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AQA GCSE PE Paper 1

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the main components of the cardiovascular system?

a)

Heart, blood vessels, lungs

b)

Veins, arteries, capillaries

c)

Heart, blood, blood vessels

d)

Blood vessels, blood, haemoglobin

2.

Which is NOT a function of the cardiovascular system?

a)

Produce energy

b)

Transport oxygen

c)

Remove waste products

3.
Which of the following delivers oxygen to cells?
a)
Red Blood cells
b)
White blood cells
c)
Platelets
d)
Plasma
4.

Which of the following are the blood vessels that have a wall that is 1 cell thick?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

5.
What is the role of the respiratory system?
a)
Add CO2
b)
Remove O2 
c)
Add CO2 and remove O2
d)
Add O2 and remove CO2 
6.

At the alveoli the O2 and CO2 are swapped through gaseous exchange into and out of the....

a)

Capillary

b)

Vessel

c)

Vein

d)

Arteries

7.

The air sacs that are covered with capillaries where gaseous exchange takes place

a)

Bronchi

b)

Lungs

c)

Oxygen

d)

Alveoli

8.

Gaseous exchange happens because of...

a)

Osmosis

b)

Respiration

c)

Diffusion

d)

Semi-permeable membranes

9.

Diffusion is...

a)

Movement of gas from an area of high concentration to high

b)

Movement of gas from an area of high concentration to low

c)

Movement of gas from an area of low concentration to high

d)

Movement of gas from an area of low concentration to low

10.

Air arriving in the alveoli has a...

a)

Higher concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) and a lower concentration of oxygen (O2)

b)

Higher concentration of oxygen (O2) and a lower concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2)

11.
Blood arriving in the capillary from the body has a...
a)
Higher concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) and a lower concentration of oxygen (O2)
b)
Higher concentration of oxygen (O2) and a lower concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2)
12.

What connects muscle to bone?

a)

Ligament

b)

Tendon

c)

Cartilage

d)

Joint Capsule

13.

What connects bone to bone?

a)

Tendons

b)

Ligaments

c)

Joint Capsule

d)

Bursae

14.

A tough but flexible tissue that acts as a buffer between the bones, preventing bones rubbing together and causing friction

a)

Bursae

b)

Joint Capsule

c)

Synovial Fluid

d)

Cartilage

15.

Tissue that stops synovial fluid from escaping and encloses, supports and holds the bones together

a)

Synovial Membrane

b)

Joint Capsule

c)

Bursae

d)

Synovial Fluid

16.

What would be the synovial joint where the femur and tibia articulate?

a)

Knee

b)

Shoulder

c)

Ankle

d)

Hip

17.

What synovial joint would you find where the femur and pelvis articulate?

a)

Knee

b)

Shoulder

c)

Ankle

d)

Hip

18.

A clear and slippery liquid that lubricates the joint and stops the bones rubbing together, is ...

a)

Bursae

b)

Cartilage

c)

Synovial Fluid

d)

Joint Capsule

19.

A sac filled with liquid, floating inside the joint, to reduce friction between tendon and bone, is ...

a)

Bursae

b)

Cartilage

c)

Synovial membrane

d)

Ligaments

20.

Which one of these is the most appropriate test to measure maximal strength?

a)

The 30 Metre Sprint Test

b)

Sit and Reach Test

c)

The One Rep Max Test

d)

The Vertical Jump Test

21.

Which one of these lung volumes is defined as the volume of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration?

a)

Expiratory reserve volume

b)

Inspiratory reserve volume

c)

Residual volume

d)

Tidal volume

22.

Which one of these muscles is found at the shoulder joint?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Gastrocnemius

c)

Gluteals

d)

Tibialis anterior

23.

Which one of these bones is located at the ankle joint?

a)

Femur

b)

Humerus

c)

Scapula

d)

Talus

24.

Which one of these best describes coordination?

a)

To change body position quickly

b)

To exercise the body for long periods of time

c)

To move two or more body parts together smoothly

d)

To perform strength movements quickly

25.

During inspiration, which one of these must air first pass through before entering the bronchi?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Bronchioles

c)

Lungs

d)

Trachea

26.

