Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

NAVAL SCIENCE 3 - 1ST SEM - EOC TEST

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the U.S. Navy's two basic operational functions?

a)

deterrence and security of the sea-lanes

b)

logistic support of land forces and launching carrier air strikes

c)

sea control and power projection

d)

strategic nuclear strikes and deployment of overseas forces

2.

Within the national military strategy, what mission is the U.S. Navy NOT responsible for?

a)

complete control of the world’s ocean areas

b)

deployment of overseas forces

c)

security of the sea lines of communication

d)

strategic nuclear deterrence

3.

What systems are associated with the employment of naval offensive power projection?

a)

Naval gunfire, cruise missiles, carrier-based aircraft, and satellite imagery

b)

Naval gunfire, satellite imagery and human intelligence combined with special forces teams

c)

Naval gunfire, artillery, human intelligence and armored divisions

d)

Naval gunfire, cruise missiles, carrier-based aircraft, and amphibious landings

4.

What does C4I stand for?

a)

command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence

b)

command, control, communications, cryptology, and infrastructure

c)

command, control, communications, combat ops, and intelligence

d)

command, control, combat ops, crisis response, and information systems

5.

What are the two major categories into which all naval ships can be classified?

a)

aircraft carriers and combatants

b)

combatants and auxiliaries

c)

mobile logistics and combat support

d)

surface combatants and submarines

6.

What is Surface Warfare (SUW)?

a)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore.

b)

The destruction of enemy air platforms and airborne weapons.

c)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.

d)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines and other undersea forces.

7.

What is Undersea Warfare (USW)?

a)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore.

b)

The destruction of enemy air platforms and airborne weapons.

c)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.

d)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines and other undersea forces.

8.

What is Strike Warfare?

a)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore.

b)

The destruction of enemy air platforms and airborne weapons.

c)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.

d)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines and other undersea forces.

9.

What is Amphibious Warfare?

a)

Attacks launched from the sea by naval forces and landing forces embarked in ships.

b)

Naval operations that are unconventional in nature and often clandestine in character.

c)

The electronic support for all warfare tasks.

d)

The use of mines and mine-countermeasures.

10.

What is Electronic Warfare (EW)?

a)

Attacks launched from the sea by naval forces and landing forces embarked in ships.

b)

Naval operations that are unconventional in nature and often clandestine in character.

c)

The electronic support for all warfare tasks.

d)

The use of mines and mine-countermeasures.

11.

What is Mine Warfare?

a)

Attacks launched from the sea by naval forces and landing forces embarked in ships.

b)

Naval operations that are unconventional in nature and often clandestine in character.

c)

The electronic support for all warfare tasks.

d)

The use of mines and mine-countermeasures.

12.

What portion of active operating naval forces is deployed overseas in a fully operational status under normal peacetime conditions?

a)

10%

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

80%

13.

Which of the following is NOT a capability of general purpose naval forces?

a)

command and control

b)

defensive strength

c)

nuclear strategic deterrent

d)

offensive power

14.

What is Special Warfare?

a)

Attacks launched from the sea by naval forces and landing Forces embarked in ships.

b)

Naval operations that are unconventional in nature and often clandestine in character.

c)

The electronic support for all warfare tasks.

d)

The use of mines and mine-countermeasures.

15.

What is Air Warfare (AW)?

a)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy air platforms and airborne weapons.

b)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines and other undersea forces.

c)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.

d)

The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore.

16.

What is the mission of the navy?

a)

To be prepared to conduct prompt and sustained combat operations or any other mission at sea in support of U.S. national interests.

b)

To do carrier operations.

c)

To hunt submarines.

d)

To perform at Air Festivals.

17.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of having naval forces deployed in peacetime overseas?

a)

Can show the flag year-round.

b)

Can support forward deployed units.

c)

Easier to recruit new sailors.

d)

Quicker response times.

18.

What is the tactical key to survival in atomic warfare?

a)

Dispersal

b)

Group together

c)

Surrender

d)

There is no survival in atomic warfare

19.

Which is NOT an essential tactical capability of our general purpose forces?

a)

Defensive strength

b)

Efficient command and control

c)

Mine warfare

d)

Offensive power

20.

Which is NOT a naval warfare area?

a)

Aerospace

b)

Outer space

c)

Subsurface

d)

Surface

21.

