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WorksheetsBTEC Sport unit 1 Mock
Total questions: 99
Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The table shows four stages of an aerobic endurance plan.
What does the change in level of intensity from Stage I to Stage II represent?
What does the change in level of intensity from Stage I to Stage II represent?
a)
Progressive overload
b)
Reversibility
c)
Specificity
d)
Variety
2.
Which statement best describes the principle of reversibility?
a)
Changing training duration prior to competition
b)
Changing training intensity prior to competition
c)
The loss of training benefits with reduced performance
d)
The loss of muscle glycogen due to increased training demands
3.
Which is an example of specificity in strength training?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
4.
Which of the following is an example of the principle of reversibility?
a)
Decreased training intensity leading up to a major competition
b)
Decreased level of performance as a result of a break in training
c)
Completing exercises for opposing muscle groups in one session
d)
Achieving a lower time in an 800m time trial on a second attempt
5.
Which of the following best demonstrates the principle of progressive overload?
a)
Ensuring that an athlete's HR is below 70-80% if MHR during each session
b)
Gradually increasing the weight & number of reps for strength training exercises
c)
Participating in a variety of activities to develop a range of muscle groups
d)
Scheduling 1-2 training sessions each week to maximise training benefits
6.
How could progressive overload be included into the program?
a)
The frequency being maintained at 3 x week
b)
The time being decreased to 20-30 mins
c)
The intensity being increased to 75-85% of MHR
d)
The type of activity being changed to cycling
7.
Which principle of training has the athlete displayed from Weeks 6 to 12?
a)
Peaking
b)
Progressive overload
c)
Reversibility
d)
Specificity
8.
Which exercise intensity indicates the greatest potential for gain in aerobic conditioning?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
9.
Which type of exercise should John mostly be doing if he is training for soccer?
a)
Dance
b)
Running
c)
Hiking
d)
Swimming
10.
Which of the following is a training principle?
a)
Coordination
b)
Ability
c)
Progressive Overload
d)
Heart Rate
11.
Zac wants to improve his 100 meter swim time. Applying the principle of specificity, which activity would be most helpful?
a)
Hiking
b)
Stretching
c)
Swimming
d)
Skating
12.
Which component of fitness can be developed by lifting heavy weights with few repetitions?
a)
Muscular Fitness
b)
Cardiovascular Fitness
c)
Muscular Endurance
d)
Muscular Strength
13.
The muscle's ability to work over a long period of time is
a)
flexibility
b)
body composition
c)
intensity
d)
muscular endurance
14.
What component would be most important to a long distance runner?
a)
Reaction time
b)
Cardiorespiratory endurance
c)
Agility
d)
Muscular Strength
15.
What is a resting heart rate?
a)
When your heart takes a break from working.
b)
When your heart rate is 175.
c)
When your heart is at it's lowest beats per minute (bpm).
d)
220 minus your age.
16.
The number of times the heart beats per 60 seconds
a)
Recovery Heart Rate
b)
Resting Heart Rate
c)
Heart Rate Reserve
d)
Heart Rate
17.
What is your maximum heart rate?
a)
220 minus your age; the maximum number of times your heart can beat safely in one minute.
b)
175; The zone that you want your heart rate to be in while you're being active.
c)
When you haven't been active for a long time and your heart isn't working very hard.
d)
The highest number on the electronic heart rate monitor.
18.
What is the Borg Scale?
a)
A calculation to work out training zones
b)
Anaerobic training zone calculation
c)
A perception of exertion scale
d)
A perception of fatigue scale
19.
On the Borg scale, 15 is classed as how hard a work rate?
a)
No exertion at all
b)
Somewhat hard
c)
Hard
d)
Extremely Hard
20.
What does the calculation 220-Age give you?
a)
Your maximum speed
b)
Your Anaerobic Target Zone
c)
Your Aerobic Target Zone
d)
Your Heart Rate (HR) Max
21.
What does the I in the F.I.T.T acronym stand for?
a)
Individual
b)
Importance
c)
Intensity
d)
Intake
22.
The graph shows results of testing an athlete’s strength for competition. These strength levels were recorded at the start of training (Week 1 – 3), right before competition (Week 6) and after a break from training (Weeks 8 – 12).
Which principle of training has the athlete displayed from Weeks 6 – 12?
Which principle of training has the athlete displayed from Weeks 6 – 12?
a)
Peaking
b)
Overload
c)
Reversibility
d)
Progressive overload
23.
