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Worksheets

PBS Exam Review

Total questions: 154

Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
2.

This person conducts a gross exam.

a)

chemist

b)

pathologist

c)

medical examiner

d)

histologist

3.

What is the correct order of organization?

a)

molecule - tissue - organ system - organ

b)

tissue - molecule - cell - organ - organ system

c)

organism - organ - organ system - tissue

d)

cell - tissue - organ - organ system - organism

4.

What is the fluid portion of the blood called?

a)

Plasma

b)

Serum

c)

Erythrocyte

d)

Thrombocyte

5.

What is another name for white blood cells?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Thrombocytes

d)

Plasma

6.

This blood type has all three antigens on its surface.

a)

AB+

b)

O+

c)

A-

d)

B-

7.
The drop shown above would have more than likely been dropped from an angle of 
a)
90
b)
50
c)
30
d)
10
8.

Someone with Type A blood also has...

a)

Type A antibodies

b)

Type B antibodies

c)

both Type A & B antibodies

d)

neither Type A nor B antibodies

9.

Which blood type is known as the universal donor? (can be used by all)

a)

AB +

b)

AB -

c)

O+

d)

O-

10.

Which blood type is known as the universal recipient? (can receive all types)

a)

AB+

b)

AB-

c)

O+

d)

O-

11.

This test shows results for which blood type?

a)

B+

b)

B-

c)

A+

d)

A-

12.

Jason is rushed to the hospital after losing blood from a work related accident. The lab determines that he has AB- blood type. Select the types of blood that Jason can receive in a blood transfusion.

a)

O+

b)

AB+

c)

B+

d)

A-

e)

O-

13.
What are the four patterns to search for evidence
a)
spiral, round, linear, quadrant
b)
grid, round, linear, zone
c)
spiral, grid, quadrant, no pattern
d)
spiral, grid, linear, quadrant
14.
Define the "Locard's Principle."
a)
the scientific examination of evidence in a criminal investigation
b)
states that criminals always take a trace of something with them or leave a trace of something behind at the scene of the crime
c)
a type of evidence
d)
the person who runs the Locard School
15.

Which of the following is a type of individual physical evidence?

a)

fingerprint

b)

blood

c)

glass

d)

fibers

16.
Refers to small evidence like hairs of fibers
a)
physical evidence
b)
trace evidence
c)
suspect
d)
witness
17.

Which of the following is used so a reader can understand the symbols used in the sketch?

a)

Scale

b)

Compass

c)

Legend

d)

Notation

18.

Which is in order from largest to smallest structure?

a)

chromosome, DNA strand, gene, nucleotide

b)

chromosome, gene, DNA strand, nucleotide

c)

gene, DNA strand, chromosome, nucleotide

d)

DNA strand, chromosome, gene, nucleotide

19.

What are the parts of a nucleotide?

a)

phosphate, sugar, base

b)

A, T, G, C

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

two base pairs connected

20.

The 'backbone' or 'ribbon' of the DNA strand is made of:

a)

phosphate and sugar

b)

phosphate only

c)

phosphate and base

d)

sugar and base

21.

Hydrogen bonds occur:

a)

on the ribbon (between the sugar)

b)

between the bases

c)

only between A & T

d)

only between G & C

22.

Medulla

a)

Outside covering of hair

b)

Deepest layer of hair containing large cells and air spaces

c)

Layer of flattened cells located deep to the cuticle but superficial to the medulla

d)

Muscle attached to the hair follicle.

23.

B

a)

Cuticle

b)

Hair Follicle

c)

medulla

d)

Cortex

24.

What is the name of this minutiae?

a)

Bifurcation

b)

Splitting Ridge

c)

Delta

d)

Y

25.

What is the name of this minutiae?

a)

Enclosure/Eye

b)

Island

c)

Dot

d)

Bifurcation

26.

What is the name of this minutiae?

a)

Bridge

b)

Junction

c)

Connector

d)

Zigzag

27.

What type of fingerprint is shown in the diagram below?

a)

arch

b)

whorl

c)

loop

28.
65% of the population has this type of pattern
a)
loops
b)
whorls
c)
arches
d)
ripples
29.

Polygraph is popularly known as

a)

Blood Test

b)

Truth Detector

c)

Lie Detector

d)

Psychology Test

30.

