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102 Squadron GPS Practice Exam 3

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The _________, is the term used to describe the complete structure of an airplane, including the fuel tanks and lines, but without engine(s) and instruments installed.

a)

airframe

b)

empennage

c)

fuselage

d)

canard

2.

Some wings are constructed with no external bracing at all. These are known as _________ wings.

a)

low wing

b)

cantilever

c)

monocoque

d)

internally braced wings

3.

As the angle of attack of an airfoil is increased up to the point of stall, the centre of pressure will move _________.

a)

back

b)

forward

c)

up

d)

will not move

4.

_________ drag is caused by those parts of an aircraft which produce lift and therefore can not be completely eliminated.

a)

Parasite

b)

Form

c)

Induced

d)

Interference

5.

_________ should be used in order to gain the most altitude in a given amount of time.

a)

Best angle of climb

b)

Best rate of climb

c)

Best climbing configuration

d)

Best climb time

6.

When gliding into a fairly strong headwind, greater distance may be covered over the ground if the speed is kept _________ the best lift to drag speed.

a)

slightly slower than

b)

much slower than

c)

slightly faster than

d)

at

7.

What is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be safely operated in smooth air called?

a)

Maneuvering speed (Va)

b)

Normal operating speed (Vno)

c)

Maximum flap extended speed (Vfe)

d)

Never exceed speed (Vne)

8.

In some ways a spiral dive resembles a spin. However, in a spin the airspeed is _________. In a spiral dive the airspeed is _________.

a)

constant and relatively low, increasingly rapid

b)

increasing rapidly, constant and relatively low

c)

constant and relatively low, remains the same

d)

increasing, decreasing

9.

_________ refers to the shape of the wing as seen from directly above.

a)

Top view

b)

Plan form

c)

Form view

d)

Wing view

10.

The steeper the angle of bank for any given airspeed, _________.

a)

the larger the radius of turn

b)

the greater the rate of turn

c)

the higher the stalling speed

d)

both the greater the rate of turn and a higher stalling speed

11.

In straight and level flight an airplane has a load factor of 1, or 1G. A 60-degree bank turn produces a load factor of ________G.

a)

2

b)

1.5

c)

3.86

d)

1.04

12.

The aspect ratio of a wing is computed by dividing the span by the _________.

a)

camber

b)

length

c)

average chord

d)

weight

13.

The _________ of an airfoil is the curvature of the upper and lower surfaces.

a)

chord

b)

camber

c)

pressure

d)

span

14.

_________ is a term used to describe the direction of the airflow with respect to the wing.

a)

Angle of attack

b)

Angle of incidence

c)

Relative airflow

d)

Angle of deviation

15.

The lift to drag ratio is determined by;

a)

Dividing the live load by the dead load

b)

Dividing the lift coefficient by the drag coefficient

c)

Dividing performance by endurance

d)

Dividing the drag coefficient by the lift coefficient

16.

Air flowing over the upper surface of the wing tends to flow _________.

a)

slower than air flowing under the wing

b)

faster than air flowing under the wing

c)

inward

d)

both inward and faster than air flowing under the wing

17.

Which of the following factors does not affect the stalling speed (IAS) of an airfoil?

a)

C of G

b)

Weight

c)

Temperature

d)

Flaps

18.

The initial tendency of an aircraft to return to its original position is known as _________ stability.

a)

neutral

b)

dynamic

c)

directional

d)

static

19.

An aircraft loaded with the C of G too far aft will have _________ tendency.

a)

nose up

b)

nose down

c)

stable

d)

no effect

20.

Most high wing aircraft are laterally stable because the wings are attached in a high position on the fuselage and because the weight is therefore low. When the aircraft is disturbed and one wing dips, the weight acts as a pendulum returning the aircraft to its original attitude. The cause of this stability is known as _________.

a)

an anhedral

b)

precession

c)

sweepback

d)

keel effect

21.

The most important property of the atmosphere is _________.

a)

mobility

b)

expansion

c)

compression

d)

upward air currents

22.

From a standpoint of weather, _________ is the most important component of the air.

a)

water vapour

b)

oxygen

c)

pollution

d)

none of these

23.

