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THERMAL ENGINEERING II MCQ (MODEL EXAM - 4)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the context of cogeneration turbine, the thermodynamic process taking place is

a)

expansion

b)

condensation

c)

contraction

d)

both (a) & (c)

2.

The device used for recovering waste heat from the textile drier exhaust

a)

heat wheel

b)

recuperator

c)

economizer

d)

regenerator

3.

Recuperator as a waste heat recovery system is used mainly in a

a)

boiler

b)

reheating furnace

c)

compressor

d)

gas turbine

4.

The Brayton cycle is a characteristic of

a)

steam turbine

b)

petrol engine

c)

gas turbine

d)

none of the above

5.

Power is to be generated from a cement kiln exhaust gas. The applicable type of cogeneration is called

a)

topping cycle

b)

Carnot cycle

c)

bottoming cycle

d)

Brayton cycle

6.

Combined cycle is a combination of

a)

conventional boiler first followed by cogeneration system

b)

Brayton cycle first followed by a standard Rankine cycle

c)

Rankine cycle first followed by a Brayton cycle

d)

extraction in the first portion and then a condensing cycle

7.

A waste heat recovery steam generator is used with

a)

steam turbines

b)

back pressure turbines

c)

gas turbines

d)

condensing turbines

8.

The efficiency of which of the following turbine systems is the highest

a)

condensing

b)

back pressure

c)

double extraction condensing

d)

extraction condensing

9.

Bottoming cycle cogeneration is characterized by

a)

Heat first power later

b)

Only Heat

c)

Power First and Heat Later

d)

Only Power

10.

The heat recovery device in which high conductivity bricks are used for storing heat is

a)

heat pipe

b)

heat pump

c)

thermo compressor

d)

regenerator

11.

A steam turbine, in which a part of the steam after partial expansion, is used for process heating and the remaining steam is further expanded for power generation, is known as

a)

Back pressure turbine

b)

Pass out turbine

c)

Low pressure turbine

d)

Impulse turbine

12.

A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at _________ to the direction of the blade motion.

a)

60°

b)

90°

c)

180°

d)

270°

13.

The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-third of the isentropic enthalpy drop in fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be

a)

0.4

b)

0.56

c)

0.67

d)

1.67

14.

Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of

a)

Heat drop in fixed blades to the heat drop in moving blades

b)

Heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades

c)

Heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades

d)

Heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in moving blades

15.

The pressure compounded impulse turbine as compared to velocity compounded turbine require __________ number of stages.

a)

Same

b)

Less

c)

More

d)

None of these

16.

In an impulse reaction turbine, the pressure drops gradually and continuously over

a)

Fixed blades

b)

Moving blades

c)

Both fixed and moving blades

d)

None of these

17.

In a compound steam engine, the first stage of expansion is carried out in a high pressure cylinder whereas the last expansion is completed in low pressure cylinder. The diameter of high pressure cylinder is _________ the low pressure cylinder.

a)

Equal to

b)

Less than

c)

More than

d)

None of these

18.

Steam turbines may be classified according to

a)

Direction of steam flow

b)

Number of stages

c)

Mode of steam action

d)

All of these

19.

Blading efficiency is also known as

a)

Stage efficiency

b)

Diagram efficiency

c)

Nozzle efficiency

d)

None of these

20.

De-Laval turbines are mostly used

a)

Where low speeds are required

b)

For small power purposes and low speeds

c)

For large power purposes

d)

For small power purposes and high speeds

21.
The discharge through a nozzle is maximum for a certain value of exit pressure. This pressure is known as critical pressure.
a)
true
b)
false
22.
Under thermal equilibrium, flow of steam is
a)
Isentropic
b)
Adiabatic
c)
Hyperbolic
d)
Polytropic
23.
The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is more as compared to initially wet steam.
a)
Yes
b)
No
24.
When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle, the nozzle is said to be
a)
choked
b)
underdamping
c)
overdamping
d)
none of these
25.
The pressure at which the steam leaves the nozzle is known as back pressure.
a)
Correct
b)
Incorrect
26.

The critical pressure ratio (p2/p1) is given by

a)
b)
c)
d)
27.
The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal to the velocity of sound.
a)
Agree
b)
Disagree
28.

The velocity of steam leaving the nozzle (V) is given by (where K = Nozzle coefficient or nozzle efficiency, and hd = Enthalpy or heat drop during expansion of steam in a nozzle)

a)

V = 44.72 hdkh_d\sqrt{k}

b)

V = 44.72 khdk\sqrt{h_d}

c)

V = 44.72 khd\sqrt{kh_d}

d)

V = 44.72 khdkh_d

29.
The rate of discharge through the nozzle __________ when the exit pressure is gradually reduced.
a)
remains same
b)
decreases
c)
increases
30.
The flow through a nozzle is regarded as
a)
constant volume flow
b)
constant pressure flow
c)
isothermal flow
d)
isentropic flow
31.