This professional does not necessarily have a degree.

a)

Medical Examiner

b)

respiratory therapist

c)

Pathologist

d)

Coroner

31.

Many different tissues working together to perform a similar function in the body.

a)

organ system

b)

organ

c)

cell

d)

molecule

32.

The smallest unit capable of carrying out life functions.

a)

organ

b)

tissue

c)

cell

d)

molecule

33.

How many chambers are in the human heart?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

34.

How many oxygenated chambers are in the human heart?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

35.

Veins carry blood _____ the heart.

a)

toward

b)

away from

c)

near

d)

outside

36.

What is the purpose of valves in the heart?

a)

to push blood forward

b)

to prevent blood from flowing backwards

c)

to carry oxygenated blood to the body

d)

to carry deoxygenated blood to the heart

37.

What is the effect of narrowed arteries on a person's blood flow and pressure?

a)

increased blood flow and increased pressure

b)

increased blood flow and decreased pressure

c)

decreased blood flow and increased pressure

d)

decreased blood flow and decreased pressure

38.

The right side of the heart contains _____ blood and the left side of the heart contains _____ blood.

a)

oxygenated; deoxygenated

b)

deoxygenated; oxygenated

c)

deoxygenated; deoxygenated

d)

oxygenated; oxygenated

39.

Identify what structure is outlined in the BLACK outline.

a)

Base pair

b)

deoxyribose sugar

c)

phosphate group

d)

hydrogen bonds

e)

Nucleotide

40.

Identify what structure is outlined in the BLACK outline.

a)

Base pair

b)

deoxyribose sugar

c)

phosphate group

d)

hydrogen bonds

e)

Nucleotide

41.

The process that causes the muscles in the body to stiffen resulting in rigidity after death is called

a)

algor mortis

b)

rigor mortis

c)

livor mortis

42.
The cooling of body temperature after death is:
a)
algor mortis
b)
livor mortis
c)
rigor mortis
d)
pallor mortis
43.

The thickest chamber and is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to tissues all over the body.

a)

left atrium

b)

right atrium

c)

left ventricle

d)

right ventricle

44.

What is the correct order of organization?

a)

molecule - tissue - organ system - organ

b)

tissue - molecule - cell - organ - organ system

c)

organism - organ - organ system - tissue

d)

cell - tissue - organ - organ system - organism

45.
No insulin is produced
a)
Type 1
b)
Type 2
46.
The organ responsible for producing both insulin and glucagon is...
a)
Liver
b)
Heart
c)
Pancreas
d)
Gallbladder
47.

What is the function of insulin?

a)

diagnose diabetes

b)

turn glucose into energy

c)

help glucose enter the cells of the body

d)

all choices

48.

Type 2 diabetes is...

a)

something you only have as a child

b)

genetic (you get it from your parents)

c)

when you can eat lots of sweets

d)

caused by eating too much and not exercising

49.

The pancreas releases insulin when:

a)

Stress hormones rise

b)

Blood glucose levels get low

c)

A person exercise

d)

Blood glucose levels rise after eating

50.

During digestion, ________ are broken down into _________ which provides ________ for the cells.

a)

Fats, amino acids, oxygen

b)

Fibers, fatty acids, free radicals

c)

Carbohydrates, glucose, energy

d)

Proteins, sugar, fuel

51.

The type of feedback used in response to diabetes is...

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

52.

This sends a signal that glucose should be allowed to enter cells.

a)

Glucose Transport Protein

b)

Insulin joining up with an insulin receptor

c)

Glucose passing through a protein

d)

None of these

53.

What type of macromolecule does diabetes primarily involve?

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Lipids

54.

Which of these would NOT occur as a result of Type 1 Diabetes?

a)

Insulin joins up with an insulin receptor.

b)

Glucose enters a cell through glucose transport proteins.

c)

The pancreas would release normal amounts of insulin.

d)

All of these

55.

Joe is 15 years old. He normally plays football any time he can, but lately says he is too tired. Even though he is more hungry and thirsty than usual and is eating and drinking more, he has lost a significant amount of weight. He most likely has:

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)

Type 2 diabetes

c)

Gestational diabetes

d)

Pre-diabetes

56.

How do type 1 and type 2 diabetes differ?

