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AMSA - Certification Practice

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify the retail cut.

a)

Pork Ham/Leg Pork Fresh Ham Center Slice

b)

Pork Ham/Leg Smoked Ham, Center Slice

c)

Pork Shoulder Arm Steak

d)

Pork Shoulder Arm Roast

2.

Identify the retail cut.

a)

Beef Variety Meats Tripe

b)

Beef Variety Meats Oxtail

c)

Pork Variety Meats Oxtail

d)

Lamb Variety Meats Tripe

3.

Identify the retail cut.

a)

Pork Back Center Back Roast

b)

Pork Loin Sirloin Roast

c)

Pork Side Center Back Roast

d)

Pork Loin Center Rib Roast

4.

Which of the retail cuts came from the shoulder of a lamb carcass?

a)

Top image

b)

Bottom image

c)

Both images

d)

Neither image

5.

If you need to leave your work area, you should do which of the following with your knife?

a)

Leave the knife on the top of the work area

b)

Place the knife beneath the corner of the cutting board

c)

Place the knife in the sink to be washed at a later time

d)

Place the knife in the sanitation bucket

6.

You are responsible for purchasing steak for a five-star, high-end restaurant which serves only the best. Which of the following quality grades of beef would you purchase for the restaurant?

a)

USDA Prime

b)

USDA Choice

c)

USDA Select

d)

USDA Good

7.

Which of the following is present in a poultry leg quarter, but NOT present in a leg?

a)

Drumstick

b)

Tendons

c)

Backbone

d)

Wings

8.

Which wholesale cut of beef has the most value?

a)

Chuck

b)

Loin

c)

Round

d)

Brisket

9.

Which of the following retail cuts of beef does NOT come from the loin?

a)

T-bone steak

b)

Porterhouse steak

c)

Tri-tip roast

d)

7-bone pot roast

10.

Which of the following is located underneath the large breast muscle of a chicken carcass?

a)

Split breast

b)

Tenderloin

c)

Wing

d)

Drumette

11.

Which of the following is a cooking technique which involves food being completely immersed in hot fat and fried until it is done?

a)

Stir-frying

b)

Pan-frying

c)

Deep-frying

d)

Sautéing

12.

Where is quality evaluated in lamb carcasses?

a)

Primary and secondary flank

b)

Only the primary flank

c)

Only the secondary flank

d)

In the loin eye

13.

Which of the following is NOT a meat tenderizer?

a)

Papain

b)

Bromelain

c)

Ficin

d)

Potassium nitrate

14.

Ground beef should be cooked to which of the following internal temperatures to ensure food safety?

a)

150°F (66°C)

b)

160°F (71°C)

c)

170°F (77°C)

d)

180°F (82°C)

15.

Which of the following is the perception of a food’s taste and aroma?

a)

Palatability

b)

Texture

c)

Flavor

d)

Acceptability

16.

Whole chicken, whole turkey, poultry parts, duck and goose should reach which of the following internal temperatures to be considered done?

a)

145°F (63°C)

b)

155°F (68°C)

c)

165°F (74°C)

d)

175°F (80°C)

17.

Which of the following involves inserting long, thin strips of fat into a large, naturally lean piece of meat with a special needle before cooking to baste the meat from the inside?

a)

Barding

b)

Larding

c)

Marinating

d)

Roasting

18.

Which of the following is NOT a dry cooking method?

a)

Broiling

b)

Steaming

c)

Deep frying

d)

Roasting

19.

When cutting bones out of the meat, which direction should you cut to ensure you have as little waste as possible?

a)

Toward the meat

b)

Toward the bone

c)

Always away from the bone

d)

Always away from the fat

20.

Identify the retail cut.

a)

Beef Chuck Eye Steak, Bnls.

b)

Beef Chuck Mock Tender Steak

c)

Beef Loin Mock Tender Steak

d)

Beef Loin Tenderloin Roast

21.

Identify the retail cut.

a)

Pork Ham/Leg Pork Fresh Ham Center Slice

b)

Pork Ham/Leg Smoked Ham, Center Slice

c)

Pork Shoulder Arm Steak

d)

Pork Shoulder Arm Roast

22.

Which of the following is NOT true of duck meat?

a)

All dark meat

b)

All white meat

c)

Higher in fat content

d)

Tougher than chicken

23.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate method for defrosting meat?

a)

In a bowl on the kitchen counter

b)

In a refrigerator

c)

In cold water

d)

In a microwave oven

24.

A honing steel can be used to do which of the following?

a)

Sharpening the knife by shaving off fragments of the blade

b)

Straightening the knife’s blade

c)

Cleaning the knife

d)

Lengthening the blade of the knife

25.

