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In Class Review Quiz

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 4hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Physiological influences on food choices include gender, age, wellness, and:

a)

peer group

b)

personal likes & dislikes

c)

emotions & feelings

d)

activity levels

2.

The food groups recommended in the greatest amounts on MyPlate are:

a)

fruits & grains

b)

fruits & protein

c)

grains & protein

d)

grains & vegetables

3.

A recipe for sweet potato casserole serves 12 & calls for 1/3 cup of chopped pecans. How much pecans would be needed to make it serve 24?

a)

1 cup

b)

2/3 cup

c)

1/2 cup

d)

1/4 cup

4.

A sweet potato casserole recipe calls for 1/4 cup of flour for 4 servings. To serve 16 people, how much flour is needed?

a)

1/4 cup

b)

1/2 cup

c)

1 cup

d)

2 cups

5.

To lower the fat content in the Butternut Squash Soup Recipe, substitute:


Butternut Squash Soup (6-8 servings)

Ingredients:

*2 1/2 pounds butternut squash

*1 medium yellow onion

*3 cloves garlic

*5 cups water

*1 tablespoon salt

*2 1/2 cups milk

*1 stick of butter or margarine

a)

1 stick of butter for the butter or margarine

b)

1 stick of margarine for the butter or margarine

c)

2 1/2 cups buttermilk for the milk

d)

2 1/2 cups skim milk for the milk

6.

Which are used to measure small amounts of ingredients, usually less than 1/4 cup?

a)

dry measuring cups

b)

liquid measuring cups

c)

measuring spoons

d)

scales

7.

There are four shelves in a refrigerator used for a community event. There is space for one item on each shelf. From top to bottom, which food item should go on which shelf?

a)

sheet cake, carrots, raw eggs, ground beef

b)

carrots, ground beef, raw eggs, sheet cake

c)

ground beef, sheet cake, raw eggs, sheet cake

d)

carrots, raw eggs, sheet cake, ground beef

8.

What is the MAXIMUM number of days that homemade chicken salad can be held at 41F?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

6

d)

7

9.

Which of the following helps prevent food in a self-service area from becoming contaminated by guests?

a)

ensure that guests only use one plate

b)

require people to monitor the self-service area

c)

post allergen information around the self-service area

d)

list all of the ingredients in each menu item

10.

All leftovers must be reheated for 15 seconds to the MINIMUM temperature of:

a)

135F

b)

145F

c)

155F

d)

165F

11.

To cook uncovered under a direct heat source is to:

a)

braise

b)

broil

c)

roast

d)

simmer

12.

Which part of a recipe, usually given for conventional ovens, tells how to cook the food?

a)

container size & type

b)

list of ingredients & amounts

c)

temperature & time

d)

step-by-step directions

13.

Deborah is making cupcakes and the recipe calls for 1 large egg. She only has medium eggs & would like to make a recipe with less cholesterol. What should she do?

a)

use 1 small brown egg

b)

use 1 egg white

c)

use 2 egg whites

d)

use 2 medium eggs

14.

Which measure equals a one-half cup?

a)

2 fluid ounces

b)

8 tablespoons

c)

8 teaspoons

d)

8 fluid ounces

15.

One example of cross-contamination is when someone preparing food:

a)

uses separate cutting boards for raw & cooked meat

b)

uses the same ice for serving drinks & keeping beverage bottles cold in a cooler

c)

washes fruits & vegetables under running water

d)

prepares hand-battered food in small batches

16.

Food cooked for a buffet-style dinner & hot held must be maintained at a MINIMUM of what temperature?

a)

120F

b)

135F

c)

145F

d)

175F

17.

To combine flour & solid fat by cutting the fat into tiny pieces using a pastry blender, two forks, or the hands is to:

a)

cut-in

b)

fold

c)

knead

d)

stir

18.

