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Worksheets

Combined Reviewer

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What enzyme is responsible for elongation of a1-4 glycogen?

a)

Glycogen synthase

b)

Glycogen phosphorylase

2.

Where does guanidinoacetate to creatine take place?

a)

heart

b)

liver

c)

kidney

3.

What source of energy give the muscle during first exercise?

a)

creatine phosphate

b)

creatinine

4.

Which of these products is an indicator for kidney disease?

a)

creatine

b)

creatine kinase

c)

creatinine

d)

creatine phosphate

5.

What is the most abundant protein in human body?

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

albumin

d)

collagen

6.

What is the end product of purine?

a)

xanthine

b)

guanine

c)

adenosine

d)

uric acid

7.

Patient has metnal retardation, self-mutation, aggressive, and bites his fingers and lips. It was found that he has Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which of these enzyme cause this disorder?

a)

HGPRT

b)

Nucleoside phosphorylase

c)

Xanthine oxidase

8.

Which one of these diseases is antibodies attack its receptor?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Graves’ disease

d)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

9.

Which one of these is a systemic autoimmune disease?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Graves’ disease

10.

Which of the following antibodies is used in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

IgM fc

b)

IgG fc

c)

Anti-D

11.

What is the name of infection that is occur in upper dermis and superficial lymphatics and caused by streptococcus pyogenes?

a)

Folliculitis

b)

Impetigo

c)

Cellulitis

d)

Erysipelas

12.

What is the most common bacteria that caused in sickle cell anemia?

a)

Streptococcus agalactia

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Salmonella

d)

Pseudomonas

13.

What is the most common bacteria that caused in the septic arthritis?

a)

Streptococcus agalactia

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Salmonella

d)

Pseudomonas

14.

What is the name of the bacteria that is gram negative diplococci in chocolate agar?

a)

Streptococcus agalactia

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Salmonella

d)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

15.

Which of these organisms cause Madura foot?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Nocardia Brasiliense

c)

Madurella mycetomatis

16.

What is the name of bacteria that is filamentous gram positive?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Actinomycetoma

c)

Eumycetoma

17.

What is the characteristics findings of osteoarthritis?

a)

Heberden nodes

b)

Pannus formation

c)

Tophi

18.

What is the characteristics histological findings of rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Heberden nodes

b)

Pannus formation

c)

Tophi

d)

Osteophytes

19.

What is the typical joint that is affected in rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Hip joint

b)

Shoulder joint

c)

Knee joint

d)

Interphalangeal joint

20.

What is the accumulated substance in gouty arthritis?

a)

Urate

b)

Phosphate

c)

Bicarbonate

d)

Calcium

21.

What is the term used to describe no net transport of ions across the cell membrane?

a)

Equilibrium of cell

b)

Action potential

c)

Diffusion of cell

d)

Threshold of cell

22.

What is responsible for the hyperpolarization period of a neuron?

a)

Continuation of Na influx

b)

Continuation of Na efflux

c)

Continuation of k influx

d)

Continuation of k efflux

23.

What is contractile unit of muscle?

a)

Sarcoplasm

b)

Sarcomere

c)

Myosin

d)

Actin

24.

Patient came to the hospital and he has osteomyelitis, and duodenal ulcer, which of these drugs you prescribe to him?

a)

Cox I inhibitor

b)

Cox II inhibitor

c)

Cox I and Cox II inhibitor

d)

Cox III inhibitor

25.

which one of the following degrades the neurotransmitter?

a)

Antiacetylcholinesterase

b)

Cholinergic mimic

c)

Acetylcholinesterase

26.

Patient came to hospital after 6 months of treating acute gouty arthritis. After medication he has kidney stones, which of these drugs does this?

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Probenecid

c)

Febuxostat

27.

A female 36 suffering from rheumatoid arthritis. After taking the medication she has blurred vision and night blindness, what drug did she take?

a)

Leflunomide

b)

Hydroxychloroquine

c)

Sulfasalazine

28.

A patient exposed to organophosphate on the way to the hospital died (رحمه الله عليه ), what is the reason for his death?

a)

Respiratory failure

b)

Hepatic failure

c)

Kidney failure

29.

Which one of these receptors does hypotension and bradycardia if we use cholinomimetics?

a)

M1

b)

M2

c)

M3

d)

M4

30.

Patient took an eyedrop for glaucoma disease, which of the following drug did he take?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Bethanechol

c)

Pilocarpine

d)

Ecothiophate

31.

What is the mechanism of colchicine?

a)

Tubulin inhibitor

b)

None

c)

I don't know

d)

Aspirin

32.

Which of the following worsens gout if you give in small dose?

a)

Pegloticase

b)

Aspirin

33.

Which of the following consider as contraindicated when use anti-cholinesterase?

a)

Hepatic failure

b)

Kidney failure

c)

Asthmatic patient

d)

Hypersensitive

34.

Which enzyme is responsible for the degradation of depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?

a)

Cholinesterase

b)

Pseudo-cholinesterase

35.

Which one of these nerves will injury from incorrect place of crutches?

a)

Median

b)

Ulnar

c)

Axillary

36.