Which of the following is a moist-heat cooking technique which involves food being submerged in liquid which is between 185°F (85°C) and 205°F (96°C) with small bubbles breaking through the liquid’s surface?

a)

Simmering

b)

Poaching

c)

Boiling

d)

Blanching

26.

Which of the following is the proper storage temperature for hot products?

a)

Below 140°F (60°C)

b)

Above 140°F (60°C)

c)

Below 40°F (4°C)

d)

Above 40°F (4°C)

27.

Which of the following correctly defines the statement “Best if Used By”?

a)

Food product should be sold by this date

b)

Food product should be used by this date for the best taste and texture

c)

Food product should be used by this date to be considered safe

d)

Food product is spoiled if not used by this date

28.

One ounce of meat or poultry contains an average of how many grams of protein?

a)

5 grams

b)

6 grams

c)

7 grams

d)

8 grams

29.

Fresh beef, pork, veal and lamb should reach which of the following internal temperatures to be considered done?

a)

145°F (63°C)

b)

155°F (68°C)

c)

165°F (74°C)

d)

175°F (80°C)

30.

Louis is roasting a chicken and the recipe said it should be roasted for 45 minutes. The timer on his oven just went off after 45 minutes. What should Louis do?

a)

Check the internal temperature of the chicken to make sure it is at the proper temperature for food safety

b)

Add another 10 minutes to the cooking time, just to be safe

c)

Cut into the chicken to see if it is done

d)

Immediately serve the chicken

31.

Antonio works at a high-end steakhouse which serves only USDA Prime beef. The restaurant uses a dry aging method to age their meat prior to cooking. Sylvia also works at a high-end steakhouse which serves only USDA Prime beef, but her restaurant uses a wet aging method to age their meat prior to cooking. Does the type of aging used affect the palatability of the meat?

a)

Yes

b)

No

32.

Paulo works at a steakhouse and one of his customers just ordered their steak medium. What internal temperature should the steak have at a medium degree of doneness?

a)

125°F (52°C)

b)

160°F (71°C)

c)

135°F (57°C)

d)

170°F (77°C)

33.

The local grocery store typically stores their lunch meats at 40°F (4°C) in their case, but lately the case has been fluctuating at a temperature between 35°F and 38°F (2 and 3°C). Is this a food safety issue?

a)

Yes

b)

No

34.

Barb’s Buffet is conducting a food safety audit on their serving areas. The buffet serves hot dishes from serving containers. When conducting the audit, it is found the containers keep foods at 130°F (54°C). Is this a food safety issue?

a)

Yes

b)

No

35.

In poultry, which of the following would be considered a meaty part?

a)

Breast

b)

Right wing

c)

Back

d)

Left Wing

36.

Grain fed beef from the United States is high quality and in high demand around the world.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

How many taste buds can be found in a person’s mouth?

a)

5,000 to 10,000

b)

50 to 100

c)

500 to 1,000

d)

50,000 to 100,000

38.

Carbohydrates typically give off which kind of taste?

a)

Salty

b)

Umami

c)

Bitter

d)

Sweet

39.

Which of the following is NOT a component of meat?

a)

Protein

b)

Fat

c)

Fiber

d)

Water

40.

Which of the following is published every other week for members of the American Meat Science Association?

a)

Meat Science Journal

b)

AMSA eNews

c)

Meat Animal Research Journal

d)

Food Science Journal

41.

Which of the following is published by the American Meat Science Association?

a)

Food Science Journal

b)

Animal Science Journal

c)

Meat Science Journal

d)

Meat Animal Research Journal

42.

Which of the following is the website for the American Meat Science Association?

a)

www.amsa.com

b)

www.amsa.org

c)

www.meatscience.org

d)

www.meatscience.com

43.

In which of the following years was the first Reciprocal Meat Conference held?

a)

1945

b)

1946

c)

1947

d)

1948

44.

Which of the following market forms of fish can be described as a fish which appears just as it was caught?

a)

Whole fish

b)

Drawn fish

c)

Fish filet

d)

Butterfly filet

45.

Which of the following is NOT a primal cut of lamb?

a)

Leg

b)

Loin

c)

Rack

d)

Chunk

46.

Which of the following is NOT a primal cut of pork?

a)

Ham

b)

Loin

c)

Rack

d)

Boston butt

47.

Which of the following grades meat based on its expected eating experience?

a)

Yield grades

b)

Inspection grades

c)

Quality grades

d)

Maturity grades

48.

A fish should be rejected if which of the following is true?

a)

The fish has bright red gills

b)

The fish has eyes which are bright and clear

c)

The fish smells of ammonia or sour

d)

The fish has firm flesh

49.

Which of the following market forms of fish can be described as two sides cut away from the backbone?

a)

Whole fish

b)

Drawn fish

c)

Fish filet

d)

Butterfly filet

50.