Which food was correctly cooled?

a)

a large pot of soup that was divided into smaller pans & cooled at room temperature for 8 hours

b)

beans that did not cool to 70F within 2 hours, but were reheated to 145F for 15 seconds within 2 hours & then cooled correctly

c)

cooked poultry that cooled from 135F to 70F within 2 hours & from 70F to 41F within an additional 4 hours

d)

a roast that cooled form 135F to 70F within 4 hours & from 70F to 41F within an additional 6 hours

19.

A frozen piece of salmon can be thawed using any procedure EXCEPT:

a)

under cold running water

b)

part of the cooking process

c)

in the cooler

d)

on the counter

20.

What is the proper procedure for cleaning & sanitizing food-contact surfaces?

a)

clean, sanitize, rinse, towel dry

b)

rinse, scrape, clean, sanitize

c)

clean, sanitize, towel dry

d)

pre-scrape, clean, rinse, sanitize, air-dry

21.

Which is NOT a factor in controlling growth of microorganisms?

a)

temperature

b)

color

c)

moisture

d)

oxygen

22.

Which is used to cook vegetables, retaining their nutrients?

a)

casserole dish

b)

double boiler

c)

steamer

d)

wok

23.

Which is a recipe resource?

a)

ingredient substitutions

b)

magazine or newpaper

c)

recipe yields

d)

volume measurement

24.

Ground beef cooked in a microwave must reach an internal temperature of:

a)

135F

b)

145F

c)

155F

d)

165F

25.

Which is an example of a chemical contaminant?

a)

caterpillar found in a case of lettuce

b)

bad smell coming from fresh seafood

c)

table sanitizer sprayed over pastries

d)

freezer burn on frozen fruit

26.

What should you do to avoid cross-contact when preparing food for someone with a food allergy?

a)

wipe down work surfaces with a wet cloth

b)

wash, rinse, & sanitize surfaces & utensils between uses

c)

use only organic ingredients

d)

cook the food to its minimum internal temperature

27.

Why should pots, pans, & casseroles be washed by hand LAST?

a)

they are the heaviest cooking equipment used

b)

they require the coldest water to remove grease stains

c)

they should be stored last because they require more space

d)

They usually contain the most difficult to remove food residues

28.

To lightly brown or cook food in a small amount of hot fat is to:

a)

barbeque

b)

boil

c)

saute

d)

steam

29.

Lab Group 2 is constructing a timetable & just estimated time for each task. What should the group do NEXT?

a)

calculate the total time

b)

list tasks

c)

identify end time

d)

calculate start time

30.

Group 2 is preparing the market order. After the group lists the amount of ingredients needed & the amount of each on-hand ingredient, what should the group do NEXT?

a)

assemble the equipment

b)

go to the grocery store

c)

interpret the recipe

d)

calculate the amount needed to purchase

31.

Which measure equals 1 pound?

a)

4 ounces

b)

8 ounces

c)

16 ounces

d)

32 ounces

32.

The total preparation time is 36 minutes & the total cook time is 17 minutes for a vegetable stir-fry. If class starts at 8am, the stir-fry should be ready to serve at:

a)

8:23am

b)

8:30am

c)

8:53am

d)

8:58am

33.

To blend a delicate mixture into a heavier one by using a rubber spatula or spoon in a gentle up, down, & over motion so that the mixture stays light is to:

a)

cut-in

b)

fold

c)

knead

d)

stir

34.

Sarah is preparing to make a heart-healthy salad in the foods lab. What should Sarah do BEFORE she determines which equipment is needed to prepare the recipe?

a)

list the preparation tasks

b)

make & carry out the work plan

c)

select, read, & interpret the recipe

d)

evaluate the work plan

35.

When constructing a timetable, which step follows listing tasks?

a)

calculate the total time

b)

estimate time (in minutes)

c)

identify end time

d)

determine clock time

36.

Which kitchen equipment is used to quick-fry foods in a small amount of fat?

a)

casserole

b)

double boiler

c)

steamer

d)

wok

37.

Which kitchen equipment is usually a heavy oval or rectangular pan, often comes with a wire rack, & is used to cook large cuts of meat or poultry?

a)

baking sheet

b)

loaf pan

c)

pie pan

d)

roasting pan

38.