Question options:

a)

Type 1 diabetes usually develops in childhood or at a young age.

b)

Type 2 diabetes causes difficulty in the body's use of insulin.

c)

Both of the above

d)

Neither of the above

57.

Why can't the pancreas make insulin in type 1 diabetes?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

58.

Once a person has type 1 diabetes

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

59.

When glucose is less able to enter the cells and supply energy, it's called

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

60.

The nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should expect the following symptoms during an assessment, except:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Frequent bruising

c)

Ketonuria

d)

Dry mouth

61.
The "cause" for something to happen is the
a)
response
b)
effect
c)
stimulus
d)
homeostasis
62.
What type of feedback loop is shown?
a)
Positive
b)
Neutral
c)
Negative
63.
Negative Feedback Loops:
a)
amplify processes
b)
prevent small changes from getting larger
c)
are initiated during childbirth
d)
are found only in plants
64.

According to the feedback loop, what does high blood sugar promote?

a)

Insulin Release

b)

Glucagon Release

c)

Insulin Uptake

d)

Glycogen Uptake

65.

What is homeostasis?

a)

Chemical reactions that happen in the body

b)

Maintaining a constant internal environment

c)

How information is passed to the next generation

d)

The process of change and development

66.

In Homeostasis: the normal fasting blood glucose concentration is

a)

50-60 mg/dl

b)

80-90 mg/dl

c)

110-120 mg/dl

67.

Any living thing...

a)

is an abiotic factor

b)

contains DNA

c)

moves

68.

At a doctor's appointment, a one month old baby weighs 8 lbs and is 18 inches long. That baby was 7 lbs and 17 inches long at birth. This is an example of...

a)

all living things being made of cells

b)

all living things maintaining homeostasis

c)

all living things growing and developing

d)

all living things responding to stimuli

69.
The two kinds of cells are Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. How are they different?
a)
Prokaryotes have a nucleus.
b)
Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
c)
Prokaryotes are plant cells.
d)
There is no difference.
70.

below another part of the body

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

distal

d)

proximal

71.

close to point of attachment

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

distal

d)

proximal

72.

toward side of the body

a)

ventral

b)

dorsal

c)

medial

d)

lateral

73.

Body laying face up

a)

prone

b)

supine

c)

superior

d)

inferior

74.

What body plane is this?

a)

Transverse

b)

Midsagittal

c)

Coronal

d)

Air

75.

Divides the body into front and back portions.

a)

Sagittal

b)

Frontal

c)

Transverse

76.

The scapular region is ______ to the vertebral region

a)

Medial

b)

Distal

c)

Superior

d)

Lateral

77.
A group of tissues that perform a similar function is called_____. (Examples include the heart, lungs or stomach)
a)
cells
b)
tissues
c)
organs
d)
organ system
78.
What is the correct order of organization
a)
tissues-cells-organs-organ systems-organism
b)
cell-tissue-organs-organ systems-organism
c)
organism-cells-tissues-organ systems-organism
d)
tissues-cells-organs-organ sytems-organism
79.

What percentage of blood does plasma make up?

a)

45%

b)

55%

c)

1%

d)

10%

80.

Portion of blood consisting of WBC's and platelets in a sample of centrifused blood

a)

Hematocrit

b)

Buffy coat

c)

Buffy the vampire slayer

d)

Plasma

81.

Which pathogen is non-living?

a)

Virus

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Parasite/Protist

e)

They are all alive

82.

Which pathogen is treated with antibiotics?

a)

virus

b)

bacteria

c)

parasite

d)

fungi

83.
Which is not an infectious disease?
a)
Malaria
b)

Diabetes

c)

Tetanus

d)

Measles

84.

Which is distinction between an epidemic and a pandemic?

a)

the symptoms of the disease

b)

the geographical area affected

c)

the species of organisms infected

d)

the season in which the disease spreads

85.

How is the prevention of an epidemic different from the prevention of a pandemic?

a)

Preventing an epidemic requires the use of antibiotics, while preventing a pandemic requires the use of vaccines.

b)

Preventing a pandemic requires uninfected and infected people to wash their hands, while preventing an epidemic requires people to wear gloves.

c)

Preventing a pandemic requires vaccinating large numbers of people dispersed over a wide geographic area, while an epidemic requires vaccinating fewer people spread over a smaller area.

d)

Preventing an epidemic requires vaccinating large numbers of people spread over a wide geographic area, while a pandemic requires vaccinating fewer people spread over a smaller area.