Which of the following is NOT true of duck meat?

a)

All dark meat

b)

All white meat

c)

Higher in fat content

d)

Tougher than chicken

51.

Which of the following is an example of white meat on a chicken?

a)

Thigh

b)

Drumstick

c)

Liver

d)

Breast

52.

You have received a shipment of frozen chicken breasts and there is the appearance of a white covering on the outside of the breasts. Which of the following could have happened?

a)

Leakage in the package

b)

Freezer burn

c)

Freezer shrink

d)

Cold shortening

53.

Which of the following is NOT a reason you would reject a poultry product?

a)

Yellow coloring on the skin

b)

Odor after rinsing

c)

Grey coloring on the skin

d)

Purple coloring around the neck

54.

Which of the following locations would yield the toughest cuts on a beef animal?

a)

Round

b)

Loin

c)

Sirloin

d)

Rib

55.

Which of the following temperature ranges is required for refrigeration storage?

a)

41°F (5°C) or lower

b)

50°F (10°C) or lower

c)

Between 50°F (10°C) and 41°F (5°C)

d)

Between 50°F (10°C) and 31°F (-1°C)

56.

Which of the following is the temperature at which a given oil will begin to smoke?

a)

Smoke point

b)

Smoke level

c)

Smoke temperature

d)

Smoke index

57.

Which of the following is a round cut?

a)

Small dice

b)

Medium dice

c)

Diagonal

d)

Julienne

58.

Which of the following is the transfer of heat from one item to another when the items come in direct contact with each other?

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Infrared heat

59.

In order for food to cook, which of the following must be applied to the food?

a)

Butter

b)

Heat

c)

Moisture

d)

Salt

60.

Which of the following is NOT a step of mise en place?

a)

Gather equipment

b)

Gather grocery items

c)

Prepare workstation

d)

Research recipes

61.

Mise en place is a French statement which means which of the following?

a)

Put in place

b)

Everything in its place

c)

All in place

d)

Everything prepared

62.

When using the stone sharpener, which side should you first use to sharpen your knife?

a)

Fine side

b)

Medium side

c)

Coarse side

d)

It does not matter on which side you begin

63.

Which of the following are the pegs which hold the handle to the tang?

a)

Scales

b)

Rivets

c)

Bolsters

d)

Blades

64.

Which of the following is the portion of the knife chefs use for detailed work such as paring, trimming and peeling?

a)

Heel

b)

Spine

c)

Tip

d)

Tang

65.

Which of the following comes from the lamb shoulder?

a)

Center Slice

b)

Loin Chops

c)

Arm Chops

d)

Sirloin Chops

66.

Which of the following comes from the beef loin?

a)

Mock Tender Steak

b)

T-bone Steak

c)

Ribeye Steak

d)

Blade Roast

67.

Which of the following retail cuts comes from the beef chuck?

a)

Brisket Whole, Boneless

b)

Flank Steak

c)

T-bone Steak

d)

Mock Tender Steak

68.

Which of the following color combinations would influence the appearance of a food and NOT improve its palatability?

a)

Blue and green

b)

Yellow and pink

c)

Brown and gray

d)

Red and teal

69.

When was umami accepted as the fifth taste by the scientific community?

a)

2002

b)

1908

c)

2012

d)

1980

70.

Who ensures the protection of the nation’s food supply?

a)

United States Department of Agriculture

b)

Manufacturers

c)

Restaurants

d)

Consumers

71.

Food choice and acceptability is determined by many factors, which of the following describe a physical determinant?

a)

Cost

b)

Appetite

c)

Family

d)

Education

72.

When early man tasted a food with a bitter taste, which of the following was assumed about the food?

a)

It contained essential minerals

b)

It was possibly going bad

c)

It was possibly toxic

d)

It contained protein

73.

Which of the following does palatability NOT depend on?

a)

Taste

b)

Sound

c)

Smell

d)

Appearance

74.

The olfactory bulb influences which of these perceptions?

a)

Odor

b)

Appearance

c)

Taste

d)

Sound

75.

Which method of defrosting results in the greatest loss of juiciness?

a)

Microwaving

b)

Thawing in cold water

c)

Thawing in the refrigerator

d)

Thawing in a bowl on the counter

76.

Which of the following is not a Marbling Score?

a)

Abundant

b)

Moderate

c)

Medium

d)

Small

77.

Which organization/program monitors Organic products?

a)

FSIS

b)

USDA'S National Organic Program (NOP)

c)

USDA’s Organic Monitoring Service (OMS)

d)

OSHA

78.

Which of the following correctly defines the statement “Best if Used By”?

a)

Food product should be sold by this date

b)

Food product should be used by this date for the best taste and texture

c)

Food product should be used by this date to be considered safe

d)

Food product is spoiled if not used by this date

79.

