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WorksheetsModule 6 - Green PACOP MicroBio 201-300
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
It is an indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host:
a)
Virulence
b)
Pathogenicity
c)
Attenuation
d)
In vitro growth rates
2.
The two major components of virulence include:
a)
Invasiveness and toxigenicity mechanisms
b)
Adherence factors and antiphagocytic
c)
Intracellular and extracellular survival
d)
Capsules and spreading factors
3.
The bacterial toxin that attaches to the presynaptic terminals of cholinergic nerves, where it blocks the release of acetycholine, is produced by:
a)
Bacillus anthracis
b)
Clostridium tetani
c)
Clostridium botulinum
d)
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
4.
The bacterial toxin that causes cessation of mammalian protein synthesis by inactivating EF-2 of eukaryotic cells is produced by:
a)
Bacillus anthracis
b)
Clostridium tetani
c)
Clostridium botulinum
d)
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
5.
The bacterium that produces a toxin that activates adenylate cyclase, resulting in accumulation of cyclic AMP in the epithelial cells of the mucosal lining, is:
a)
Escherichia coli
b)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
c)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d)
Staphylococcus aureus
6.
The following statements are true about endotoxins, except:
a)
They are also known as lipopolysaccharides.
b)
They are integral part of the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
c)
They are normally not as toxic as bacterial exotoxins.
d)
Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving.
7.
The following structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora, except:
a)
Teeth
b)
Urethra
c)
Bronchi
d)
Skin
8.
The region of the body that contains the largest population of microbial flora:
a)
Skin
b)
Colon
c)
Vagina
d)
Mouth
9.
Vancomycin is produced naturally from:
a)
Strep. nodosus
b)
Strep. orientalis
c)
Strep. griseus
d)
Strep. orchidaceous
10.
Polymixin is produced from:
a)
Bacillus subtilis
b)
Bacillus cereus
c)
Bacillus polymyxa
d)
Bacillus anthracis
11.
The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in microorganisms, except:
a)
Aminoglycosides
b)
Tetracyclines
c)
Lincomycin
d)
Cephalosporins
12.
Certain bacterial strains are resistant to the bactericidal activity of the Penicillins and the Cephalosporins, although the growth of the organism is inhibited. This phenomenon (tolerance) is related to a defect or a deficiency of:
a)
Plasmid that codes for penicillinase
b)
Cellular growth rates
c)
Autolytic enzymes
d)
Certain cytochromes
13.
Nystatin is produced naturally from:
a)
Strep. nodosus
b)
Strep.noursei
c)
Strep. griseus
d)
Strep. natalensis
14.
This antibiotic has been found to be toxic, so its use has been limited only for the treatment of TB:
a)
Penicillin
b)
Bacitracin
c)
Vancomycin
d)
Cycloserine
15.
Aplastic anemia is a rare but usually fatal side effect associated with the use of this antibiotic:
a)
Gentamicin
b)
Chloramphenicol
c)
Bacitracin
d)
Polymixin
16.
It refers to the killing of many, but not all microorganisms:
a)
Sterilization
b)
Disinfection
c)
Antisepsis
d)
Asepsis
17.
It is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice:
a)
Chlorine
b)
Merthiolate
c)
Hydrogen peroxide
d)
Iodine
18.
This chemical agent is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat sensitive materials. It kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids:
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Formaldehyde
c)
Acids and alkalis
d)
Hydrogen peroxide
19.
It is the method of choice in sterilizing heat sensitive solutions:
a)
Autoclave
b)
Filtration
c)
Radiation
d)
Pasteurization
20.
This disinfectant is useful in preventing gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum among infants whose patients have Gonorrhea:
a)
Merthiolate
b)
Mercurochrome
c)
Silver sulfadiazine
d)
Silver nitrate
21.
The following are milk-borne pathogens, except:
a)
Mycobaterium bovis
b)
Salmonella
c)
Streptococcus
d)
Clostridium
22.
Which is the best method to sterilize Penicillin solution?
a)
Autoclaving
b)
Dry heat (oven)
c)
Ethylene oxide
d)
Filtration
23.
The DTP vaccine is composed of which of the following:
a)
Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
b)
Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c)
Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
d)
Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa
24.
The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of:
a)
L-glutamic acid
b)
D-glutamic acid
c)
Polysaccharide
d)
Nucleic acid
25.
Bacillus anthracis possesses all of the following characteristic, except:
a)
It is a large, gram-positive rod
b)
It is a spore-former.
c)
It produces a potent exotoxin composed of three antigenically distinct thermolabile proteins.
d)
It can live inside phagocytic cells.
26.
