cells have centrioles around their nucleus.

d)

Only plant cells have large central vacuoles and cell walls.

76.

Which of the following best describes the function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Modifies carbohydrates and proteins, placing them into vesicles

b)

Manufactures proteins and nucleic acids using the DNA code

c)

Modifies and transports proteins after the ribosome makes them

d)

Manufactures lipids and then transports them to a new location

77.

Which structure in the cell destroys invaders such as bacteria and viruses, while also helping with the digestion of food particles?

a)

cell membrane

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

lysosomes

78.

Which of the following best describes the function of the Golgi apparatus?

a)

It modifies and transports proteins after the ribosome makes them.

b)

It manufactures lipids and then transports them to a new location.

c)

It manufactures proteins and nucleic acids using the DNA code.

d)

It modifies lipids and proteins and places them into packages.

79.

Prokaryotes do not have a nucleus. Which of the following organelles is also NOT found in a prokaryote?

a)

cell wall

b)

ribososme

c)

flagellum

d)

mitochondria

80.

Compounds that are composed of the same number and type of atoms but have them arranged in different ways are ___________.

a)

isomers

b)

isotopes

c)

polymers

d)

alkanes

81.

In a stereoisomer, ________ means "on the same side" and ______ means "across from."

a)

cis; trans

b)

cis; L

c)

D; L

d)

trans; cis

82.
Which of the following is true about structural isomers?
a)
Have the same molecular formula
b)
Have different physical and chemical properties.
c)
Have the same number of elements
d)
all of the above
83.

The energy needed to start a reaction is called the

a)

activation energy

b)

starting energy

c)

promoting energy

d)

reacting energy

84.

Enzymes contain a(n) ___ where reactants can bond to react with each other.

a)

active site

b)

reaction site

c)

substrate site

d)

enzyme site

85.

Once an enzyme has helped a reaction take place, it can then

a)

be reused for another reaction with the same reactants.

b)

be broken down.

c)

be stored in the cell until it is needed again.

d)

be used to help different reactants go through a reaction.

86.

Some factors can change the shape of an enzyme and when an enzyme's shape has changed it no longer works. When this happens we say that the enzyme has been ___.

a)

denatured

b)

altered

c)

modified

d)

renatured

87.

_________ are the basic units of life.

a)

Cells

b)

Organells

c)

Neucleus

d)

Organisms

88.

Mitochondria produces ____________.

a)

energy

b)

light

c)

food

d)

waste materials

89.

Cells come together to form ____________.

a)

an organ

b)

an organelle

c)

an organism

d)

a tissue

90.

A jelly-like substance in which all of the organelles of a cell are placed.

a)

ribosome

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

cytoplasm

d)

nucleous

91.

Which one of the following organelles keeps toxic materials outside of the cell?

a)

golgi body

b)

cell membrane

c)

lysosome

d)

ribosome

92.

___________ produce proteins.

a)

Chromoplasts

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Ribosomes

93.

What distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell? (How do you tell them apart) Hint: There's 3 ways (Check all 3)

a)

Central Vacuole

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Chloroplasts

94.

Photosynthesis takes place within me. I am a...

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Chlorine

d)

Chloroplast

95.

I am often referred to as the "packaging system" within a cell. I "package" proteins and ship them to the Golgi Body. I am a...

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Baconidis

d)

Golgi Body

96.

Synthesis and packeging of proteins occurs in...

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Lysosome

d)

Plasma membrane

97.

......is important in the creation and storage of lipids and steroids.

a)

Smooth ER

b)

Rough ER

c)

Lysosome

d)

Mitochondria

98.

An organelle that transports and packages large molecules like complex carbohydrates, lipids and proteins.

Sometimes called golgi body or golgi complex.

a)

Ribosome

b)

Golgi Reticulum

c)

Endoplasmic Apparatus

d)

Golgi Apparatus

99.

In the Golgi Apparatus macromolecules, such as lipids and proteins, are transported within the cell using____.

a)

Vesicles

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

DNA

100.

Which cell has central large vacuole

a)

plant cell

b)

animal cell

101.