.The fluid that is vaporized is called the refrigerant

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Another simple method of refrigeration is evaporative cooling.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

The function of evaporator is :

a)

draw the refrigerant from the evaporator through suction valve at low pressure and to force it to the condenser through exhaust valve at high pressure and temperature.

b)

to control the rate of admission of refrigerants to the evaporator.

c)

to condense the refrigerants at saturation temperature from vapour to liquid by transferring its latent heat to the water.

d)

Receive the liquid refrigerants from the condenser through throttle valve and to evaporate it

34.

Define tone of refrigeration

a)

working fluid used in the refrigerator.

b)

the standard unit of the refrigerator.

c)

machine which produces cold.

d)

process of continuous cooling or extraction of heat to below that of the atmosphere from a substance with a help of the external work.

35.

Below are the process in refrigeration system EXCEPT

a)

Compression

b)

Condensation

c)

Power

d)

Evaporation

36.

Below is the main component of refrigeration system EXCEPT:

a)

Compressor

b)

Evaporator

c)

Condenser

d)

Pump

37.

Define refrigeration

a)

It is the process of continuous cooling or extraction of heat to below that of the atmosphere from a substance with a help of the external work.

b)

It is based on the second law of thermodynamics that the heat can made to flow from cold body to a hot body with the help of external source.

c)

used to remove heat from the refrigerated space and reject it to atmosphere.

38.

In what part of a refrigeration system does the refrigerant change from a hot high pressure vapor to a hot high pressure liquid?

a)

Evaporator

b)

Condenser

c)

Liquid line

d)

Suction line

39.

What is Pressure and state of the refrigerant in the suction pipe?

a)

High pressure vapor

b)

Low pressure vapor

c)

Low pressure liquid

d)

High pressure liquid

40.

The performance of a boiler is NOT measured by the

a)

amount of water evaporated per hour

b)

steam produced in kg/h

c)

steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt

d)

complete combustion of one kg of fuel per hour

41.

What is done to increase the rate of heat transfer in the Velox boiler?

a)

The boiler is heated up to very high range of temperature

b)

Combustion gases are circulated through tubes with supersonic speed

c)

High grade fuel is made use for the combustion

d)

The size of the boiler is changed as it is flexible

42.

Heat balance in a boiler furnace is improved by sending air to the furnace

a)

At low temperature

b)

At high temperature

c)

Does not depends on temperature

d)

depends on pressure

43.

At which pressure the properties of water and steam become identical

a)

1 bar

b)

273 bar

c)

221 bar

d)

100 bar

44.

What is the function of air preheater?

a)

To increase air temperature by flue gases

b)

To increase water temperature by air

c)

To increase steam temperature by air

d)

To increase air temperature by steam

45.

In a gas power cycle, hot combustion gas having specific heat 0.98 kJ/Kg-K enters the turbine at 25 bar, 1300 K and exits at 1 bar. The ratio of specific heat of the working fluid is 1.3. The isentropic efficiency of the turbine is 92%. The work developed (kJ/kg) by the turbine is

a)

614.44

b)

725.95

c)

667.87

d)

576.82

46.

Which type of steam separator is used for low pressure (<20 bar) boiler?

a)

Cyclone Separator

b)

Baffle Separator

c)

Gravity Separator

d)

Choice of Separator doesn’t depend on boiler pressure

47.
a)

0.641 kg/kg of fuel

b)

0.222 kg/kg of fuel

c)

0.321 kg/kg of fuel

d)

1.641 kg/kg of fuel

48.

when fuel oil with 84.9 % carbon, 11.4 % hydrogen, 3.2 % Sulphur, 0.4 % oxygen and 0.1 % ash by weight is burnt with 20 % excess air, assume complete combustion calculate Total air supplied

a)

6.42 kg/kg of fuel

b)

9.24 kg/kg of fuel

c)

16.72 kg/kg of fuel

d)

19.52 kg/kg of fuel

49.

The heat balance sheet for the boiler shows the

a)

complete account of heat supplied by 1 kg of dry fuel and the heat consumed

b)

moisture present in the fuel

c)

steam formed by combustion of hydrogen per kg of fuel

d)

complete combustion of one kg of fuel

50.

a)

65.6 %

b)

86.5 %

c)

72.5 %

d)

80.6 %