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THERMAL ENGINEERING II MCQ (MODEL EXAM - 2)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Consider the following statements: A psychrometer measures,

a. wet bulb temperature

b. dew point temperature

c. dry bulb temperature.

On these statements......is/are correct

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

2.

Vapour can be treated a gas when

a)

Temperature of vapour > critical temperature

b)

Pressure of vapour < 10 kpa

c)

Temperature of vapour = critical temperature

d)

Pressure of vapour is > critical pressure

3.

In the case of sensible cooling of air, the coil efficiency is given by (BPF = Bypass factor)

a)

BPF-1

b)

1-BPF

c)

BPF

d)

1 + BPF

4.

In air-conditioning design for summer months, the condition inside a factory where heavy work is performed as compared to a factory in which light work is performed should have

a)

lower dry bulb temperature and lower relative humidity

b)

lower dry bulb temperature and higher relative humidity

c)

lower dry bulb temperature and same relative humidity

d)

same dry bulb temperature and same relative humidity

5.

Which one of the following statements is correct

a)

The sensible heat gain is due to the difference in humidity

b)

The latent heat gain is due to the temperature difference between the fresh air through unconditioned space in the building adds to the sensible heat gain

c)

The heat gain through the walls of ducts carrying conditioned air through unconditioned space in the building adds to the sensible heat gain

d)

Maximum heat gain to a building occurs through walls

6.

Which of the following statements are true?

I. The air conditioning duct should have high aspect ratio for good performance

II. If the air conditioning duct is diverging then the angle of divergence should be as small as possible to reduce pressure loss

III. To minimize the noise and vibration air should flow with low velocity

IV. All of the above

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

7.

Which of the followings is a Volatile organic compound (VOC)

a)

Aromatic hydrocarbons

b)

Hydrocarbons

c)

Ethers

8.

A cold storage is to be maintained at – 5°C while the surroundings are at 35°C. The heat leakage from the surroundings into the cold storage is estimated to be 29 kW. The actual C.O.P. of the refrigeration plant used is one third that of an ideal plant working between the same temperatures. Find the power required to drive the plant

a)

11.58 kJ/s

b)

12.98 kJ/s

c)

12.90 kJ/s

d)

10.98 kJ/s

9.

Dry ice refrigeration process uses

a)

Dry air

b)

Pure water

c)

Carbon di oxide

d)

Nitrogen

10.

With reciprocating compressor in vapour compression refrigeration system, wet compression is not desirable because

a)

Liquid trapped up in the head of cylinder may damage the compressor valves

b)

COP of the cycle decreases

c)

Volumetric efficiency of compressor decreases

d)

Mass flow rate per ton of refrigerant increases

11.

Which one of the following statements is correct for reciprocating air compressor

a)

Its volumetric efficiency increases with increasing clearance ratio

b)

Its volumetric efficiency increases with increasing pressure ratio

c)

Its volumetric efficiency does not vary with change in clearance ratio and pressure ratio

d)

Its volumetric efficiency decreases with increasing clearance ratio and pressure ratio, both

12.

Which of the following statements is not correct

a)

A topping cycle plant generates electricity or mechanical power first

b)

A bottoming cycle plant generates heat first

c)

Both a and b

d)

A bottoming cycle plant generates electricity or mechanical power first

13.

What is a typical efficiency of a cogeneration system?

a)

58%

b)

85%

c)

68%

d)

95%

14.

In a combined cycle power plant consisting of gas turbine and waste heat boiler, the exhaust gas temperature is ____.

a)

around 150 °C

b)

around 500 °C

c)

around 300 °C

d)

around 400 °C

15.

Which of the following depends on physical properties of fluids as well as geometry of the heat exchanger?

a)

Fouling coefficient

b)

Overall heat transfer coefficient

c)

LMTD (Log Mean Temperature Difference)

d)

Effectiveness

16.

The major limitation of metallic recuperator is -------

a)

limitation of handling COx, NOx etc.

b)

limitation of reduced life for handling temperature more than 1000°C

c)

manufacturing difficulty of the required design

d)

none of the above

17.