Storing unripe bananas on the counter:

a)

causes foodborne illnesses

b)

causes them to quickly spoil

c)

helps them ripen & improves their flavor

d)

prevents ripening & lengthens their shelf life

39.

Which component of milk causes caramelization when heated?

a)

casein

b)

lactose

c)

vitamin A

d)

fat

40.

Which is an example of a legume?

a)

cabbage

b)

butter beans

c)

onions

d)

potatoes

41.

Vegetables such as potatoes, onions, & garlic should be stored:

a)

in the refrigerator

b)

in the freezer

c)

in a cool, dry, & dark place

d)

on the counter

42.

Which product is made from adding eggs to flour & water?

a)

cornstarch

b)

hominy

c)

noodles

d)

wheat germ

43.

Which is LEAST LIKELY to be a step in preparing dried beans?

a)

thawing

b)

sorting

c)

soaking

d)

washing

44.

When preparing rice, which would be a recommended cooking practice?

a)

stir the rice frequently as it cooks

b)

allow the rice to boil for 10 minutes

c)

fluff the rice with a fork after cooking it

d)

cook the rice in an uncovered pot

45.

Which category of food is selected by color, smell, & touch?

a)

canned beans

b)

citrus & fresh vegetables

c)

frozen foods

d)

milk & cheese

46.

Which is an example of a whole grain product?

a)

all-purpose flour

b)

white rice

c)

oatmeal

d)

pasta

47.

Which part of the grain kernel serves as the food supply for a new plant?

a)

endosperm

b)

germ

c)

bran

d)

fiber

48.

When cooking rice, bring the water to a boil, add the rice, then:

a)

cover & reduce to a simmer for 20 minutes or until the water is absorbed

b)

leave uncovered & reduce to a simmer for 20 minutes or until the water is absorbed

c)

cover & boil for 20 minutes

d)

leave uncovered & boil for 20 minutes

49.

Jeff needs 4 cups of cooked macaroni for his pasta salad. How many cups of dried pasta should he use?

a)

1 cup

b)

2 cups

c)

4 cups

d)

6 cups

50.

Compared to instant oatmeal, steel-cut oats:

a)

require more cooking time

b)

are less nutritious

c)

should only be cooked with milk

d)

require heavier processing

51.

An example of a protein casserole is:

a)

beef lasagna

b)

green bean casserole

c)

pineapple & cracker crumbs

d)

scalloped potatoes

52.

What is a health benefit of consuming legumes?

a)

they are a good source of water

b)

they are a good source of vitamin C

c)

they are a good source of vitamin D

d)

they are a good source of B vitamins

53.

In order to yield 3 cups of cooked rice, how much uncooked rice should be used?

a)

1 cup

b)

2 cups

c)

3 cups

d)

6 cups

54.

Delores is a vegetarian. Which casserole would provide her with the highest-quality protein while remaining a vegetarian dish?

a)

beef lasagna

b)

black bean & rice casserole

c)

green bean casserole

d)

chicken enchilada casserole

55.

Joan purchased a large, tough cut of beef. To make the meat more tender, she should:

a)

braise it

b)

broil it

c)

microwave it

d)

grill it

56.

Millet & amaranth are examples of:

a)

refined grains

b)

ancient grains

c)

pastas

d)

breakfast cereals

57.

How is bacon broiled?

a)

by cooking in dry, hot air, uncovered in an oven

b)

by cooking in a liquid that has a temperature of 212F

c)

by cooking on top of the range in a fry pan

d)

by cooking under direct heat

58.

How do omelets & scrambled eggs differ?

a)

omelets are not stirred when cooking & folded over when served: scrambled eggs are stirred when cooking

b)

omelets may have ingredients like vegetables but scrambled eggs may not

c)

scrambled eggs are folded over & form a half circle when served

d)

scrambled eggs may have ingredients like vegetables or cheese but omelets may not

59.

The milk fat in raw milk rises to the surface during storage. Which processing method will prevent this from occurring?

a)

pasteurization

b)

scalding

c)

homogenization

d)

vitamin D fortification

60.