Which is NOT a fundamental tactical warfare task of the navy?

a)

Air warfare

b)

Amphibious warfare

c)

Special warfare

d)

Strike warfare

22.

Which is NOT a fundamental tactical warfare task of the navy?

a)

Amphibious warfare

b)

Logistics

c)

Subsurface warfare

d)

Surface Warfare

23.

What is the Navy’s only strategic asset?

a)

Aircraft carriers

b)

Attack submarines

c)

Ballistic missile submarines

d)

Replenishment ships

24.

Which is NOT a supporting tactical warfare task of the navy?

a)

Electronic warfare

b)

Ocean surveillance

c)

Special warfare

d)

Strike warfare

25.

How do Navy planners and tacticians attempt to structure Navy tactical Forces?

a)

Always have 1 carrier, 2 cruisers, 2 destroyers, and 1 attack submarine.

b)

Always use 12 ships in a battlegroup.

c)

Battlegroups are set by the President.

d)

So that there is a proper balance of ship types.

26.

What phrase BEST describes Overseas deployed forces?

a)

Maintained only in time of war.

b)

Not a responsibility of the Navy.

c)

Ready to fight.

d)

Undergoing reconstruction.

27.

Which of the following would best be used for surveillance?

a)

C4I

b)

smart weapons

c)

SSBNs

d)

UAVs

28.

What term best describes the function of intelligently pursuing the latest technology?

a)

naval intelligence

b)

naval logistics

c)

naval operations

d)

naval research and development

29.

Although amphibious forces may include personnel and equipment from all services, which two services usually make up the primary forces for amphibious attacks?

a)

Army and Air Force

b)

Army and Marine Corps

c)

Navy and Air Force

d)

Navy and Marine Corps

30.

What types of units are used to form a Joint Task Force?

a)

Units from a single service.

b)

Units from two or more services.

c)

Units from two or more nations.

d)

Units from two or more types of ships.

31.

As primary warships, the U.S. Navy employs aircraft carriers, cruisers, submarines, frigates, and patrol combatants. Which ship or vessel listed below is also considered to be a primary warship?

a)

Battleships.

b)

Destroyers.

c)

Hovercraft.

d)

Tankers.

32.

Which of the below selections is NOT a mission of the carrier strike force?

a)

To capture territory from which a land campaign can be launched and supported.

b)

To provide close air support.

c)

To seek out and destroy enemy air, surface, and subsurface forces.

d)

To strike against remote enemy installations.

33.

What would be the first line of defense of a naval task force against an incoming air attack?

a)

aircraft interceptors

b)

BMEWS

c)

guided missile cruisers

d)

picket destroyers

34.

33. What would be the last line of defense of a naval task force against incoming air attack?

a)

area defense weapons

b)

BMEWS.

c)

harpoon.

d)

point defense weapons (close in weapon systems).

35.

What was the name of the first nuclear-powered submarine?

a)

USS Enterprise

b)

USS George Washington

c)

USS Lexington

d)

USS Nautilus

36.

What type of naval vessel uses “Blue” and “Gold” crews to allow the unit to remain at sea indefinitely?

a)

aircraft carrier

b)

destroyers

c)

SSBNs

d)

SSNs

37.

What is the primary weapon used in surface warfare?

a)

ballistic missiles

b)

chaff

c)

cruise missiles (Harpoon and Tomahawk)

d)

surface fired torpedoes

38.

Which of the following selections is NOT one of the Navy’s categories of ships and craft?

a)

auxiliary ships

b)

combatant craft

c)

combatant ships

d)

hospital ships

39.

Which of the following selections is NOT a classification of Air Warfare?

a)

air-to-air

b)

air-to-land

c)

air-to-surface

d)

surface-to-air

40.

A modern carrier task force has how many carriers in it?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

41.

Which of the following is NOT a capability of current space satellite systems?

a)

Gathering combat intelligence.

b)

Precision worldwide navigation.

c)

Ship-to-shore communications.

d)

Tactical combat organization.

42.

Which of the following is a capability that U.S. naval strategic forces must have?

a)

must be able to conduct amphibious operations

b)

must be able to conduct special operations

c)

must be able to fire ballistic missiles against enemy target

d)

must be able to track enemy aircraft

43.