Combined cycle is a combination of

a)

conventional boiler first followed by cogeneration system

b)

Rankine cycle first followed by a Brayton cycle

c)

Brayton cycle first followed by a standard Rankine cycle

d)

extraction in the first portion and then a condensing cycle

18.

The efficiency of a stand-alone gas turbine without any heat recovery system will be in the range of

a)

10 –15 %

b)

15 –20 %

c)

20 – 25 %

d)

35 – 40 %

19.

Ceramic recuperators can withstand gas side temperature up to

a)

400°C

b)

1300°C

c)

1000°C

d)

1700°C

20.

The waste heat recovery equipment in a combustion system will be more economical when the exit flue gases are at a temperature of

a)

200°C

b)

400°C

c)

600°C

d)

800°C

21.

A heat pipe can transfer up to ____ times more thermal energy than copper

a)

10

b)

20

c)

50

d)

100

22.

In an industry, exhaust gas from the furnace is used for power generation by installing waste heat recovery steam boiler and a steam turbine. This type of co- generation is termed as

a)

combined cycle

b)

Brayton cycle

c)

topping cycle

d)

bottoming cycle

23.

The most economic insulation is the thickness where …..

a)

depreciation costs of insulation and energy cost due to losses are the same

b)

the sum of energy cost due to losses and insulation depreciation cost is minimum

c)

energy losses are minimized

d)

energy cost due to losses are minimized.

24.

The major limitation of metallic recuperator is

a)

handling COx, NOx etc.

b)

reduced life for handling temperature more than 650°C

c)

manufacturing difficulty of the required design

d)

none of the above

25.

In a cogeneration system, with extraction condensing turbine, the highest heat rate is recorded when;

a)

maximum power output and maximum extraction to process

b)

maximum power output and normal extraction to process

c)

maximum power output and minimum extraction to process

d)

none of the above

26.

In a process plant 200 kg/hr of hot condensate at 6 bar(g) having a sensible heat of 166 kCal/kg is discharged. The plant also requires low pressure steam at a pressure of 1 bar(g) for heating application. Find out the quantity of flash steam generated in the flash vessel in kg/hr. The condensate at a pressure of 1 bar(g) has a sensible heat of 120 kCal/ kg and a latent heat of 526 kCal/kg

a)

15.5 kg/hr

b)

16.5 kg/hr

c)

17.5 kg/hr

d)

18.5 kg/hr

27.

Oxidation of carbon to CO2 yields 8084 kcal/kg of carbon. Oxidation of carbon to CO in the flue gas yields 2430 kcal/kg of carbon. Oxidation of CO to CO2 will yield

a)

5464 kCal

b)

5654 kCal

c)

5800 kCal

d)

540 kCal

28.

The flow of steam is supersonic .........

a)

At the entrance to the nozzle

b)

At the throat of the nozzle

c)

In the convergent portion of the nozzle

d)

In the divergent portion of the nozzle

29.

The maximum velocity attainable at the throat of a steam nozzle is......

a)

less than sonic velocity

b)

Sonic velocity

c)

more than sonic velocity

d)

Supersonic velocity

30.

Which of the following devices uses wilson's line in determining flow through it.......

a)

Steam engine

b)

Steam nozzle

c)

Reaction turbine

d)

Impulse turbine

31.

Nozzle efficiency is described as.......

a)

Isentropic heat drop/useful heat drop

b)

useful heat drop/isentropic heat drop

c)

saturation temperature/supersaturation temperature

d)

supersaturation temperature/saturation temperature

32.

The steam leaves the nozzle at a.........

a)

High pressure and low velocity

b)

High-pressure and high velocity

c)

Low pressure and low velocity

d)

Low pressure and high velocity

33.

The flow of steam is supersonic.........

a)

At the entrance to the nozzle

b)

At the throat of the nozzle

c)

In the convergent portion of the nozzle

d)

In the divergent portion of the nozzle

34.

The maximum velocity attainable at the throat of a steam nozzle is......

a)

Much less than sonic velocity

b)

Slightly less then sonic velocity

c)

Sonic velocity

d)

Slightly more than sonic velocity

e)

Supersonic velocity

35.