The ICAO standard atmosphere for the continent of North America assumes _________.

a)

the rate of decrease of temperature with height is 3 degrees/1,000 ft

b)

the air is a perfectly dry gas

c)

a mean sea level pressure of 992 mb

d)

a mean sea level temperature of 20 degrees Celsius

24.

Warm air is _________ than cold air and therefore tends to _________.

a)

less dense, rise

b)

less dense, sink

c)

more dense, sink

d)

more dense, rise

25.

If adjusted for the current pressure, the altimeter will read the true elevation of the aerodrome _________.

a)

above mean ground level

b)

above sea level

c)

as zero

d)

above the equator

26.

Altostratus clouds fall into which category of clouds?

a)

Low

b)

Middle

c)

High

d)

Vertical development

27.

A sea breeze occurs during the _________ and the wind blows from the _________ to the _________.

a)

day, land, water

b)

day, water, land

c)

night, land, water

d)

night, water, land

28.

In a climb from the surface to several thousand feet AGL, the wind will _________.

a)

back and decrease

b)

back and increase

c)

veer and decrease

d)

veer and increase

29.

Relative humidity:

a)

Is the ratio of water vapor present in the air compared to the amount the same volume of air could hold if it were saturated.

b)

Is the ratio of water vapor present in the air compared to the amount the same volume of air could hold if it were dry.

c)

Decreases when a given mass of air is cooled and no new water vapor is added

d)

All of these

30.

The rate of decrease of temperature with height is called the _________.

a)

lapse rate

b)

inversion rate

c)

isothermal rate

d)

ITT rate

31.

The mature stage of a thunderstorm cell is marked by the _________.

a)

appearance of the top of the cell spreading out into an anvil structure

b)

presence of heavy downdrafts

c)

appearance of precipitation on the ground

d)

all of these

32.

Terminal Aviation Forecasts (TAFs) are issued _________ times daily and are valid for _________.

a)

24, 90 minutes

b)

4, 24 hours

c)

6, 4 hours

d)

2, 36 hours

33.

METAR CYPG 221600Z 11007KT 15SM BKN020 BKN035 09/04 A3005 RMK SC5SC2 SLP 182


With reference to the above METAR, the ceiling at Portage La Prairie at 1600Z, is:

a)

Measured by aircraft at 3005 ft

b)

1500 ft. in smog

c)

Broken at 2000 ft

d)

Broken at 3500 ft

34.

METAR CYPG 221600Z 11007KT 15SM BKN020 BKN035 09/04 A3005 RMK SC5SC2 SLP 182


With reference to the above METAR, the wind is _________, with a dew point of _________.

a)

110 degrees true at 7 knots, 9 degrees Celsius

b)

110 degrees magnetic at 7 knots, 9 degrees Celsius

c)

110 degrees true at 7 knots, 4 degrees Celsius

d)

110 degrees magnetic at 7 knots, 4 degrees Celsius

35.

TAF CYPG 221547Z 221616 VRB03KT P6SM SCT020 TEMPO 1622 BKN020 BECMG 2224 13012KT

FM0400Z 12015KT P6SM BKN010 OVC 100

FM0800Z 12015G25KT 2SM -RA BR OVC007 BECMG 0911 10025G35KT FM1400Z 20015G25KT 2SM -SHRA BR OVC008 RMK NXT FCST BY 19Z=


With reference to the above TAF, Portage La Prairie after 0800Z should be:

a)

VFR with light rain

b)

IFR with light rain and overcast ceiling of 700 ft

c)

VFR with 7000 ft ceiling

d)

VFR with ceilings between 900 and 1100 ft

36.

What does BR mean?

a)

Mist

b)

Bright

c)

Broken

d)

Fog

37.

A pilot shall not fly an aircraft within the period of _________ hours after donating blood.

a)

12

b)

48

c)

24

d)

8

38.

What is the VHF emergency frequency?

a)

123.45 MHz

b)

121.50 MHz

c)

234.00 MHz

d)

123.00 MHz

39.

An aircraft flying VFR from west to east in Canada at an altitude below 18,000 ft ASL (but above 3000 ft.) shall fly _________.

a)

odd thousands

b)

even thousands

c)

odd thousands plus 500 ft

d)

even thousands plus 500 ft

40.

Lines drawn on a chart joining places having the same variation are called _________.

a)

isobaric lines

b)

isogonic lines

c)

agonic lines

d)

rhumb lines