Which of the following is a capability that U.S. naval general-purpose forces do not have?

a)

the ability to communicate with higher headquarters.

b)

the ability to counter enemy forces in battle.

c)

the ability to fire ballistic missiles against enemy target.

d)

The ability to remain on station as required.

44.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a)

Space systems are still in the development stage and are not currently in use.

b)

Space systems provide a unique capability to collect and disseminate large volumes of information.

c)

Space systems provide accurate world-wide navigation services.

d)

Space systems provide secure, reliable, world-wide communications.

45.

Until the advent of naval aviation and submarine warfare, how was virtually all naval warfare conducted?

a)

between opposing surface forces

b)

between space-based systems

c)

by amphibious warfare craft

d)

there was no naval warfare before aircraft carriers were developed

46.

What is SONAR used for?

a)

locating aircraft

b)

locating downed airmen

c)

locating submarines

d)

locating weapons depots

47.

Which is NOT a principal objective of an amphibious operation?

a)

To capture territory from which a land/air campaign can be launched and supported.

b)

To destroy enemy battle groups.

c)

To destroy enemy facilities, interrupt their communications, and cause them to spread out their forces.

d)

To prevent enemy use of selected territory or facilities.

48.

The Navy’s fleets are organized into

a)

communication support groups.

b)

land and surface forces.

c)

special warfare groups.

d)

Task Forces, Task Groups, Task Units, and Task Elements.

49.

A carrier strike group has one aircraft carrier and how many fighting ships?

a)

less than 5

b)

one

c)

unlimited

d)

up to twelve

50.

Why don’t Fleet Ballistic Missile Submarines respond to messages?

a)

It would interfere with missile launch.

b)

Messages are only sent between Blue and Gold crews.

c)

They are unable to send messages at such depths.

d)

They don’t want to be detected.

51.

During which war was sonar developed?

a)

Cold War

b)

Vietnam War

c)

WW1

d)

WW2

52.

What is the challenge of leadership?

a)

To get people to do the job

b)

To get people to make effective decisions

c)

To get people to understand the job

d)

To get people to work against their will

53.

What is unsolicited or otherwise undesirable or inappropriate advances of one service member toward another based on sexual attraction, especially involving promises of reward or threats of punishment or other forms of intimidation?

a)

Familiarity

b)

Fraternization

c)

Friendship

d)

Sexual harassment

54.

Which instructional technique is a presentation of information, concepts, or principles by a single individual to a group of listeners?

a)

Case study

b)

Illustration

c)

Lecture

d)

Role-playing

55.

Which instructional technique requires the students to analyze problem situations that may be hypothetical or real?

a)

Acting

b)

Case study

c)

Demonstration

d)

Lecture

56.

Which instructional technique involves the process wherein one person does something in the presence of others to show them how to do it or to illustrate a principle?

a)

Case study

b)

Demonstration

c)

Role-playing

d)

Speech

57.

Which instructional technique involves a spontaneous portrayal (acting out) of a situation, condition, or circumstance by selected members of the class?

a)

Illustration

b)

Project study

c)

Role-playing

d)

Speech

58.

Which of the following is correct about military leaders?

a)

Their concern for the wellbeing of subordinates is primarily a legal one.

b)

Their concern for the wellbeing of subordinates is primarily a moral one.

c)

They are morally and legally accountable for the wellbeing of subordinates.

d)

They are not morally or legally accountable for the wellbeing of their subordinates.

59.

How does devotion to duty relate to the ability to take orders?

a)

Devotion to duty is unrelated to one’s ability to take orders.

b)

If any member fails to do his or her part, the entire unit will experience low morale.

c)

If any member fails to do his or her part, the unit might fail to accomplish its mission.

d)

If you are devoted to duty, you have a more positive outlook on life.

60.

What is the first lesson that must be learned by any military person?

a)

discipline

b)

followership

c)

leadership

d)

obedience

61.

What are the two forms of military obedience

a)

blind obedience and reasoned obedience

b)

obedience to commands and obedience to orders

c)

voluntary and involuntary obedience

d)

willing and forced obedience

62.

Which type of obedience allows for some personal initiative in carrying out an order?

a)

blind

b)

disciplined

c)

immediate

d)

reasoned

63.

What is an automatic response to orders such as commands issued during close order drill, or steering commands to a helmsman?

a)

a command

b)

an order

c)

blind obedience

d)

reasoned obedience

64.