Which one of these performers relies most heavily on agility?

a)

100 m runner

b)

Golfer

c)

Rower

d)

Tennis player

27.

The Wall Toss Test measures which component of fitness?

a)

Agility

b)

Balance

c)

Coordination

d)

Flexibility

28.

What is the equation for aerobic exercise?

a)

glucose + oxygen → energy + carbon dioxide + water.

b)

glucose → energy + lactic acid.

29.

What is the equation for anaerobic exercise?

a)

glucose → energy + lactic acid.

b)

glucose + oxygen → energy + carbon dioxide + water.

30.

What is the definition of agility?

a)

The maintenance of the centre of mass over the base of support. Reference can be made to whilst static (still) or dynamic (whilst moving).

b)

The ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen to the working muscles.

c)

The ability to move and change direction quickly (at speed) whilst maintaining control.

d)

The ability to use different (two or more) parts of the body together, smoothly and efficiently.

31.

What is the job of the valves in veins?

a)

Pump blood to the heart

b)

Pump blood away from the heart

c)

Prevent back flow of blood

d)

Redistribution of blood

32.

What is meant by systolic in terms of blood pressure?

a)

When the heart is contracting (emptying)

b)

When the heart is relaxed. (filling)

33.

Which of the following muscle movements occur when the arm bends at the elbow?

a)

The biceps contract and the triceps relax

b)

The biceps relax and the triceps relax

c)

The triceps contract and the biceps contract

d)

The triceps contract and the biceps relax

34.

What is ‘co-ordination’?

a)

The ability to change direction quickly

b)

The ability to do strength performances quickly

c)

The ability to move two or more body parts together smoothly

d)

The ability to retain the centre of mass above the base of support

35.

How is maximum heart rate calculated?

a)

220 divided by age

b)

220 minus age

c)

220 multiplied by age

d)

220 plus age

36.

Which component of fitness is measured when performing a Vertical Jump Test?

a)

Co-ordination

b)

Power

c)

Agility

d)

Reaction time

37.

Which one of the following is the most important component of fitness when dribbling a ball around a defender in hockey?

a)

Reaction time

b)

Agility

c)

Cardiovascular endurance

d)

Strength

38.

Lactic acid production occurs when an athlete’s body is:

a)

Digesting a large meal

b)

Working aerobically

c)

Working anaerobically

d)

Sitting still for a long period of time

39.

Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘adduction’ at a ball and socket joint?

a)

The movement of a limb away from the

midline of the body

b)

The movement of a limb towards the

midline of the body

c)

The movement of a limb in a complete circle

d)

The movement of a limb which

increases the angle of a joint

40.

Which one of the following athletics events is an example of an aerobic activity?

a)

Javelin

b)

100 m

c)

5000 m

d)

High Jump

41.

Which one of the following is not an anaerobic activity?

a)

Long jump

b)

Gymnastics vault

c)

Tennis serve

d)

Yoga

42.

Which one of these is an immediate effect of exercise?

a)

Improvement in muscular endurance

b)

Improvement in stamina

c)

Increase in aerobic fitness

d)

Increase in heart rate

43.

Which one of these describes flexibility?

a)

Changing direction at speed with control

b)

Combination of strength and speed

c)

Range of movement possible at a joint

d)

Supplying oxygen to the working muscles

44.

Which one of these causes plantar flexion at the ankle?

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Hamstrings

c)

Quadriceps

d)

Tibialis anterior

45.

To train anaerobically, an athlete would need to work ...

a)

between 40-60% of their maximum heart rate.

b)

more than 80% of their maximum heart rate.

c)

less than 80% of their maximum heart rate.

d)

between 60-80% of their maximum heart rate.

46.

Which of the following are the blood vessels that have the thickest walls?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

47.
What is the name of the part labelled 3?
a)
Right Atrium
b)
Left Atrium
c)
Right Ventricle
d)
Left Ventricle
48.
What is the name of the part labelled 4?
a)
Right Atrium
b)
Left Atrium
c)
Right Ventricle
d)
Left Ventricle
49.

What is the name of the muscular wall that separates the heart into right and left sides?

a)

Valves

b)

Ventricles

c)

Atrium

d)

Septum

50.

Deoxygenated blood arrives to the heart from the the body via the _____.