86.

What are the 4 types of pathogens that could cause illness?

a)

animals, bacteria, fungi and plants

b)

bacteria, fungi, nucleus, parasites

c)

bacteria, fungi, viruses, parasites

d)

bacteria, plants, fungi, parasites

87.
During the lytic infection by a virus, the host cell is-
a)
destroyed
b)
copied
c)
passed on to the lysogenic cycle
d)
not affected
88.
The capsid of a virus protects the virus from the external environment. What structure is this similar to in a plant cell?
a)
ribosome
b)
cell membrane
c)
vacuole
d)
cell wall
89.
What feature do viruses have in common with animal cells?
a)
ability to form proteins at the ribosomes
b)
existence of lipids in cell membranes
c)
presence of genetic code in nucleic acid
d)
production of energy by a mitochondrion
90.
Which viral life cycle allows viral genetic material to lay dormant while the host cell reproduces?
a)
lytic
b)
mitosis
c)
lysogenic
d)
S phase
91.

When a virus binds to the cell membrane of a host cell.

a)

Attachment

b)

Entry

c)

Replication

d)

Assembly

e)

Lysis and Release

92.

When new viruses burst out of a host cell.

a)

Attachment

b)

Entry

c)

Replication

d)

Assembly

e)

Lysis and Release

93.
What is the best way to prevent nosocomial infections?
a)
Antibiotics
b)
Handwashing
c)
Clean sheets
d)
Having the patient wear a mask
94.

Infections acquired in healthcare settings are called?

a)

a lawsuit

b)

unhygienic

c)

nosocomial

d)

nasopharyngeal

95.
What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
96.
What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
97.
What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
98.
Structure B is pointing to the _____. 
a)
chromosome
b)
centromere
c)
DNA
d)
chromatid
99.

Identify letter "a" in the image.

a)

prophase

b)

G1

c)

interphase

d)

telophase

100.

The --------------------- cells undergo Mitosis while the --------- undergo Meiosis

a)

(A) Somatic or body ; Gametes

b)

(B) Gametes; Somatic or body cells

c)

(C) Gametes; Gametes

d)

(D) Somatic or Body cells; Somatic or Body cells

101.

Two identical chromatids are called...

a)

Daughter Chromatids

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Brother Chromatids

d)

Twin Chromatids

102.

Meiosis results in ------------ While Mitosis resuls in ---------

a)

(A) 2 haploid daughter cells and 2 haploid daughter cells

b)

(B) 4 haploid daughter cells and 2 diploid daughter cells

c)

(C) 2 diploid daughter cells and 4 haploid daughter cells

d)

(D) 4 diploid daugther cells and 2 haloid daughter cells

103.

What crosses over in Meiosis I?

a)

Homologous chromosomes

b)

Sister chromatids

104.

Forms four cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

105.

What is this picture of?

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Chromatids

c)

Chromatin

d)

Centromeres

106.

If parent cell is 32N, what is the ploidy of the haploid daughter cell?

a)

32N

b)

16N

c)

0N

d)

18N

107.
How many chromosomes do humans have?
a)
46-- 23 from mom, 23 from dad
b)
22--11 from mom, 11 from dad
c)
10-- 5 from mom, 5 from dad
d)
23
108.
How many stages are in mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
109.

Produces diploid cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

110.

Stem Cells are

a)

specialized

b)

Not specialized

c)

differentiated

111.

One nucleotide base is changed so only one amino acid

is affected

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Inverse Mutation

112.

A point mutation where one nucleotide base replaces an original nucleotide base

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Chromosomal Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Substitution Mutation

113.

A mutation that results in an amino acid change

a)

Translocation

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Expressed Mutation

114.

A nucleotide base is inserted or deleted shifting the entire DNA sequence. Entire protein will be changed.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

d)

Translocation

115.

A frameshift mutation where a nucleotide base

is removed from the DNA sequence.

a)

Deletion Mutation

b)

Substitution Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Silent Mutation

116.