What is a directive to action of some kind, generally given by a senior to a junior?

a)

a command

b)

an order

c)

blind obedience

d)

reasoned obedience

65.

What is faithful and enthusiastic devotion to one's country, organization, and associates?

a)

Arrogance

b)

Character

c)

Confidence

d)

Loyalty

66.

What is development of close personal relationships with personnel of lower rank, especially those within one's own command?

a)

Familiarity

b)

Fraternization

c)

Friendship

d)

Sexual harassment

67.

What begins with the realization that there is a need for self-control and is developed through repeated practice of self-control?

a)

Anger management

b)

Discipline

c)

Self-discipline

d)

Self-evaluation

68.

What is initiative?

a)

Doing something on your own without being told to.

b)

Praising in public.

c)

Showing firmness in difficult situations where the danger of death or injury is not an immediate concern.

d)

Thinking outside the box.

69.

How can a young leader obtain help when confronted with problems beyond his or her level of experience to solve?

a)

He or she can call upon subordinates to assist.

b)

He or she can call upon the expertise and experience of seniors to assist.

c)

He or she can pass the problem over to someone else to solve.

d)

He or she can search the Internet for solutions.

70.

Which is NOT a basis of effective leadership?

a)

Good organization and administration

b)

Personal example

c)

Personal moral responsibility

d)

Talk in a loud voice

71.

Under American and English which right does everyone have?

a)

To be considered innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt.

b)

To be considered Guilty as charged until proven innocent.

c)

To have an investigation completed prior to any charges being filed.

d)

To have his/her case reviewed by a superior court.

72.

What is the basis of U.S. law and the document from which military law must evolve?

a)

Manual of Courts-Martial (MCM).

b)

Manual of the Judge Advocate General.

c)

Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).

d)

U.S. Constitution.

73.

Why are some acts considered rights in the civilian world but considered offenses in the military?

a)

Military law developed from the Napoleonic Code rather than the Magna Carta and English Common Law.

b)

Military law is antiquated and unjust.

c)

The Constitution does not apply to the military establishment.

d)

The demands of military service are such that positive control and an established code of conduct are required always.

74.

What set of basic laws govern our Navy today?

a)

Manual of Regulations.

b)

Navy Regulations.

c)

The Manual for Courts-Martial.

d)

The Uniform Code of Military Justice.

75.

Congress has the power to provide and maintain a Navy, and to establish rules and regulations for its operation. What are these rules and regulations are collectively referred to as?

a)

Civil law.

b)

Common laws.

c)

Military law.

d)

Regulation manuals.

76.

What are Articles 77 – 134 of the UCMJ, which deal with specific infractions punishable under military law known as?

a)

Administrative articles.

b)

General articles.

c)

Jurisdictional articles.

d)

Punitive articles.

77.

What punishments are strictly forbidden by Article 55 of the UCMJ (prohibition of cruel and unusual punishments)?

a)

Awards of diminished rations (bread and water) as punishment.

b)

Confinement in a brig as punishment.

c)

Punishments such as flogging which may injure or demean the individual.

d)

Sentences of death in time of war.

78.

In the civilian community, what types of laws are designed to protect society from its irresponsible citizens, without infringing upon citizens’ individual rights under the Constitution?

a)

Civil

b)

Common

c)

Criminal

d)

Military

79.

Who is expected to have an adequate knowledge of the UCMJ?

a)

All Naval Officers.

b)

All Navy personnel.

c)

JAG Officers and legal experts.

d)

Only Officers participating in a courts-martial or investigation.

80.

Selected articles, planned events, and important notes are published daily and posted throughout the command. What is the name of this Navy publication?

a)

Manual of Regulations.

b)

Plan of the Day.

c)

The Navy Daily News Journal.

d)

The JAG Manual.

81.

Which Constitutional Amendment guarantees US citizens to a trial by a jury of their peers?

a)

first

b)

second

c)

sixth

d)

twelfth

82.

In the Navy, who can communicate with the Commanding Officer?

a)

Any person in the naval service

b)

Enlisted only

c)

Nobody

d)

Officers only

83.

Who can authorize the consumption of alcohol on a naval ship?

a)

CPOs and above

b)

Nobody, alcohol is not permitted on ships

c)

Secretary of the Navy

d)

The Captain

84.