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary artery

c)

Vena cava

d)

Pulmonary vein

51.

A blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood back to the heart is called...

a)

Cardiovascular System

b)

Heart

c)

Vein

d)

Artery

52.

The Pulmonary vein...

a)

Carries oxygenated blood to left atrium

b)

Carries deoxygenated blood to left ventricle

c)

Carries oxygenated blood to left ventricle

d)

Carries deoxygenated blood to left atrium

53.

What is Stroke Volume?

a)

Amount of blood pumped out of the heart per hour

b)

Amount of blood pumped out of the heart per minute

c)

Amount of blood pumped out of the heart per beat

54.

What is the equation for Cardiac Output? (The amount of blood pumped out of the heart per minute)

a)

Heart Rate x Stroke Volume

b)

Stroke Volume x Tidal Volume

c)

Tidal Volume x Heart Rate

55.

What is the name of the redirection of blood flow to the areas where it is most needed?

a)

Cardiac Output

b)

Bicuspid Valve

c)

Redistribution of blood

56.

What is the bone highlighted called?

a)

Clavicle

b)

Humerus

c)

Scapula

d)

Collar Bone

57.

What is the bone highlighted called?

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Talus

d)

Femur

58.

What is the correct name for the skull?

a)

Head

b)

Cranium

c)

Jaw

d)

Crane

59.

What is the bone highlighted called?

a)

Humerous

b)

Funny Bone

c)

Humerus

d)

Long Bone

60.

What are the bones highlighted called?

a)

Shoulder Blades

b)

Scapula

c)

Ribs

d)

Calvicle

61.

What is the bone highlighted called?

a)

Carpals

b)

Radius

c)

Ulna

d)

Humerus

62.

What are these bones known as?

a)

Spine

b)

Vertebrae

c)

Backbone

d)

Sternum

63.

What is the bone highlighted called?

a)

Ribs

b)

Chest

c)

Sternum

d)

Cage

64.

What are the three different types of circuit

a)

Variable, Fixed, Varied

b)

Timed, Fixed, Variable

c)

Timed, Fixed, Varied

d)

Variable, Adaptable, Timed

65.

Who would benefit most from circuit training out of the following performers;

a)

Games Player (Netballer, Footballer etc.)

b)

Sprinter

c)

Long Distance Runner

66.

Which of these is not a type of continuous training?

a)

Running

b)

Cycling

c)

Sprinting

d)

Swimming

67.

As a minimum how long should the performer be able to work in their aerobic training zone for during continuous training?

a)

10 Minutes

b)

15 Minutes

c)

20 Minutes

d)

25 Minutes

68.

When performing short periods of exercise which zone are the performers working in?

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

c)

Both

69.

Which of these is not an advantage of Fartlek training?

a)

Helps performer to pace themselves

b)

No specialist equipment required

c)

Ideal for someone training on their own

d)

Need motivation to keep going

70.

Which component of fitness does static stretching train?

a)

Flexibility

b)

Power

c)

Strength

d)

Muscular Endurance

71.

How do muscles contract during static stretching?

a)

Isometrically

b)

Isotonically

c)

Concentrically

d)

Eccentrically

72.

To develop power you should use ...

a)

Low weight, low sets

b)

High weight, high sets

c)

High weight, low sets

d)

Low weight, high sets

73.

What does the 30m Sprint test measure?

a)

Speed

b)

Power

c)

Reaction Time

d)

Body Composition

74.

The Sit and Reach Test measures?

a)

Flexibility in hamstrings and lower back

b)

Flexibility in your abdominals

c)

If you can touch your toes

d)

Flexibility in your arms and neck

75.

Why is baseline data important, select two answers?

a)

To be able to drop the base

b)

So you have a starting point to measure improvement

c)

To identify strengths and weaknesses

d)

To use up some time

76.

Reliability is?

a)

Whether the test can be easily repeated to get the same result

b)

The same as validity

c)

Whether it is a true test of that fitness component

d)

Not worth worrying about

77.

The Sit Up Test measures?

a)

Muscular Endurance

b)

How strong your abdominals are

c)

Muscular Strength

d)

Stamina in your back

78.