Which cell contains lysosome

a)

plant cell

b)

animal cell

102.
Supports cells structure & drives cell movement.  Composed of microfilaments, microtubules, & centrioles.
a)
endoplasmic reticulum
b)
golgi apparatus
c)
cytoskeleton
d)
vacuole
103.
Contains digestive enzymes to break down worn out parts of the cell.
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
ribosome
d)
nucleolus
104.
Stores materials such as water, salts, proteins, & carbohydrates.
a)
ribosome
b)
lysosome
c)
vacuole
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
105.
Osmosis
a)
diffusion of water molecules through a semi-permeable mebrane from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
b)
the diffusion of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
c)
diffusion of water molecules through a semi-permeable membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
d)
the diffusion of particles from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
106.
Equilibrium?
a)
a large  amount of substance on  side of the cell and a small amount on the other side
b)
a small  amount of substance on  side of the cell and a large amount on the otherside
c)
equal amount of substance on either side of the membrane  
d)
no particles on either side of the a cell membrane
107.
Which form of active transport is being shown?
a)
Pinocytosis
b)
Endocytosis
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Osmosis
108.
Human immune cells can engulf bacteria to destroy them. This is an example of 
a)
pinocytosis
b)
phagocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
acidosis
109.
Materials that can move across a membrane with passive transport include
a)
water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide
b)
starch and other polysaccharides
c)
DNA and RNA
d)
large proteins
110.
Which form of active transport is being shown?
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Protein Pumps
111.

cell

a)

smallest unit of matter

b)

smallest unit of life

c)

group of 2 or more atoms joined by a covalent bonds.

d)

composed of only 1 type of atom

112.

TISSUE . . .

a)

specialized structure within a cell that performs specific cellular functions.

b)

basic unit of life

c)

group of same cells.

d)

structure consisting of several different tissues to perform a specific function

113.

Organ . . .

a)

specialized structure within a cell that performs specific cellular functions.

b)

basic unit of life

c)

group of same cells.

d)

structure consisting of several different tissues to perform a specific function

114.

Organ system . . .

a)

specialized structure within a cell that performs specific cellular functions.

b)

group of organs working together to perform a vital body function.

c)

group of same cells.

d)

structure consisting of several different tissues to perform a specific function

115.

organism

a)

a group of organs working together to perform a vital body function.

b)

a living thing

c)

same species interacting with each other

d)

all living things in a particular area.

116.

What does the following equation represent?


Sunlight +6H20 + 6CO2--> C6H1206 +6O2

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Human respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Solar energy

117.

C6H1206 +6O2--> 6H20 + 6CO2 + Energy (ATP)

This equation represents ___________________.

a)

Human Respiration

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Photosynthesis

118.
Bacteria cells share which of the following organelles in common with plant and animal cells?
a)
cell membrane, RER
b)
cell wall, mitochondria
c)
nucleus, ribosomes
d)
ribosomes, cytoplasm
119.
Which of the following IS found in a bacteria cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Nucleoid
c)
Mitochondria
d)
RER
120.

Fully grown parent cells split into two halves resulting in two daughter cells with the exact DNA as the parent.

a)

Binary Fission

b)

Budding

c)

Fragmentation

d)

Vegetative Reproductions

121.

What is the final product of the Electron Transport Chain?

a)

ATP

b)

NADH

c)

FADH2

d)

ADP

122.

The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is

a)

NAD+

b)

FAD

c)

Oxygen

d)

Water

123.

Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Matrix of mitochondria

c)

Innermembrane of mitochondria

d)

Intermembrane space of mitochondria

124.

What doe FADH2 and NADH bring to the electron transport chain?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Water

c)

Electron

d)

ATP

125.

ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is driven by

a)

H+ movement

b)

electron movement

c)

NADH movement

d)

FADH2 movement

126.

Please identify the proper locations for each step of cellular respiration. (Select more than 1 option)

a)

Glycolysis = Cytoplasm

b)

Glycolysis = Mitochondria

c)

Citric Acid Cycle = Cytoplasm

d)

Citric Acid Cycle = Mitochondrial Matrix

e)

Oxidative Phosphorylation = Cytoplasm

127.
Where does the Krebs Cycle take place?
a)
mitochondria
b)
chloroplast
c)
cytoplasm
d)
nucleus
128.

Which organism go through cellular respiration?

a)

animals

b)

plants

c)

both animals and plants

d)

none

129.