What make up the shoulder joint?

a)

glenoid cavity of scapula

b)

Acromion of scapula

37.

Which one of these hip ligaments is spiral shape?

a)

Pubofemoral ligament

b)

Ischiofemoral ligament

c)

Iliofemoral ligament

38.

What is the largest joint in the body?

a)

Hip joint

b)

Shoulder joint

c)

Knee joint

39.

Which one of these ligaments is intracapsular ligament?

a)

Lateral collateral ligament

b)

Medial collateral ligament

c)

Oblique popliteal ligament

d)

Anterior cruciate ligament

40.

Oblique ligament is an expansion of which muscle?

a)

Biceps femoris

b)

Semimembranosus

41.

Which of the following is continued as deep palmer arch?

a)

Ulnar artery

b)

Brachial artery

c)

Radial artery

42.

Which of the following muscle make eversion of the foot?

a)

Tibialis anterior

b)

Extensor hallucis longus

c)

Peroneus tertius

43.

Which of the following muscle make inversion foot?

a)

Tibialis anterior

b)

Peroneus tertius

c)

Extensor digitorum longus

44.

Which of the following is responsible for hip extension?

a)

Gracilis

b)

Pectinus

c)

Psoas major

d)

Quadriceps femoris

45.

Which of these muscles divide axillary artery into three parts?

a)

Teres major

b)

Pectoralis minor

c)

Pectoralis major

46.

Which of these muscles axillary become brachial artery?

a)

Teres major

b)

Pectoralis minor

c)

Pectoralis major

47.

Which of the following is branch from profunda femoris artery?

a)

Popliteal artery

b)

Anterior tibial artery

c)

Posterior tibial artery

d)

Lateral femoral circumflex artery

48.

When the elbow is flexed which part can be palpated?

a)

Medial condyle

b)

Lateral condyle

c)

Olecranon process

d)

Coronoid process

49.

When the wrist is extended which of the following can be palpated on the lateral side?

a)

Styloid process of radius

b)

Radius

c)

Styloid Process

50.

Which of the following is inferior to shoulder joint?

a)

Median nerve

b)

Radial nerve

c)

Axillary nerve

51.

Which of the following structure made greater and lesser sciatic foramen?

a)

Sacrotuberous ligament

b)

Sebaceous Ligament

52.

Which of the following pass through lesser and greater sciatic foramen?

a)

Superior gluteal artery

b)

Pudendal nerve

c)

Sciatic nerve

53.

Which of the following present in the first layer of sole?

a)

Flexor digitorum brevis

b)

Flexor digitorum longus

c)

Flexor hallucis longus

54.

Which of the following is the largest branch of sciatic nerve?

a)

Peroneal nerve

b)

Tibial nerve

55.

Skeletal muscle derived from which cells?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Mesoderm

56.

What is the function of gluteus maximus?

a)

Medial rotator

b)

Flexor of hip

c)

Extension of hip

57.

What structure can be palpated in the mid-point of inguinal ligament?

a)

Femoral vein

b)

Femoral artery

c)

Popliteal fossa

58.

What is the superolateral boundary of popliteal fossa?

a)

Biceps femoris

b)

Semitendinosus

59.

Sciatic nerve passes inferior to which muscle?

a)

Piriformis muscle

b)

Piriformis Nerve

60.

What is the name of anastomosis of lesser trochanter?

a)

Genicular anastomosis

b)

Cruciate anastomosis

c)

Trochanteric anastomosis

61.

Which of the following muscle does flexion at hip joint?

a)

Adductor longus

b)

Sartorius

62.

What is the lateral boundary of femoral triangle?

a)

Sartorius

b)

Adductor longus

63.

Which of these muscles are superficial group of posterior leg?

a)

Tibialis posterior

b)

Popliteus

c)

Flexor hallucis longus

d)

Plantaris

64.

What is the apex of plantar aponeurosis?

a)

Talus

b)

Navicular

c)

Calcaneum

d)

Cuboid

65.

Which of the following is type of secondary cartilaginous joint?

a)

Intravertebral joint

b)

Intravertebral nerve

c)

Intravertebral muscle

66.

Which of the following type of hinge joint?

a)

Shoulder joint

b)

Ankle joint

67.

What is the plane movement of the joint?

a)

Rotation

b)

Flexion

c)

Slide

d)

Extension

68.

What is the type of joint in hip joint?

a)

Pivot

b)

Ball and socket

c)

Plane

69.

What is name of area between epiphysis and diaphysis?

a)

Epiphysial plate

b)

Epiphysis plate

c)

Diaphysis plate

70.

What is the first bone does secondary ossification occur?

a)

Clavicle

b)

Knee

71.

The limb buds appear at?

a)

Ventromedial

b)

Ventrolateral

c)

Dorsomedial

d)

Dorsolateral

72.

Which of the following nerve is loss of sensation at posterior surface of medial one third and half fingers?

a)

Musculocutaneous nerve

b)

Axillary nerve

c)

Posterior interosseous nerve

d)

Ulnar nerve