MSFT stands for....

a)

Multi Staggered Fitness Test

b)

Multiple Stage Fitness Test

c)

Many Stage Fitness Test

d)

Multi Stage Fitness Test

79.

Which component of fitness can be measured using the MSFT

a)

Power

b)

Agility

c)

Cardiovascular Endurance

d)

Strength

80.

Which muscle is highlighted?

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Gluteals

81.

Which muscle is highlighted?

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Gluteals

82.

Which muscle is highlighted?

a)

Latissimus Dorsi

b)

Deltoid

c)

Hamstrings

d)

Gastrocnemius

83.

Which muscle is highlighted?

a)

Latissimus Dorsi

b)

Abdominals

c)

Pectorals

d)

Quadriceps

84.

What muscle is highlighted?

a)

Triceps

b)

Biceps

c)

Quadriceps

d)

Deltoids

85.

Which one of these is a long term benefit of exercise?

a)

Higher resting heart rate

b)

Reduced blood pressure

c)

Reduced stroke volume

d)

Reduced tidal volume

86.

When straightening the leg at the knee, which muscle acts as the agonist?

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Hamstring

c)

Quadriceps

d)

Tibialis anterior

87.

When bowling a cricket ball, what movement occurs at the shoulder joint?

a)

Flexion

b)

Rotation

c)

Circumduction

d)

Extension

88.

Turning a limb about its axis to put spin on a tennis forehand is what type of movement?

a)

Rotation

b)

Circumduction

c)

Spin

d)

Flexion

89.

______is the number of training sessions completed in a given period of time.

a)

Training frequency

b)

Training intensity

c)

Training volume

d)

Exercise order

90.

An activity that prepares the muscles for work...1st stage of a workout.

a)

Workout

b)

Cool down

c)

Warm up

d)

Specificity

91.

Progressive Overload means what?

a)

That you are doing too much

b)

Gradually increasing the amount of work done in training

c)

You are not working hard enough

d)

You could do more

92.

How often do you exercise?

a)

Frequency

b)

Intensity

c)

Time

d)

Type

93.

How hard you exercise?

a)

Frequency

b)

Intensity

c)

Time

d)

Type

94.

A 100m sprinter would need which one of the following fitness components the most?

a)

Agility

b)

Reaction time

c)

Speed

d)

Muscular endurance

95.

Speed x Strength is the definition of which fitness component?

a)

Maximal Strength

b)

Balance

c)

Co-ordination

d)

Explosive Strength / Power

96.
Which one of the following components of fitness is best improved through ‘continuous training’?
a)
Strength
b)
Cardiovascular endurance
c)
Agility
d)
Flexibility
97.

What position do you start in for the Illinois Agility Test?

a)

Standing

b)

Sitting

c)

Laying face down

d)

Laying on your back

98.

What is the definition of fitness?

a)

A state of complete mental, physical and social well being

b)

Performing a task, including a sporting performance

c)

The time taken to cover a set distance

d)

The ability to meet the demands of the environment

99.

What is the first stage of a warm up?

a)

Pulse raiser

b)

Sport specific skills

c)

Mental preparation

d)

Dynamic stretching

100.
Which of these is not a reason why we complete a cool down?
a)
Remove lactic acid
b)
Prevent DOMs
c)
Reduce muscle temperature
d)
Increasing heart rate 
101.

Which of the following aims are applicable to pre-season training? (there are 2 correct answers)

a)

To improve general fitness

b)

Performers should only work on developing technique and skills

c)

To improve specific fitness needs e.g. agility, strength, muscular endurance

d)

Performers are to get plenty of rest to ensure they are not tired for the start of the new season

102.

Which of these aims are relevant to competition season? (there are two correct answers)

a)

Performers should sit at home and play FIFA and Fortnite in order to improve their competitive edge

b)

Performers should work on improving their fitness

c)

Performers should work on specific skills used in their sport

d)

Performers should aim to maintain fitness levels

103.

Which of the following are correct safety principles for training? (three correct answers)

a)

Hydration should be maintained with fluid intake

b)

Equipment should be cleaned before being used

c)

Over training should be avoided e.g. appropriate weights should be lifted.

d)

You should always train after eating

e)

A warm up and cool down should take place

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