The effect of friction in nozzle is to .......

a)

Keep dryness fraction constant

b)

Increase dryness fraction

c)

Decrease dryness fraction

d)

First increase dryness fraction up to certain limit and then decrease it

36.

The critical pressure ratio for initially superheated steam is.......as compared to initially dry saturated steam

a)

More

b)

Less

c)

Same

d)

None of the above

37.

A nozzle is said to be choked when .......

a)

Flow-through it is zero

b)

Flow is attained at maximum value corresponding to critical exit pressure

c)

It is not possible to increase the flow by increasing inlet pressure

d)

It is discharging into atmosphere

38.

In an impulse turbine.......

a)

The steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop and heat drop

b)

The steam is expanded both in fixed and moving blades continuously

c)

The steam is expanded in moving blades only

d)

The pressure and temperature of steam remains constant

39.

The reheating of steam in a turbine........

a)

Increases the work done through the turbine

b)

Increases the efficiency of the turbine

c)

Reduces wear on the blades

d)

All of the above

40.

Da-laval turbines are mostly used.......

a)

Where low speeds are required

b)

For small power purposes and and low speeds

c)

For small power purposes and and high speeds

d)

For large power purposes

41.

The degree of reaction is defined as the ratio........

a)

Heat drop in the fixed blades to the heat drop in the moving blades

b)

Heat drop in the moving blades to the heat drop in the fixed blades

c)

Heat drop in the moving blades to the total heat drop in the fixed blades

d)

Heat drop in the fixed blades to the total heat drop in the moving blades

42.

There is enthalpy drop only in.......blades in case of an impulse steam turbine

a)

Fixed

b)

Rotating

c)

Moving

d)

All of the above

43.

In a reaction turbine........

a)

The steam is allowed to expand in the nozzle, where it gives a high velocity before it enters the moving blades

b)

The expansion of steam takes place partly in the fixed blades and partly in the moving blades

c)

The steam is expanded from a high pressure to a condenser pressure in one or more nozzles

d)

The pressure and temperature of steam remains constant

44.

In an impulse turbine

a)

The steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop and heat drop

b)

The steam is expanded both in fixed and moving blades continuously

c)

The steam is expanded in moving blades only

d)

The pressure and temperature of steam remains constant

45.

In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades

a)

Pressure increases while velocity decreases

b)

Pressure decreases while velocity increases

c)

Pressure and velocity both decreases

d)

Pressure and velocity both increases

46.

The relative efficiency is defined as the

a)

Ratio of thermal efficiency to Rankine efficiency

b)

Ratio of brake power to the indicated power

c)

Ratio of heat equivalent to indicated power to the energy supplied in steam

d)

Product of thermal efficiency and Rankine efficiency

47.

A throttle governed steam engine develops 15 kW with 280 kg per hour of steam and 35 kW with 520 kg per hour of steam. The steam consumption in kg per hour when developing 20 kW will be nearly

a)

150 kg/h

b)

210 kg/h

c)

280 kg/h

d)

340 kg/h

48.

In the following table, boiler components (left side) and different functions of boiler operation (Right side) are given. Determine correct functions corresponding to boiler component and select suitable option.

a)

1B-2A-3D-4C

b)

1C-2D-3A-2B

c)

1D-2B-3C-4A

d)

1A-2C-3B-4D

49.

In a gas power cycle, hot combustion gas having specific heat 0.98 kJ/Kg-K enters the turbine at 25 bar, 1300 K and exits at 1 bar. The ratio of specific heat of the working fluid is 1.3. The isentropic efficiency of the turbine is 92%. The work developed (kJ/kg) by the turbine is

a)

614.44

b)

725.95

c)

667.87

d)

576.82

50.

when fuel oil with 84.9 % carbon, 11.4 % hydrogen, 3.2 % Sulphur, 0.4 % oxygen and 0.1 % ash by weight is burnt with 20 % excess air, assume complete combustion calculate Total air supplied

a)

6.42 kg/kg of fuel

b)

9.24 kg/kg of fuel

c)

16.72 kg/kg of fuel

d)

19.52 kg/kg of fuel