Free Printable Module 1 Green PACOP OrgChem (200-300)

1.

Amongst the following, the drug of choice for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is:

a)

amodiaquine

b)

chloroquine

c)

primaquine

d)

quinine

e)

mefloquine

2.

Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial parasite:

a)

will be effective for radical cure

b)

will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis

c)

will not be clinically effective

d)

will both be effective for prophylaxis and radical use

3.

All statements regarding antipyretic analgesics are false, except:

a)

produce fall in blood pressure

b)

raise the pain threshold

c)

develop drug dependence

d)

relieve visceral pain

e)

produce general CNS depression

4.

Drug of choice for ringworm infection is:

a)

nystatin

b)

ketoconazole

c)

griseofulvin

d)

neomycin

e)

amphotericin B

5.

Acetaminophen is preferred over aspirin in following conditions, except:

a)

rheumatic disease

b)

patients with peptic ulcer

c)

patients with bronchial asthma

d)

children with influenza

e)

children with chicken pox

6.

Oral neomycin and streptomycin are used for sterilization of bowel and for dysentery because:

a)

they are at least absorbed from oral route

b)

the peak concentration in blood is achieved quickly

c)

they are least toxic to GIT

d)

they are destroyed by the gastric juice

7.

Which of the following is the most appropriate statement about indomethacin?

a)

it is a powerful analgesic only

b)

it is a power anti-inflammatory only

c)

it is only analgesic and anti-inflammatory without antipyretic effect

d)

it is a powerful analgesic and anti-inflammatory agent with antipyretic and uricosuric actions

e)

it is powerful antipyretic only

8.

Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation?

a)

phenoxymethylpenicillin

b)

benzathine penicillin

c)

benzyl penicillin

d)

cloxacillin

e)

methicillin

9.

All of the following drugs interfere with platelet activity, except:

a)

aspirin

b)

dimercaprol

c)

protamine

d)

warfarin

e)

anisindione

10.

6-aminopenicillanic acid is:

a)

major metabolite of penicillin

b)

responsible for development of penicillin resistance

c)

the common nucleus of all penicillins

d)

a long-acting penicillin

e)

minor metabolite of penicillin

11.

Diphenoxylate, an effective antidiarrheal drug is:

a)

related to meperidine

b)

atropine-like drug

c)

narcotic antagonist

d)

a ganglion-blocking drug

e)

anticholinergic action

12.

Class I antiarrhythmic drugs result in decrease in heart rate of the accelerated heart and usually reduce the rate of conduction of cardiac impulse. They include the following, except:

a)

quinidine

b)

procainamide

c)

disopyramide

d)

phenytoin

e)

amiodarone

13.

Which of the following drugs does not reduce blood cholesterol level?

a)

clofibrate

b)

epinephrine

c)

destrothyroxine

d)

cholestyramine

e)

colestipol

14.

Which of the following is the longest-acting nitrate?

a)

glyceryl trinitrate

b)

amyl nitrite

c)

erythritol tetranitrate

d)

pentaerythritol tetranitrate

e)

isosorbide dinitrate

15.

Which of the following is considered a primary drug for the treatment of all seizure types except absence?

a)

carbamazepine

b)

ethosuximide

c)

valproic acid

d)

diazepam

e)

phenobarbital

16.

Which of the following penicillins is acid stable and therefore orally effective:

a)

benzathine penicillin

b)

procaine penicillin

c)

cloxacillin

d)

tricarcillin

e)

piperacillin

17.

A monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an antidepressant drug:

a)

amitryptiline

b)

thioridazine

c)

clozapine

d)

tranylcypromine

e)

fluoxetine

18.

Which of the following is not used for topical application on external surfaces?

a)

mafenide

b)

silver sulfadiazine

c)

sodium sulfacetamide

d)

sulfisoxazole

e)

resorcinol

19.