Which category of fruit is characterized by a thick inedible rind, juicy flesh, & many seeds in the center?

a)

melons

b)

pomes

c)

drupes

d)

citrus fruits

61.

Which is the BEST example of a high-fiber product?

a)

banana

b)

flour tortilla

c)

hamburger bun

d)

shredded whole wheat cereal

62.
How do quick breads & yeast breads differ?
a)
Quick breads are more flavorful than yeast breads.
b)
Quick breads do not have leavening agents like yeast breads.
c)
Quick breads have more liquids than yeast breads.
d)
Quick breads have a shorter preparation time than yeast breads.
63.

The difference between the BISCUIT method & the MUFFIN method is...

a)

Where you add the fat.

b)

How you measure the ingredients.

c)

Using a mixer.

d)

Separating liquid and dry ingredients.

64.

Which step of the mixing process do both the biscuit & muffin methods have in common?

a)

cut in shortening

b)

add liquid ingredients at once

c)

knead dough

d)

thoroughly mix for 20 minutes

65.

While preparing yeast bread in a Foods class, students misread the temperature of the water on the thermometer. The temperature of the liquid was 140F. How will this affect the yeast?

a)

cause the yeast to overproduce steam

b)

cause the yeast to die

c)

will not activate the yeast

d)

will not allow the yeast to produce enough steam

66.

Batter bread differs from basic white bread by:

a)

heating the flour

b)

beating the mixture

c)

adding extracts

d)

using a starter

67.

How do all-purpose flour & self-rising flour DIFFER?

a)

AP flour does not remain fresh as long as self-rising flour

b)

AP flour is made from wheat; self-rising flour is made from rice

c)

AP flour is plain; self-rising flour has added leavening & salt

d)

AP flour makes a cake rise, but self-rising flour does not help a cake rise

68.

After mixing & letting the dough rise, what should Alyssa do to the dough?

a)

allow the dough to rise again

b)

bake the dough

c)

shape the dough

d)

punch down the dough

69.

How do yeast breads differ from quick breads?

a)

quick breads use chemical leavening agents such as sugar, but yeast breads use yeast to leaven

b)

quick breads use baking soda or baking powder as a leavening agent, but yeast breads use yeast to leaven

c)

quick breads do not need a leavening agent, but yeast breads use baking powder to leaven

d)

quick breads use salt as a leavening agent, but yeast breads use yeast to leaven

70.

Applying which ingredient will help prevent the yeast dough from forming a crust or drying out during fermentation?

a)

sugar

b)

salt

c)

oil

d)

flour

71.

When used in the table setting along with a salad plate, where should the bread & butter plate be placed?

a)

above the forks, to the upper left

b)

above the knife, to the upper left

c)

lower left, beside the forks

d)

toward the center, above the dinner plate

72.

Sandy has diabetes. The nutrient on the food label she is MOST LIKELY to check is:

a)

carbohydrates

b)

cholesterol

c)

protein

d)

sodium

73.

Jason bought round steak for dinner because it was on sale. He will arrive home late at the end of a long workday. Since round steak is a LESS tender cut of beef, which time-saving technique should he use?

a)

cooking the round steak on the grill

b)

cooking instant rice to accompany the round steak

c)

using a microwave recipe

d)

using a slow-cooker recipe

74.

After work, Sylvia has a long meeting. She is MOST LIKELY to choose which meal preparation strategy for a quick, nutritious, & economical dinner?

a)

eating a late lunch & snacking

b)

scratch cooking

c)

semi-homemade/speed-scratch cooking

d)

finished/convenience cooking

75.

Sara is planning a special lunch for her Aunt Liz. The FIRST task she should complete is to:

a)

consider the family's meal pattern preferences

b)

plan for leftovers

c)

plan the menu

d)

set the table

76.

Sara completed her market order. What should she do NEXT?

a)

gather ingredients & equipment

b)

complete the work plan

c)

consider foods to produce leftovers

d)

set the table