How could a coach use a circuit training program to develop the aerobic capacity and strength of her athletes?
a)
by increasing the time allowed for the circuit to be completed
b)
by increasing the resistance and the time at each of the stations
c)
by decreasing the time allowed for the circuit to be completed
d)
by decreasing the resistance and the time at each of the stations
24.
What does the acroymn SPORT stand for?
a)
Specific Pilates Or Reversibility Transport
b)
Specificity, Progression, Overload, Reversibility, Tedium
c)
Specificity, Principles, Override, Reversibility, Track
25.
What are training principles?
a)
People in charge of schools.
b)
Set of rules to help maximize benefits of fitness training.
c)
Specific exercises to include in workouts.
d)
Using treats to make your dog sit & stay.
26.
What is: "A gradual increase either in frequency, intensity, or time or a combo of all 3?"
a)
Progression
b)
Intensity
c)
Type
d)
Specificity
27.
Why are the use of training principles recommended?
a)
Because I said so.
b)
They make your workout most effective.
c)
Some guy said it works.
d)
They let you workout and feel smarter.
28.
Choose the station that works on cardiovascular endurance.
a)
Tricep dips
b)
Reverse lunges
c)
Pushups
d)
Jump Rope
29.
There are three methods of training for Flexibility. Which is the incorrect training method?
a)
Static - Active
b)
Dynamic
c)
Proprioreceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation
d)
Organic
30.
Continuous trainign should last for at least how long?
a)
30 mins
b)
1hour
c)
25 mins
d)
45 mins
31.
Periods of fast running intermixed with periods of slower running, jogging and walking.
a)
Fartlek training
b)
INterval training
c)
Continuous training
d)
Acceleration sprints
32.
Training that involves a series of low- to high-intensity exercise workouts interspersed with rest or relief periods.
a)
Fartlek
b)
Continuous
c)
Circuit
d)
Interval
33.
Hollow sprints, Acceleration sprints and interval training will all improve your......
a)
Agility
b)
Stamina
c)
Speed
d)
Cardiovascular Endurance
34.
An Athlete wants to improve their performance in the 100m sprint. What type of training should they carry out?
a)
Acceleration Sprints
b)
Circuit training
35.
A Gymnast wants to improve their flexibility. Which method of training would give the quickest results?
a)
PNF
b)
Static stretching
c)
Ballistic training
36.
Flexibility is......
a)
Having an adequate range of motion in all joints of the body; the ability to move a joint fluidly through its complete range of movement.
b)
The relative ratio of fat mass to fat-free mass (vital organs, muscle, bone) in the body.
c)
The ability of a sports performer to quickly and precisely move or change direction without losing balance or time.
37.
The relative ratio of fat mass to fat-free mass (vital organs, muscle, bone) in the body.
a)
Body Composition
b)
Flexibility
c)
Body Fat
d)
Body Mass Index
38.
The ability to maintain centre of mass over a base of support
a)
Balance
b)
Centre of Gravity
c)
Stability
d)
Static
39.
The ability of a sports performer to quickly and precisely move or change direction without losing balance or time.
a)
Speed
b)
Agility
c)
Dodging
d)
Evasion
40.
The product of strength and speed
a)
The product of strength and speed
b)
Distance divided by the time taken.
c)
Power
d)
Speed
41.
The time taken for a sports performer to respond to a stimulus and the initiation of their response.
a)
Reflexes
b)
Co-ordination
c)
Reaction time
d)
Response time
42.
The recommended training zone for cardiovascular training is...
a)
50-100%
b)
60-85%
c)
50-60%
d)
70-85%
43.
How do you work out your Maximum heart rate?
a)
220+age=HR
b)
220/age= HR
c)
220-age=HR
d)
Age x220=HR
44.
What do the FITT basic principoles of training stand for?
a)
Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type
b)
Fit, Intensity, Time, Type
c)
Food, Ice, Time, Type
d)
Frequency, Intensity, trust, Type
45.
Select the term that is being defined:
The program should be designed to meet individual training goals and needs.
The program should be designed to meet individual training goals and needs.
a)
Specificity
b)
Progressive overload
c)
Individual differences/needs:
d)
Reversibility
46.
Select the term that is being defined:
How the body reacts to training loads by increasing its ability to cope with those loads ................. occurs during the recovery period after the training session is completed.
How the body reacts to training loads by increasing its ability to cope with those loads ................. occurs during the recovery period after the training session is completed.
a)
Progression
b)
Adaptation
c)
Variation
d)
Overload
47.