Listeria monocytogenes has all of the following characteristics, except:
a)
It is a spore-former.
b)
It can live inside phagocytic cells.
c)
It is a short, gram-positive rod
d)
It is actively motile.
27.
The most important anti-phagocytic structure of the Group A streptococci:
a)
M protein
b)
Group A carbohydrate
c)
Hyaluronic acid capsule
d)
Protein A
28.
The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus:
a)
Gram staining
b)
Catalase test
c)
Coagulase test
d)
Hemolysis test
29.
An example of a streptococcal disease sequela:
a)
Scarlet fever
b)
Pharyngitis
c)
Puerperal sepsis
d)
Rheumatic fever
30.
The group A streptococci serotype most commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis:
a)
2
b)
7
c)
12
d)
19
31.
The Streptococcus most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis:
a)
Streptococcus pyogenes
b)
Viridans streptococci
c)
Streptococcus agalactiae
d)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
32.
Which of the following does not influence the virulence of Neisseria gonorrhea?
a)
Polysaccharide capsule
b)
Genus-specific protein
c)
Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin
d)
Production of IgA protease
33.
Neisseria are all:
a)
Gram positive
b)
Anaerobes
c)
Coagulase positive
d)
Oxidase positive
34.
In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitidis may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhea by:
a)
Its characteristic morphology and gram stain
b)
Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium
c)
The presence of pili
d)
Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate
35.
The most important mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multicoda from animals to humans:
a)
Blood-sucking arthropods
b)
Contact with contaminated urine
c)
Contact with contaminated feces
d)
Handling of infected tissues
e)
Animal bites and scratches
36.
Which of the following statements is true about whooping cough?
a)
Infants under the age of 3 months are not susceptible.
b)
The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract.
c)
Immunity is conferred by killer T cells that recognize cell wall M antigen.
d)
All of the above
37.
Tularemia may occur in:
a)
Ulderoglandular form
b)
Oculoglandular form
c)
Pulmonary form
d)
All of the above
38.
The intestinal tract is the only natural habitat of this lactose fermenting, facultative anaerobic, nosocomial pathogen:
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Klebsiella pneumoniae
c)
Proteus vulgaris
d)
Escherichia coli
39.
A gram negative, non-motile rod that produces a large mucoid colony on agar medium was isolated from a chronically ill patient who died of pneumonia. This organism probably belongs to the genus:
a)
Klebsiella
b)
Pseudomonas
c)
Proteus
d)
Serratia
40.
A gram-negative rod was isolated from the urine of a patient suspected of having a UTI. The organism is lactose negative, urease positive and motile. It most likely belongs to the genus:
a)
Proteus
b)
Escherichia
c)
Serratia
d)
Klebsiella
41.
Leprosy may manifest itself as:
a)
Lepromatous leprosy
b)
Tuberculoid leprosy
c)
A and B
d)
B and C
42.
Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following, except:
a)
Cutaneous lesions
b)
Onset is 4 weeks or more after chancre
c)
Mucous membrane lesions
d)
Absence of spirochetes in the lesions
43.
The diagnosis of early syphilis is best made by:
a)
Inoculating guinea pigs with lesion material and examining blood smears 3 days later
b)
Culture on chocolate agar and incubated with 10% carbon dioxide
c)
The VDRL test
d)
Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present
44.
The smallest known free-living microorganism is:
a)
Viruses
b)
Mycoplasma species
c)
Rickettsia
d)
Chlamydiae
45.
The growing stage of a protozoan parasite is:
a)
Sporozoite
b)
Trophozoite
c)
Merozoite
d)
Cysts
46.
A class in which only parasitic forms occur:
a)
Sarcodina
b)
Mastigophora
c)
Ciliata
d)
Sporozoa
47.
In which of the following the eggs of parasitic worms can be found:
a)
Stool
b)
Urine
c)
Sputum
d)
All of the above
e)
None of the above
48.
Which of the following techniques is used in quantitative estimations of infections with parasitic worms?
a)
Formalin-ether
b)
Kato thick smear
c)
Stool dilution
d)
A and B
e)
B and C
49.
Blastocyctis hominis is a:
a)
Zooparasite
b)
Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst
c)
New name for Enatamoeba coli
d)
Bacteria
50.
The findings of ingested red blood cells in a trophozoite practically identifies:
a)
Entamoeba coli
b)
Entamoeba histolytica
c)
Dientamoeba fragilis
d)
Endolimax nana
51.
Actively motile trophozoite with directional motility and contains ingested red blood cells:
a)
Entamoeba coli
b)
Entamoeba histolytica
c)
Dientamoeba fragilis
d)
Endolimax nana
52.
Trophozoite with nucleus seen without difficulty in fresh, unstained preparation:
a)
Entamoeba coli
b)
Entamoeba histolytica
c)
Dientamoeba fragilis
d)
Endolimax nana
53.