Which molecule is the product of Glycolysis and the reactant of the Krebs Cycle?

a)

pyruvic acid

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

water

d)

oxygen

130.

The totality of an organism's chemical reactions is called

a)

catabolism

b)

anabolism

c)

metabolism

d)

fabulism

131.
What type of metabolism allows you to break down food into energy for your cells?
a)
anabolism
b)
catabolism
c)
exercise
d)
autotroph
132.
Where does glycolysis take place in cells?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Ribosomes
133.

During glycolysis, glucose is broken down into how many molecules of pyruvic acid?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

134.

Where does the Kreb's cycle take place in the cell?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

in the space between two mitochondrial membranes

c)

in the matrix of mitochondria

d)

in the endoplasmic reticulum

135.
Where do the dark reactions take place? 
a)
thylakoid membrane
b)
lumen
c)
stroma
136.
The two main stages of photosynthesis are the
a)
light reactions and respiration
b)
dark reactions and the Calvin cycle 
c)
light reactions and the Calvin cycle
d)
dark reactions and fermentation
137.
In green plants, the primary function of the Calvin cycle is to
a)
Use ATP to release carbon
b)
Split water to release oxygen.
c)
Construct simple sugars from carbon dioxide.
d)
Use NADPH to release carbon
138.

The Calvin Cycle occurs in the

a)

Thylakoid

b)

Grana

c)

Inner membrane of chloroplast

d)

Stroma

139.

Plants can close their stomata when the temperature is hot

a)

To prevent water loss

b)

To prevent loss of oxygen

c)

To prevent loss of carbon dioxide

d)

To bring in more carbon dioxide

140.

Which of the following is true of the Light Reactions?

a)

carbon dioxide and energy (ATP and NADPH) are used to make organic compounds

b)

energy is absorbed from sunlight and converted to chemical energy stored in ATP and NADPH

c)

Occurs in the stroma

d)

Occurs in the cytoplasm

141.
Fermentation involves
a)
aerobic respiration
b)
anaerobic respiration 
142.
What is a disadvantage of fermentation as a process? 
a)
It produces too much ATP
b)
It only produces 2 ATP
c)
It occurs in the absence of oxygen
d)
It is only for quick bursts of energy
143.
What cells in the body may undergo lactic acid fermentation during exercise? 
a)
Muscle cells
b)
Fat cells
c)
Liver cells
d)
Skin cells
144.
Lactic acid fermentation occurs in your muscles after a workout because your cells are struggling to get
a)
Glucose
b)
Sunlight
c)
Oxygen
d)
Water
145.
Fermentation is cellular respiration without which molecule?
a)
CO2
b)
O2
c)
C6H12O6
146.

What important molecule is generated in fermentation?

a)

ATP

b)

ADP

c)

NAD+

d)

NADH

147.

What is common between the two types of fermentation?

a)

Formation of O2

b)

Energy released

c)

Regeneration of NAD+

148.

Fermentation recycles ________ back to glycolysis

a)

NADH

b)

NADP

c)

ATP

d)

NAD+

e)

ADP

149.

What organelle takes in light energy to produce food energy?

a)

chlorophyll

b)

chloroplast

c)

chlorophage

d)

chlorolous

150.
The main pigment used in photosynthesis is called:
a)
Cholorphyll
b)
Cholorplasts
c)
Plant Pigment 
151.

A part of Chloroplasts that contain Chlorophyll Pigments

a)

Stroma

b)

Memebrane

c)

Thylakoid

d)

DNA

152.
What is the cell cycle?
a)
The gradual development of something, especially from a simple to a more complex form.
b)
The study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.
c)
The branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
d)
The series of events that take place in a cell leading to its division and duplication of its DNA to produce two daughter cells.
153.
Which part of the Cell Cycle takes the longest?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Cytokinesis
154.
What happens in the first part of Interphase?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cell Growth
c)
DNA Replication
d)
Anaphase
155.
What part of the cell cycle results in the splitting of the new cells?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Metaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
156.
In what phase do the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Metaphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
157.
In what phase does chromatin condense to form chromosomes?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
158.
In what phase do the chromosomes get pulled apart into sister chromatid to opposite sides of the cell?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
159.
In what phase do the organelles disperse out into the daughter cells, and the cell prepares for cytokinesis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Telophase
160.

