Free Printable Module 1 Green PACOP OrgChem (1-100)

1.

The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhi:

a)

Phenol number

b)

Phenol coefficient

c)

Phenol value

d)

None of the above

2.

The generic name of Nizoral:

a)

Meconazole

b)

Clotrimazole

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Potassium sorbate

3.

Sulfonamides used for burn therapy:

a)

Mafenide

b)

Silver sulfadiazine

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the preceding

4.

The following are preservatives except:

a)

undecylenic acid

b)

Methyl paraben

c)

benzoic acid

d)

potassium sorbate

5.

The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:

a)

clotrimazole

b)

miconazole

c)

co-trimoxazole

d)

cotrimazine

6.

A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:

a)

Griseofulvin

b)

Nystatin

c)

Salicylic acid

d)

Econazole

7.

Benzyl penicillin is also known as:

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Penicillin V

c)

Oxacillin

d)

Ampicillin

8.

First generation urinary tract anti-infective:

a)

salicylic acid

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Norfloxacin

d)

Nalidixic acid

9.

A fluoroquinolone:

a)

Norfloxacin

b)

Pipemedic acid

c)

Methenamine

d)

none of the above

10.

Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:

a)

Ethambutol

b)

Rifampin

c)

Isoniazid

d)

Streptomycin

11.

These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, except:

a)

Tinidazole

b)

Chloroquine

c)

Etofamide

d)

Metronidazole

12.

A fourth generation cephalosphorins:

a)

Cefaloxin

b)

Cefepime

c)

Cefamandole

d)

Cefuroxime

13.

This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:

a)

Zidovudine

b)

Chloroquine

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Metronidazole

14.

The drug of choice for typhoid fever:

a)

Chloramphenicol

b)

Lincomycin

c)

Penicillin

d)

Cephalosporins

15.

The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples:

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Lincomycin

d)

Clindamycin

16.

The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host:

a)

therapeutics

b)

chemotherapy

c)

organic chemistry

d)

biochemistry

17.

Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues:

a)

disinfectant

b)

fungicides

c)

antiseptics

d)

systemic anti-infectives

18.

A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:

a)

Povidone-Iodine

b)

Strong I2 solution

c)

Iodine Tincture

d)

I2 in KI solution

19.

The generic name of new Merthiolate is:

a)

Chorhexidine gluconate

b)

Thimerosal

c)

Mexachlorophene

d)

Benzalkonium chloride

20.

Mechanism of action of quinolones:

a)

injury to plasma membrane

b)

inhibition of DNA gyrase

c)

protein synthesis inhibition

d)

production of toxic free radicals

21.

Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines:

a)

quinolines

b)

biguanides

c)

beta-lactams

d)

quinolones

22.

7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin:

a)

clindamycin

b)

roxithromycin

c)

spectinomycin

d)

ilotycin

23.

The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria:

a)

chloroquine

b)

quinine

c)

amodiaquine

d)

cycloguanil

24.

Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:

a)

amodiaquine

b)

mefloquine

c)

atabrine

d)

daraprim

25.

An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness:

a)

suramin

b)

pentamidine

c)

efflornithine

d)

stibophen

26.

Methylated erythromycin:

a)

clarithromycin

b)

azithromycin

c)

lincomycin

d)

ilotycin

27.

A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin:

a)

Kantrex

b)

Amikin

c)

Garamycin

d)

Nebcin

28.

Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza:

a)

ribavirin

b)

rimantadine

c)

gancyclovir

d)

foscarnet

29.

More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:

a)

levo

b)

dextro

c)

cis isomer

d)

trans isomer

30.

These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective:

a)

trimethoprim

b)

sulfones

c)

quinolones

d)

none of the above

31.

Mechanism of action of thiabendazole:

a)

paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation

b)

inhibition of cell division

c)

phagocytic attack on worms

d)

decreased glucose uptake

32.

A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of appetite:

a)

Xenical

b)

Gas-X

c)

Apokinon

d)

Adifax

33.

An example of a glycine conjugation pathway:

a)

phenol to phenolsulfate

b)

benzoic acid to hippuric acid

c)

noradrenaline to epinephrine

d)

antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid

34.