Cysts of this organism contains 1-4 nuclei:
a)
Entamoeba coli
b)
Entamoeba histolytica
c)
Dientamoeba fragilis
d)
Endolimax nana
54.
The chromatoid bodies of this organism appear as cigar-shaped or sausage-shaped:
a)
Entamoeba coli
b)
Entamoeba histolytica
c)
Dientamoeba fragilis
d)
Endolimax nana
55.
Cysts of this organism are usually without glycogen vacuoles (Iodine cysts):
a)
Entamoeba coli
b)
Entamoeba histolytica
c)
Dientamoeba fragilis
d)
Endolimax nana
56.
In clinical cases of malaria, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is:
a)
The period just before a paroxysm
b)
At the beginning of a paroxysm
c)
During the late paroxysmal stage
d)
The period just following a paroxysm
57.
Definitive host of human malarial parasites:
a)
Any domestic animal
b)
Anopheles mosquito
c)
Man
d)
B and C
58.
The sexual cycle is the:
a)
Sporogony
b)
Schizogony
c)
Either B or C
d)
Neither B nor C
59.
Eosinophilic stippling of erythrocytes (Schauffer.s dots) is often seen in infections with:
a)
Plasmodium vivax
b)
Plasmodium malariae
c)
Plasmodium falciparum
d)
Plasmodium ovale
60.
As a rule, only rings and crescent-shaped gametocytes are observed in peripheral blood, which includes:
a)
Plasmodium vivax
b)
Plasmodium malariae
c)
Plasmodium falciparum
d)
Plasmodium ovale
61.
The malarial parasite that enlarges red blood cells:
a)
Plasmodium vivax
b)
Plasmodium malariae
c)
Plasmodium falciparum
d)
Plasmodium ovale
62.
Man may acquire Toxoplasma from:
a)
Mice
b)
Cats
c)
Dogs
d)
Pigs
63.
Toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by:
a)
Stool examination
b)
Thin blood film
c)
Flourescent antibody tests
d)
Intradermal test
64.
Toxoplasma is probably transmitted to man by:
a)
Bite of the vector insect
b)
In the body of the parasitic nematode
c)
Ingestion of a resistant oocyst
d)
Ingestion of infected food
65.
The posterior part of this parasite has a twisted appearance:
a)
Chilomastix mesnili
b)
Giardia lamblia
c)
Trichomonas hominis
d)
Retortamonas
66.
An axostyle is present in this organism:
a)
Plasmodium vivax
b)
Plasmodium malariae
c)
Plasmodium falciparum
d)
Plasmodium ovale
67.
Trophozoite that resembles “old man’s eyeglasses”:
a)
Plasmodium vivax
b)
Plasmodium malariae
c)
Plasmodium falciparum
d)
Plasmodium ovale
68.
This organism has lemon-shaped cysts:
a)
Plasmodium vivax
b)
Plasmodium malariae
c)
Plasmodium falciparum
d)
Plasmodium ovale
69.
This causes visceral leishmaniasis:
a)
Leishmania donovani
b)
Leishmania braziliensis
c)
Leishmania tropica
d)
Trypanosoma cruzi
70.
The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection:
a)
Dog
b)
Cat
c)
Pig
d)
Cattle
71.
A viviparous organism:
a)
Ascaris lumbricoides
b)
Trichenella spiralis
c)
Hookworm
d)
Pinworm
72.
Which of the following neither lay eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal canal?
a)
Hookworm
b)
Pinworm
c)
Trichinella spiralis
d)
Trichuris trichiura
73.
“Old world” hookworm:
a)
Necator americanus
b)
Ancylostoma duodenale
c)
Ancylostoma caninum
d)
Toxocara canis
74.
This organism causes tropical elephantiasis:
a)
Loa loa
b)
Onchocerca volvulus
c)
Wucheria bancrofti
d)
Dracunculus medinensis
75.
The presence of mammillated eggs or the large adult worm in the stool identifies this organism:
a)
Trichuris trichiura
b)
Enterobius vermicularis
c)
Ascaris lumbricoides
d)
Strongyloides stercoralis
76.
The adult form of this organism has a whip-like anterior portion:
a)
Enterobius vermicularis
b)
Trichuris trichiura
c)
Ascaris lumbricoides
d)
Trichinella spiralis
77.
The eggs of this organism are most likely to be found through anal swabs or cellophane tape:
a)
Enterobius vermicularis
b)
Trichuris trichiura
c)
Ascaris lumbricoides
d)
Trichinella spiralis
78.
Visceral larva migrans is acquired by ingesting eggs of a nematode parasite of:
a)
Pig
b)
Monkey
c)
Dog
d)
Cat
79.