The UCMJ is

a)

a document which delineates the number of servicemen/women in each service.

b)

a listing of all naval warships and their capabilities.

c)

a set of laws that cover the trial and punishment of offenders in the US Armed Forces.

d)

the order of battle of the U.S. military’s main enemies.

85.

Which of the following Military publications does not deal with the military justice system?

a)

The Manual for Courts-Martial

b)

The Manual of the Judge Advocate General

c)

The Ship’s Organization and Regulation’s Manual

d)

Uniform Code of Military Justice

86.

What Amendment to the constitution provides an accused the right to representation by an attorney?

a)

First

b)

Third

c)

Fourth

d)

Fifth

87.

What Amendment to the constitution provides an accused the right to representation by an attorney?

a)

First

b)

Third

c)

Fourth

d)

Fifth

88.

What is legally imposed physical restraint depriving a person of freedom called?

a)

Apprehension.

b)

Arrest.

c)

Confinement.

d)

Restriction.

89.

What is the status of an accused person who is legally restrained to a specified area, but required to perform all military duties?

a)

Apprehended.

b)

Arrested.

c)

Confined.

d)

Restricted.

90.

When an accused is informed under Article 31, UCMJ, that they need not make any statement regarding the offense of which they are charged, they are exercising their right under the Fifth Amendment which protects them from what?

a)

Breach of conduct.

b)

Malicious allegation.

c)

Self-incrimination.

d)

Unlawful accusation.

91.

What is it called when you take a person into custody?

a)

Apprehension.

b)

Dismissal.

c)

Rescue.

d)

Restriction.

92.

What MUST punishment be in order to accomplish its purpose?

a)

It must be as severe as required to make the right impression.

b)

It must be in accordance with the guidelines established by the court-martial reviewing officer.

c)

It must be just and consistent, not out of proportion to the offense.

d)

Protect the rights of the individual.

93.

What punishments can be awarded at Captain’s Mast?

a)

Reduction in rate, loss of half pay per month for 3 months, 45 days restriction and/or extra duty.

b)

Reduction in rate, loss of half pay per month for 2 months, 60 days restriction and/or extra duty.

c)

Reduction in rate, loss of half pay per month for 2 months, 45 days restriction and/or extra duty.

d)

Reduction in rate, loss of half pay per month for 2 months, 45 days restriction and/or extra duty, Bad Conduct Discharge.

94.

Reduction in rate, loss of half pay per month for 2 months, 45 days restriction and/or extra duty, Bad Conduct Discharge.

a)

Special, General, and Summary.

b)

Summary, General, and Special.

c)

Summary, Special, and General.

d)

General, Special, and Summary.

95.

What are the titles of the officers who represent the accused and the government, respectively?

a)

legal officer and military judge.

b)

prosecuting attorney and legal counsel.

c)

defense counsel and trial counsel.

d)

trial counsel and defense counsel.

96.

What type of punishment can only be awarded by a General Court-Martial?

a)

confinement to a brig.

b)

reduction-in-rate, paygrade.

c)

bad conduct discharge.

d)

dishonorable discharge.

97.

What Officer may impose non-judicial punishment for minor offenses by subordinate officers and enlisted personnel?

a)

Executive Officer.

b)

Commanding Officer.

c)

Division Officer.

d)

Training Officer.

98.

Which Court Martial can award a Dishonorable Discharge?

a)

General

b)

Special

c)

Summary

d)

None of the above

99.

Which Court Martial has at least 3 members on the court?

a)

General

b)

Special

c)

Summary

d)

None of the above

100.

Which Court Martial is most similar to Non Judicial Punishment (CAPT’s Mast)?

a)

General

b)

Special

c)

Summary

d)

None of the above

101.

Which Court Martials can award a Bad Conduct Discharge?

a)

General only

b)

Special and General

c)

Summary and General

d)

Summary and Special

102.

What is the cornerstone of the entire structure of naval justice and discipline?

a)

Being in hack

b)

Captain’s Mast

c)

Correctional Custody Unit

d)

Court Martial

103.

When are naval personnel subject to civil courts?

a)

Anytime a crime is committed within a civil jurisdiction.

b)

Naval personnel are only subject to military courts.

c)

Only when a crime is committed during off-duty hours.

d)

When the crime committed is a felony.