Select the term that is being defined:
Required so that the body can recover from the training to allow adaptation to occur
Required so that the body can recover from the training to allow adaptation to occur
a)
Rest and recovery
b)
Progression
c)
Overload
d)
Variation
48.
Select the term that is being defined:
It is important to vary the training regime to avoid boredom and maintain enjoyment
It is important to vary the training regime to avoid boredom and maintain enjoyment
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Reversibility
d)
Progression
49.
What is the first stage of a warm up?
a)
Pulse raiser
b)
Sport specific skills
c)
Mental preparation
d)
Dynamic Stretching
50.
Which of these is not a reason why we complete a cool down?
a)
Remove lactic acid
b)
Prevent DOMs
c)
Reduce muscle temperature
d)
Increasing heart rate
51.
Which of these is NOT what a warm up is essential to do?
a)
Prevent injury
b)
Practice skills before the event, match or game
c)
Reduce range of movement
d)
Prepare body for specific exercise
52.
What type of stretching do you complete in a cool down
a)
Dynamic
b)
Static
c)
Holding
d)
Moving
53.
What is the reason for jogging in a cool down?
a)
Increase heart rate slowly
b)
Slow heart rate down
c)
To burn more cal
d)
Return heart rate gradually to its resting level
54.
How long should you hold a stretch for in a cool down?
a)
20 - 25 seconds
b)
25 - 30 seconds
c)
30 - 35 seconds
d)
35 - 40 seconds
55.
Does the cool down or warm up reduce the chance of fainting and dizziness?
a)
Warm up
b)
Cool down
56.
Is heart rate the primary measure of intensity during aerobic endurance training?
a)
yes
b)
no
57.
What does 'Type' refer to in the F.I.T.T. principle?
a)
The type of food you eat before exercising
b)
The type of exercise you choose to complete
c)
The type of recovery strategies you complete after exercising
d)
The type of mental strategies the athlete puts in place during exercise
58.
What does 'Time' refer to in the F.I.T.T. principle?
a)
How long an athlete should rest for after exercising
b)
How long an athlete should train for
c)
How long an athlete should wait before exercising again
d)
How long an athlete should prep before exercising
59.
Select the correct DISADVANTAGE of using dumbbells or free weights for training.
a)
Hard to know exactly what resistance is being applied
b)
Unexpected movements
c)
May be too difficult or unsafe for beginners
d)
Fixed/Limited weight
60.
Select the correct ADVANTAGE of using a weight machine for training.
a)
Great for a total body workout
b)
Great ability to develop power
c)
Less intimidating for beginners and can guide movements
d)
Increased muscle activation and adds more difficulty
61.
It is ok to train the same body parts each day since it will make you stronger.
a)
True
b)
False
62.
Your spotter should always be
a)
talking to other people
b)
sitting and watching you lift
c)
standing in the proper position, aware and attentive to you
d)
lifting the weight for you
63.
A Spotter is
a)
your maximum strength
b)
the person who monitors the lifter
c)
the time your muscles take to recover
d)
the people sitting, doing nothing, watching everyone else
64.
Recovery time is extremely important because it allows your muscles to rebuild before working them again.
a)
True
b)
False
65.
Which 2 components of physical fitness are linked to power
a)
Speed and Balance
b)
Speed and Strength
c)
Agility and Balance
d)
Strength and Flexibility
66.
Whats the is the correct definition for intensity?
a)
How hard an individual trains
b)
Reach maximum heart rate
c)
How often an individual trains
d)
How long an individual trains
67.
When planning a training programme, it is important to plan rest days because...
a)
Prevent boredom
b)
Gives body time to adapt, repair and recover
c)
Socialise with friends
d)
Don't need rest days
68.
Which of the following is not a purpose of a warm-up?
a)
Prepare mentally for the sport
b)
Prevent injuries
c)
Decrease heart rate
d)
Prepare physically for the sport
69.
Which of the following is not a purpose of a cool-down?
a)
Decrease heart rate
b)
Remove lactic acid
c)
Gradually bring body back to resting rate
d)
Prepare for the sport
70.
Which component of physical fitness does the multi-stage fitness test relate to?
a)
Muscular endurance
b)
Strength
c)
Aerobic endurance
d)
Speed
71.
What is the standard test for agility?
a)
Illinois agility run
b)
Sit and Reach
c)
Bleep test
d)
1 minute sit-up
72.