In which stage of the cell cycle does the cell grow in size?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

161.

In which stage of the cell cycle does the DNA replicate?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

162.

The following describes_________________________ during mitosis. The chromatin condenses and spindle fibers form at each side of the cell. The chromosomes begin to form and nuclear membrane disappears.

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

163.

The following describes_________________________ during mitosis. The chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell and the spindle fibers attach to each chromosome at the centromere.

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

164.

After meiosis is complete how many cells will there be?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

165.

Spinal cord injuries are difficult to treat because damaged nerce cells do not regenerate. Which of the following most accurately explains why damaged nerve cells no longer regenerate?

a)

Mature nerve cells are in a resting state; the no longer divide during mitosis

b)

Nerve damage disrupts the cell cycle at the G1 phase

c)

Nerve damage disrupts the cell cycle at the S phase

d)

Nerve damage prevents centrioles from being synthesized

166.

Which statement below desribes the events during G2 of Interphase?

a)

The cell grows, develops, and makes new proteins

b)

The DNA replicates to form a new set of identical chromosomes

c)

The cell grows, makes new organelles, and prepares for mitosis

d)

the nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope disintegrates

167.

Which stage of the cell cycle is MOST critical for ensuring that daughter cells are identical?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

Prophase

d)

G2

168.

_____ is the uncontrolled growth of cells, often resulting in a tumor or mass of abnormal cells

a)

Cancer

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Radiation

169.

Apoptosis is

a)

programmed cell death

b)

mysterious cell death

c)

programmed cellular mutation

d)

mysterious cellular mutation

170.

If you look at a cell under a microscope, which phase is it MOST likely to be in?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

M phase

c)

Interphase

d)

G1 Phase

171.
During which stage of the cell cycle does mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
G1 phase
172.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
173.
Put the following in order: G2, G1, S, mitosis, cytokinesis. 
a)
G1, G2, S, Mitosis, cytokinesis
b)
G1, S, G2, Mitosis, cytokinesis
c)
G1, G2, S, cytokinesis, mitosis
d)
G1, S, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis
174.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
175.
The structures labeled B are
a)
centrioles
b)
chromatids
c)
centromeres
d)
chromopheres
176.

Humans have ________ pairs of chromosomes.

a)

21

b)

23

c)

46

d)

None of the above

177.
What does the following sequence represent?
DNA>RNA>Protien
a)
The central dogma
b)
Important stuff
c)
A big thought
d)
Nothing important
178.

Cells of organism must replicate for ?

a)

growth

b)

repair of damaged cells

c)

replacement of dying cells.

d)

All of the above

179.
Which of the following can activate a protein by transferring a phosphate group to it?
a)
cAMP
b)
G Protein
c)
protein kinase
d)
protein phosphatase
180.
Signal amplification is most often achieved by
a)
an enzyme cascade
b)
binding of multiple signals
c)
branching pathways
d)
action of adenylyl cyclase
181.
What does a protein kinase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme
182.
What determines whether a cell is a target cell for a particular signal molecule?
a)
phosphorylation cascade
b)
cAMP
c)
signal receptors
d)
phosphatase
183.
Which of the following is a chemical message that usually travels through the bloodstream to target cells?
a)
hormone
b)
local regulator
c)
endocrine cell
184.
The 3 steps of signal transduction in order are
a)
reception, transduction, response
b)
response, transduction, reception
c)
reception, response, transduction
d)
transduction, reception, response
185.

What is the order of the three main steps involved in cell communication/cell signaling?

a)

transduction, reception, response

b)

response, transduction, reception

c)

reception, transduction, response

d)

response, reception, transduction

186.

What determines whether a cell is a target cell for a particular signal molecule?

a)

phosphorylation cascade

b)

cAMP

c)

signal receptors

d)

phophatase

187.
What is a G protein?
a)
specific type of membrane-receptor protein
b)
protein on the cytoplasmic side of a membrane
c)
membrane-bound enzyme
d)
relay protein
188.
What do second messengers do?
a)
transport a signal through the lipid bilayer
b)
relay a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell
c)
relay message from the inside of the mebrane throughout the cytoplasm
d)
dampen the message
189.
What does a protein kinase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme
190.
What does a protein phosphatase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme with a signal molecule
191.