Filariform larva that can penetrate through the skin:
a)
Enterobius vermicularis
b)
Strongyloides stercoralis
c)
Hookworm
d)
A and B
e)
B and C
80.
Finding the rhabditiform larva in the stool identifies this organism:
a)
Hookworm
b)
Whipworm
c)
Pinworm
d)
Ascaris lumbricoides
e)
Strongyloides stercoralis
81.
Eggs in the 2-8 cell stage of development often appear in the stool in infections with
a)
Whipworm
b)
Hookworm
c)
Pinworm
d)
Large intestinal roundworm
82.
The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans:
a)
Hymenolepsis nana
b)
Hymenolepsis diminuta
c)
Dipylidium caninum
d)
Taenia solium
83.
The fish tapeworm that can be acquired by eating insufficiently cooked, infected fish:
a)
Taenia solium
b)
Dipyllobotrium latum
c)
Echinococcus granulosus
d)
Taenia saginata
e)
Dipylidium caninum
84.
The adult form of this tapeworm has only four segments:
a)
Taenia solium
b)
Dipyllobotrium latum
c)
Echinococcus granulosus
d)
Taenia saginata
e)
Dipylidium caninum
85.
The eggs of this worm are operculated:
a)
Taenia solium
b)
Taenia saginata
c)
Dipyllobotrium latum
d)
Dipylidium caninum
86.
Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth, which contain this organism:
a)
Fasciola hepatica
b)
Fasciolopsis buski
c)
Paragonimus weatermani
d)
Chlonorchis sinensis
87.
This causes Egyptian hematuria:
a)
Schistosoma hematobium
b)
Schistosoma japonicum
c)
Schistosoma mansoni
d)
Fasciola hepatica
88.
The eggs of this organism has a rudimentary lateral spine:
a)
Schistosoma hematobium
b)
Schistosoma japonicum
c)
Schistosoma mansoni
d)
Fasciola hepatica
89.
This organism is acquired by eating infected raw fish:
a)
Fasciola hepatica
b)
Fasciolopsis buski
c)
Paragonimus weatermani
d)
Chlonorchis sinensis
90.
This is also known as the Oriental ling fluke:
a)
Fasciola hepatica
b)
Fasciolopsis buski
c)
Paragonimus weatermani
d)
Chlonorchis sinensis
91.
The presence of cryoglobulins in the serum of a patient may indicate that the patient has:
a)
Anemia
b)
Circulating immune complexes
c)
Hashimotos’s thyroiditis
d)
Pernicious anemia
92.
The Coomb’s test is the most important laboratory method in the diagnosis of:
a)
Myasthenia gravis
b)
Waldenstrom’s macroglubilemia
c)
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
d)
Rheumatoid arthritis
93.
The most important antibody that plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus is:
a)
Antibody thyroglobuin
b)
Antibody to mitochondria
c)
Antibody to DNA
d)
Antibody to smooth muscle
94.
In the syndrome of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:
a)
Streptococcal nucleases and streptolysin accumulate in the glomerular basement membrane.
b)
Streptococcal capsular antigen (hyaluronic acid) and glucoronic acid subunits precipitate with antibody and are deposited in the glomeruli in lumpy patterns.
c)
Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane.
d)
Hematuria is due to the action of streptolysin O.
95.
In group A beta hemolytic streptococci, the types are determined by the antigenic specificity of:
a)
Capsule
b)
Mucopeptide layer
c)
M and/or T proteins
d)
Extracellular products such as streptolysin O, which is produced only by group A streptococci
96.
Congenital rubella can be diagnosed in a week-old infant by:
a)
Demonstration of maternal IgM antibodies against rubella virus
b)
Testing for HI antibodies specific for the virus in the infant’s serum
c)
Varicella-zoster
d)
Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant
97.
Caesarian section has been found to eliminate neonatal complications due to which of the following viruses?
a)
Varicella-zoster
b)
Cytomegalovirus
c)
Poliovirus
d)
Herpes simplex virus
98.
Dermatophytes that infect special keratinized areas of the body, skin and nails only are likely to belong to genus:
a)
Epidermophyton
b)
Trichophyton
c)
Microsporum
d)
Trichosporum
99.
A hapten is a substance that:
a)
Induces cellular immune response but not antibody production
b)
Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule
c)
Induces tolerance when given alone
d)
When coupled to a larger molecule can be recognized by B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes
100.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the “positive strand” RNA virus?
a)
The polymeranse contained in the virion is necessary in the replication.
b)
The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA.
c)
The virion RNA cannot be extracted in an infectious form.
d)
Viral messenger RNA is complementary to the virion RNA.
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