Which principle of training does a boxer use when punching a punch bag?
a)
Progression
b)
Specificity
c)
Adaptation
d)
Reversibility
73.
Which component of fitness will hollow sprints help develop?
a)
Strength
b)
Flexibility
c)
Muscular Endurance
d)
Speed
74.
Complete the sentence.
......................... is having an adequate range of motion in all joints of the body.
......................... is having an adequate range of motion in all joints of the body.
a)
Flexibility
b)
Speed
c)
Agility
d)
Bone and joints
75.
Which of the following is another name for Aerobic Endurance?
a)
Muscular Fitness
b)
Muscular Endurance
c)
Aerobic Power
d)
Aerobic Fitness
76.
What component of fitness does the vertical jump test measure?
a)
Flexibility
b)
Power
c)
Strength
d)
Speed
77.
What is the name of this test?
a)
30m sprint test
b)
Sit and reach test
c)
Illinois agility test
d)
1 rep max test
78.
What is this testing?
a)
Joints
b)
Strength
c)
Flexibility
d)
Nothing
79.
This piece of equipment is used to test which component of fitness?
a)
Fat levels
b)
Body Composition
c)
Endomorph
d)
Nothing
80.
Which component of fitness is the following definition linked to;
The ability of muscular system to work efficiently over a period of time.
The ability of muscular system to work efficiently over a period of time.
a)
Speed
b)
Muscular Strength
c)
Muscular Endurance
d)
Body Composition
81.
The push-up test measures_________?
a)
Flexibility
b)
Cardiovascular Endurance
c)
Muscular Strength
d)
Muscular Endurance
82.
The sit and reach test measures_________?
a)
Flexibility
b)
Cardiovascular Endurance
c)
Muscular Strength
d)
Muscular Endurance
83.
The BMI is a test of which health-related component of fitness?
a)
Flexibility
b)
Muscular Endurance
c)
Cardiovascular Endurance
d)
Body Composition
84.
Dynamic stretching is:
a)
Using weight to stretch.
b)
Holding a stretch.
c)
performed in motion
d)
bouncing to stretch
85.
Matthew's goal is to improve the muscular strength in his legs. Which of the following exercises will help him gain muscular strength in his legs?
a)
Calf stretches
b)
Squats with a weight bar
c)
Hurdlers stretch
d)
Bench press
86.
Which of the following exercises would best strengthen the pectoral muscles
a)
Lunges
b)
Bicep curls
c)
Crunches
d)
Chest press
87.
What is the test for strength?
a)
Sit and Reach
b)
Standing Stork
c)
Standing Broad Jump
d)
1 rep max
88.
Muscular strength is
a)
The amount of force a muscle can exert against a resistance
b)
The range of movement at a joint
c)
How well a task is completed
d)
An activity done to improve ones health and physical fitness
89.
Which of the following fitness tests can be used to measure Body Composition?
a)
35 Metre Sprint
b)
Vertical Jump Test
c)
Press-Up Test
d)
Skinfold Testing
90.
'The repeatability of a set of results' is a good definition for what?
a)
Validity
b)
Reliability
c)
Accuracy
d)
Precision
91.
Which of these is not a Health and Safety Issue?
a)
Clothing
b)
Money
c)
Weather
d)
Equipment and Facilities
92.
'The Sit and Reach Test should be performed.....'
a)
WITH your shoes on
b)
WITHOUT your shoes on
93.
'Repeating the same test 3 times will help make the results more...'
a)
Suitable
b)
Valid
c)
Reliable
d)
Safe
94.
Which of these is a valid test for Speed?
a)
One Rep Max
b)
Vertical Jump
c)
35 Metre Sprint
d)
Skinfold
95.
Using your height and weight, you can determine your ___________________.
a)
Flexibility
b)
Body Composition
c)
Muscular Strength
d)
Muscular Endurance
96.
Ability of muscles to work for a long time =
a)
cardiorespiratory endurance
b)
power
c)
agility
d)
muscular endurance
97.
ability to reach or respond quickly
a)
flexibility
b)
warm-up
c)
cardio-respiratory endurance
d)
reaction time
98.
less intense or light exercise that allows heart rate to return to normal gradually
a)
cool down
b)
stretching
c)
isotonic exercise
d)
aerobic exercise
99.
What is a benefit of cooling down?
a)
Remove lactic acid
b)
Raise heart rate
c)
Rest
d)
Remove swelling
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