What is the difference between benign and malignant tumors?

a)

Benign tumors are not life threatening and malignant tumors are life threatening.

b)

Benign tumors are life threatening and malignant tumors are not life threatening.

c)

Benign tumors can have multiple nuclei while malignant tumors do not.

d)

Benign tumors can have multiple chromosome while malignant tumors do not.

192.

During which mitotic phases are sister chromatids present?

a)

all phases except telophase

b)

only prophase and anaphase

c)

all phases except anaphase

d)

only prophase and metaphase

193.

Interphase:

a)

occupies the majority of the cell cycle

b)

includes DNA replication

c)

includes growth of cell

d)

all are correct

194.
What is the structure that holds the sister chromatids together called?
a)
homologous chromosome
b)
centromere
c)
chromatid
d)
nondisjunction
195.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
196.
An egg contains
a)
22 autosomes and an X chromosome
b)
22 autosomes and an Y chromosome
c)
44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
d)
44 autosomes and an X and a Y chromosome
197.
Chromosome pairs 1-22 are referred to as
a)
sex chromosomes
b)
sister chromatids
c)
a karyotype
d)
autsomes
198.
A picture of paired chromosomes is a
a)
sister chromatid
b)
centromere
c)
syndrome
d)
karyotype
199.

Each gene occupies a specific position on a specific chromosome, this position is referred to as....

a)

the locus

b)

the centromere

c)

the allele

d)

the proteome

200.

In pea plants, being tall is dominant and being short is recessive. Two tall plants mate. One has the genotype Tt and the other has the genotype TT. What is the chance that they will have a tall offspring?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

201.

If both parents have the genotype Aa, what is the chance their offspring will also have the genotype Aa?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

202.

In humans, being able to curl your tongue is a dominant trait and NOT being able to curl you tongue is a recessive trait. If a mom with the genotype Rr has a child with a dad with the genotype Rr, what is the probability that their child will be able to curl its tongue?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

203.

A dog with straight fur (Bb) is crossed with a dog with curly fur (bb). What is the probability the offspring will have straight fur?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

204.

When one allele is not dominant over another, resulting in a blended phenotype for heterozygous offspring is considered....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

205.

When one allele is not dominant over the other, resulting in both traits expressed in a heterozygous individual.....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

206.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).


Cross a red flower with a speckled flower. What is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

2 red, 2 speckled

b)

2 red, 2 blue

c)

2 blue, 2 speckled

207.

Radish color is completely dominant, red and white are pure breeding colors. While heterozygous are purple.


Cros a white radish with a purple.

a)

4 purple

b)

1 red, 2 purple, 1 white

c)

2 purple, 2 white

d)

1 red, 1 purple, 2 white

208.

In some chickens, feather color shows incomplete dominance. If a black chicken BB is mated with one that is blue (BW), what is the probability of having a chicken that is black?

a)

1/4

b)

1/2

c)

3/4

d)

100%

209.

In snapdragons, flower color exhibits incomplete dominance. When crossed, red (RR) and white (WW) flowers make pink flowers (RW). Complete a cross between a pink flower and a red flower. Find the phenotype ratio.

a)

1 red: 1 pink

b)

4 red: 0 pink

c)

4 pink: 0 white

d)

1 pink: 1 white

210.

A purple-flowered plant (PP) is crossed with a white flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance. What percentage of the offspring will have blue (PW) flowers?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

211.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
212.

A white mouse with red eyes is crossed with a black mouse with brown eyes. The white mouse is recessive for both of its traits. The black mouse is dominant for both of its traits.

This cross would be

a)

BBEE x bbee

b)

BBEe x BbEe

c)

BbEE x BbEe

d)

BBee x BBEE

213.

In humans, B is the allele for brown eyes and b is the allele for blue eyes. Two brothers both have brown eyes, but one of them has both the B and b  alleles while the other only has B  alleles. Which statement is true about the brothers?

a)

They have the same genotype and phenotype.

b)

They have different phenotypes and genotypes.

c)

They have the same phenotype but different genotypes.

d)

They have the same genotype but different phenotypes.

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