The following are characteristics of active transport, except:

a)

follow saturation kinetics

b)

expenditure of energy

c)

carrier mediated

d)

higher to lower concentration gradient

35.

These anti-diarrheal tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools:

a)

adsorbents

b)

astringents

c)

anti-motility

d)

oresols

36.

This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of diphenhydramine:

a)

meclizine

b)

hyoscine

c)

dimenhydrinate

d)

celestamine

37.

The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following except:

a)

tolbutamide

b)

haloperidol

c)

nitroglycerine

d)

DDT

38.

Fertility vitamins:

a)

retinoic acid

b)

riboflavin

c)

alpha tocopherol

d)

biotin

39.

Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized from:

a)

calcitonin

b)

vitamin D2

c)

vitamin D3

d)

caltrate

40.

A metabolite of chloral hydrate:

a)

trichloroacetic acid

b)

acetaldehyde

c)

carbapenem ring

d)

phenacetone

41.

A sample drug excreted via the saliva:

a)

lidocaine

b)

sulfonamide

c)

sulfonamide

d)

thiamine

42.

A vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis:

a)

Retin-A

b)

Tegison

c)

Accutane

d)

Oilatum

43.

Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on:

a)

physical characteristics

b)

ability to bind on a specific receptor

c)

both a and c

d)

none of the above

44.

The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol:

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

45.

Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins:

a)

penicillenic acid

b)

penicilloic acid

c)

penicilloate Cl

d)

pinecillic acid

46.

Cidex:

a)

gammabenzenehexachloride

b)

glutarol

c)

hexachlorophene

d)

carbamoyl phosphate

47.

Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:

a)

activity against Pseudomonas

b)

acid stability

c)

activity against Gram (-) bacteria

d)

penicillinase resistance

48.

Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:

a)

activity against Pseudomonas

b)

acid stability

c)

activity against Gram (-) bacteria

d)

penicillinase resistance

49.

A glycopeptide antibiotic:

a)

beta-lactam

b)

vancomycin

c)

polymyxin

d)

probenecid

50.

A tumor is benign if:

a)

metastasis is evident

b)

cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and cause damage

c)

tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur

d)

cause damage to surrounding structures

51.

1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to:

a)

100,000 cancer cells

b)

1 billion cancer cells

c)

1 million cancer cells

d)

none of the above

52.

The following are mucolytics, except:

a)

bromhexine

b)

acetylcysteine

c)

caramiphen

d)

none of the above

53.

The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given:

a)

orally

b)

intravenously

c)

via inhalation

d)

rectally

54.

A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer:

a)

tamoxifen

b)

depo-provera

c)

flutamide

d)

goserelin

55.

Drug of choice for absence seizures:

a)

carbamazepine

b)

ethosuximide

c)

phenytoin

d)

primidone

56.

An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens:

a)

aspartame

b)

PCP

c)

BHT

d)

EDTA

57.

Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye:

a)

rhodomine B

b)

aluminum reagent

c)

p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol

d)

dimethylglyoxime

58.

Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora:

a)

potassium iodide

b)

tyloxapol

c)

guaiafenesin

d)

emetine

59.

Mescaline is a _________ derivative:

a)

indolethylamine

b)

phenylethylamine

c)

steroidal

d)

xanthine

60.

Anesthetic of choice for labor:

a)

halothane

b)

enflurance

c)

nitrous oxide

d)

methoxyflurane

61.

The drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine:

a)

Codeine

b)

Avamigran

c)

Litec

d)

Inderal

62.

Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma:

a)

ketamine

b)

thiopental

c)

enflurane

d)

none of the above

63.

Propionic acid derivative:

a)

paracetamol

b)

dipyrone

c)

piroxicam

d)

naproxen

64.

An example of iodophor:

a)

iodine tincture

b)

povidone-iodine

c)

Lugol’s solution

d)

all of the above

65.

Phenylmethanol:

a)

chloretone

b)

benzyl alcohol

c)

phenylalcohol

d)

carvacrol

66.

A characteristic of cancer cells:

a)

lack of normal growth controls

b)

synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase

c)

G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types

d)

None of the above

67.

Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:

a)

polychlorinated biphenyls

b)

acesulfame

c)

butylatedhydroxyanisole

d)

none of the above

68.

Prostaglandins are also known as:

a)

saturated fats

b)

compound lipids

c)

eicosanoids

d)

all of the above

69.

Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?

a)

imide

b)

amide

c)

amine

d)

aniline

70.

Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are:

a)

oral hypoglycemics

b)

diuretics

c)

anti-inflammatory

d)

spasmolytic

71.

A necessary precursor of visual pigment is:

a)

tocopherol

b)

retinal

c)

ergosterol

d)

retinal

72.

Paracetamol is a/an:

a)

salicylate

b)

pyrazolone

c)

aniline derivative

d)

azocine derivative

73.

All of the following are progestins except:

a)

norethindrone

b)

testosterone

c)

ethynodiol diacetate

d)

progesterone

74.

Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to:

a)

codeine

b)

methadone

c)

heroin

d)

pentazocine

75.

The functional group in pyridoxine is:

a)

alcohol

b)

amine

c)

carboxylic acid

d)

ketone

76.

Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are:

a)

enols

b)

esters

c)

ethers

d)

amines

77.

MAO is classified as a/an:

a)

protein inhibitor

b)

complexing agent

c)

enzyme

d)

hormone

78.

When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is:

a)

humectant

b)

demelanizing agent

c)

oil soluble antioxidant

d)

emulsifying agent

79.

Naturally occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are:

a)

nasal decongestants

b)

analgesic

c)

vasoconstrictor

d)

bronchodilator

80.

Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is:

a)

lidocaine

b)

procaine

c)

dibucaine

d)

bupivacaine

81.

All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except:

a)

erythromycin

b)

oleandomycin

c)

vancomycin

d)

spiramycin

82.

Ativan has this generic name:

a)

triazolam

b)

lorazepam

c)

flurazepam

d)

tranexamic acid

83.

Plasil is:

a)

acyclovir

b)

metoclopramide

c)

diclofenac sodium

d)

tranexamic acid

84.

The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is:

a)

methyl salicylate

b)

acetyl chloride

c)

salicylic acid

d)

salicylamide

85.

Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:

a)

short acting

b)

intermediate acting

c)

long acting

d)

ultra short acting

86.

Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following chemically?

a)

enzymes

b)

porphyrins

c)

proteins

d)

lipids

87.

The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of it’s:

a)

lipid solubility

b)

renal excretion

c)

plasma binding

d)

method of administration

88.

The prototype narcotic antagonist is:

a)

nalorphine

b)

naloxone

c)

levallorphan

d)

meperidine

89.

Lysergic acid diethylamide is:

a)

derived from mushroom

b)

a parasympathetic drug

c)

histamine analog

d)

ergot derivative

90.

Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:

a)

acetic acid

b)

salicylic acid

c)

oxalic acid

d)

citric acid

91.

Diamox has a generic name of:

a)

allopurinol

b)

acetazolamide

c)

dimethylxanthine

d)

theophylline

92.

Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:

a)

dilantin

b)

codeine

c)

meperidine

d)

naloxone

93.

Cevitamic acid is:

a)

folic acid

b)

ascorbic acid

c)

nicotinic acid

d)

glacial acetic acid

94.

Chloroquine is the generic name of:

a)

atabrine

b)

artane

c)

aralen

d)

akineton

95.

Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics:

a)

penicillins

b)

cephalosphorins

c)

macrolides

d)

aminoglycosides

96.

This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis:

a)

silvadene

b)

sulfamylon

c)

whitfield

d)

vandol

97.

Drug of choice for filarial infections:

a)

ivermectin

b)

praziquantel

c)

diethylcarbamazine

d)

Stibophen

98.

Active form of the sulfonamide:

a)

non-ionized

b)

ionized

c)

amphoteric

d)

oxo ring

99.

Use of crotamiton:

a)

pediculicide

b)

scabicide

c)

anthelmintic

d)

antibacterial

100.

Mechanism of action of mebendazole:

a)

paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium

b)

unknown mechanism of action

c)

decreased glucose uptake

d)

phagocytic attack on worms

Module 1 Green PACOP OrgChem (1-100)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

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