Which of the following NOT required on the label of a meat product?

a)

Product name

b)

Inspection mark

c)

Establishment number

d)

Breed of the animal

80.

Which of the following is NOT a mineral found in meat?

a)

Copper

b)

Calcium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Zinc

81.

Which organization/association sets the withdrawal periods for animal drugs and compounds?

a)

CDC

b)

HACCP

c)

FDA

d)

AMS

82.

Which of the following means antibiotics were administered in small, preventive doses through feed and water?

a)

Vaccination use

b)

Therapeutic use

c)

Implant use

d)

Sub-therapeutic use

83.

Which of the following requires nutritional information labels on all food products except single ingredient foods, such as fresh meat?

a)

Meat Inspection Act

b)

Nutritional Labeling & Education Act

c)

Nutritional Education Act

d)

Retail Labeling Act

84.

Which of the following amended the Humane Slaughter Act and was passed in 1978?

a)

Meat Inspection Act

b)

Packers and Stockyards Act

c)

Wholesome Meat Act

d)

Humane Methods of Slaughter Act

85.

Which of the following is the Temperature Danger Zone?

a)

Above 140°F (60°C)

b)

Below 40°F (4°C)

c)

Between 140°F (60°C) and 325°F (162°C)

d)

Between 40°F (4°C) and 140°F (60°C)

86.

Which of the following is the proper storage temperature for hot products?

a)

Below 140°F (60°C)

b)

Above 140°F (60°C)

c)

Below 40°F (4°C)

d)

At 40°F (4°C)

87.

Which of the following is a program which identifies critical points where contamination occurs in a product and presents solutions?

a)

FDA

b)

CDC

c)

FSIS

d)

HACCP

88.

Which of the following is NOT a meat tenderizer?

a)

Papain

b)

Bromelain

c)

Ficin

d)

Potassium nitrate

89.

Which of the following is NOT a flavoring agent?

a)

Spices

b)

Essential oils

c)

Ascorbic acid

d)

Oleoresins

90.

Which of the following are compounds which absorb oxygen, reducing or preventing the oxidation of food?

a)

Nitrates

b)

Chlorides

c)

Flavoring agents

d)

Antioxidants

91.

Which of the following is NOT a skeletal meat?

a)

Shoulder

b)

Liver

c)

Brisket

d)

Pork belly

92.

Which of the following is NOT a dry cooking method?

a)

Pan broiling

b)

Roasting

c)

Grilling

d)

Braising

93.

Which of the following is the temperature of meat in the center of the thickest portion of the cut?

a)

Degree of doneness

b)

Internal temperature

c)

Browning point

d)

Melting point

94.

Which of the following does NOT occur if the cooking temperature is too high?

a)

Increased tenderness

b)

Decreased juiciness

c)

Browning point

d)

Melting point

95.

Cooked leftovers should NOT be eaten after which of the following time limits?

a)

Four days

b)

Two weeks

c)

One month

d)

Six weeks

96.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate method for defrosting meat?

a)

In a bowl on the kitchen counter

b)

In a refrigerator

c)

In cold water

d)

In a microwave oven

97.

Which of the following is the spread of harmful, pathogenic bacteria from one surface to another, one surface to a person, or person to person?

a)

Cross-contamination

b)

Foodborne contamination

c)

Foodborne outbreak

d)

Osmosis

98.

Which of the following is the dehydration of the surface tissues of a food?

a)

Cold shrinkage

b)

Freezer burn

c)

Cold shortening

d)

Chiller burn

99.

Which of the following is the proper temperature for freezer storage?

a)

At or above 0°F (-18°C)

b)

At or below 0°F (-18°C)

c)

Between 40°F and 33°F (4°C and 0°C)

d)

72°F (22°C)

100.

Which of the following is a sign of fresh poultry meat?

a)

Sour odor

b)

Firm and moist flesh

c)

Grayish color

d)

Sticky texture

101.

Which of the following is NOT a common market form of fish?

a)

Drawn fish

b)

Fish cube

c)

Fish steak

d)

Whole fish

102.

Which of the following is a white meat in poultry?

a)

Thigh

b)

Breast

c)

Drumstick

d)

Wing tip

103.

Which of the following is considered a moist cooking method?

a)

Braising

b)

Grilling

c)

Broiling

d)

Roasting

104.

What is the recommended internal temperature for safely cooked ground beef?

a)

145°F (63°C)

b)

175°F (80°C)

c)

165°F (74°C)

d)

155°F (68°C)

105.

Which of the following is a benefit of using a wet aging method for beef?

a)

Longer shelf life

b)

More intense flavor development

c)

Requires less refrigeration space

d)

Results in drier texture

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