Mutations that involve parts of or all of

a chromosome

a)

Replication

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Chromosomal Mutation

d)

Transcription

117.
What causes mutations?
a)
Mistakes in replication or environmental substances
b)
The amino acids
c)
Passed down by genetics
d)
It's how your born
118.

True or false, mutations create genetic diversity?

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

120.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

121.

A string of nucleotides that contain the information to make a specific protein

a)

Ribose

b)

Amino Acids

c)

tRNA

d)

Gene

122.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

123.

How many amino acids are found on one tRNA?

a)

20

b)

4

c)

1

d)

3

124.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
125.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
126.

There are 3 types of RNA. What are they? (Select all that apply)

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

xRNA

127.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
128.

The molecule copied directly from DNA is represented by number .

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

129.

Structure number 2 represents a ___.

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

ribosome

130.

The bond represented by number 5 is a ___ bond.

a)

covalent

b)

hydrogen

c)

ionic

d)

peptide

131.

The sequence of ___ in a DNA molecule determines the protein that will produced.

a)

Lipids

b)

nucleotides

c)

proteins

d)

sugars

132.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
133.

What's in the picture?

a)

mRNA

b)

amino acids

c)

tRNA

d)

Codon

e)

ribosome

134.

What's in the picture?

a)

mRNA

b)

amino acids

c)

tRNA

d)

Codons

e)

ribosome

135.

The _________ is the organelle in a cell which synthesizes proteins by joining amino acids together.

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

DNA

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

136.

Cancer can be defined as ___________ tumors that invade other tissues and spread to other parts of the body in a process called ____________.

a)

benign; mitosis

b)

malignant; metastasis

c)

malignant; interphase

d)

benign; replication

137.
What is is called when a tumor proves to be NON cancerous?
a)

malignant

b)

benign

c)

oncogene

d)

byogene

138.

Mass of rapidly dividing cells that can damage surrounding tissue.

a)

growth factor

b)

human growth hormone

c)

cancer

d)

tumor

139.
When cancer spreads to other tissues of the body, it is called...
a)

Metastasis

b)

Invasiveness

c)

Angiogenesis

d)

Chemotherapy

140.

A ________________is a critical point where stop and go signals can regulate the cycle

a)

tumor

b)

checkpoint

c)

growth factor

d)

oncogene

141.

Cell programmed self destruction is called

a)

Atopic

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Antiparallel

d)

Anticellular

142.

Measured in millimeters of mercury

a)

Oxygen saturation

b)

BMI

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Blood pressure

143.

Measured using a pulse oximeter

a)

Oxygen saturation

b)

BMI

c)

Pulse

d)

Respiratory rate

144.

Measured in degrees Fahrenheit or Celsius

a)

Weight

b)

Oxygen saturation

c)

BMI

d)

Body temperature

145.

Measured in breaths per minute

a)

Pulse

b)

Respiratory rate

c)

Lung sounds

d)

Weight

146.

Measured in beats per minute

a)

Pulse

b)

Respiratory rate

c)

BMI

d)

Body temperature

147.

Tool used to measure blood pressure

a)

Stethoscope

b)

Calculator

c)

Pulse oximeter

d)

Sphygmomanometer

148.

What is a typical healthy person's systolic pressure around?

a)

120

b)

100

c)

80

d)

60

149.

What is a typical healthy individual's diastolic pressure around?

a)

50

b)

60

c)

70

d)

80

150.

What is the term for when your blood pressure rises over 140/90?

a)

Tonictension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hypotension

d)

Radialtension

151.

What is the normal range for an adult's respiratory rate?

a)

22-30 breaths per minute

b)

8-15 breaths per minute

c)

12-20 breaths per minute

d)

18-25 breaths per minute

152.

Through the __________ valve, the blood passes into the right ventricle, which pumps it out along the pulmonary artery to the lungs through the pulmonary semilunar valve to become __________.

a)

bicuspid/ oxygenated

b)

tricuspid/ oxygenated

c)

tricuspid/ deoxygenated

d)

bicuspid/ deoxygenated

153.
True or False: Blood flows in the following sequence in the heart: Superior vena cava/Inferior vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic valve, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta
a)
True
b)
False
154.
Rh factor → A red blood cell surface antigen, first discovered in rhesus monkeys, that is a crucial consideration in blood transfusions.
a)
True
b)
False

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