All of the following benzodiazepines are commonly used in the treatment of anxiety, except:

a)

chlordiazepoxide

b)

clonazepam

c)

alprazolam

d)

lorazepam

e)

diazepam

20.

Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is not bactericidal?

a)

carbenicillin

b)

gentamicin

c)

cefuroxime

d)

erythromycin

e)

vancomycin

21.

All of the following statements are true concerning the penicillins, except:

a)

this class of antibacterials acts by damaging the cell walls of bacteria

b)

piperacillin and ticarcillin have activity against Pseudomonas species

c)

use of any penicillin is contraindicated in a patient who has had an allergic reaction to any one penicillin

d)

they are obtained from the genus of Streptomyces

e)

the addition of clavulanic acid to amoxicillin preparations protects the drug from penicillinase

22.

In choosing a specific benzodiazepine for the treatment of insomnia, all of the following are considerations, except:

a)

age of the patient

b)

mental status of the patient

c)

the underlying sleep disorder being treated

d)

the half-life of the drug

e)

the absorption of the drug

23.

An antibiotic most commonly used in topical preparations:

a)

clotrimazole

b)

vidarabine

c)

griseofulvin

d)

bacitracin

e)

foscarnet

24.

The preferred agent for hypertensive emergencies:

a)

propranolol

b)

clonidine

c)

captopril

d)

diazoxide

e)

sodium nitroprusside

25.

Superior to acyclovir in the treatment of herpes viruses in the CNS in neonates:

a)

idoxuridine

b)

ribavirin

c)

vidarabine

d)

amantadine

e)

zidovudine

26.

Which of the following bases is most susceptible to alkylating agents?

a)

adenosine

b)

cytosine

c)

thymidine

d)

guanine

e)

uridine

27.

Vincristine is used primarily in the treatment of which of the following?

a)

Hodgkin’s disease

b)

lung cancer

c)

liver cancer

d)

melanoma

e)

prostate cancer

28.

For the treatment of systemic mycoses, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by intravenous route?

a)

miconazole

b)

amphotericin B

c)

ketoconazole

d)

clioquinol

e)

nystatin

29.

Penicillin is the drug of choice for the following infective conditions, except:

a)

gonococcal infection

b)

pneumococcal infection

c)

treponema pallidum infection

d)

streptococcal infection

e)

pseudomonal infection

30.

All of the following drugs act as prodrugs and need to be converted in the body to active compound, except:

a)

levodopa

b)

salbutamol

c)

prednisone

d)

bacampicillin

e)

cyclophosphamide

31.

Amongst the following the drug of choice for scabies is:

a)

sulfur

b)

crotamiton

c)

benzyl benzoate

d)

amodiaquine

e)

tannic acid

32.

Sensitivity of gram negative bacilli to amoxicillin is due to its:

a)

carboxyl group

b)

nitro group

c)

hydroxyl group

d)

amino group

e)

carbonyl group

33.

Bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia is the characteristic toxic effect of all the following drugs, except:

a)

oxytetracycline

b)

chloramphenicol

c)

methotrexate

d)

mitomycin

e)

dactinomycin

34.

The following antibiotic possess clinically useful antimalignant property, except:

a)

mitomycin

b)

bleomycin

c)

streptomycin

d)

daunorubicin

e)

plicamycin

35.

This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating penicillin:

a)

freeze-drying

b)

extraction

c)

chromatography

d)

x-ray

e)

distillation

36.

The metabolite of the red dye, prontosil, responsible for its antimicrobial property:

a)

sulfisoxazole

b)

sulfamethoxazole

c)

sulfanilamide

d)

sulfacetamide

e)

sulfapyridine

37.

Which of the following antiviral agents is not useful for the treatment of herpes virus infection?

a)

vidarabine

b)

interferon

c)

trifluridine

d)

acyclovir

e)

idoxuridine

38.

All of the following chemotherapeutic agents are useful for prophylaxis against infections caused by specific microorganisms, except:

a)

amantadine against influenza A virus

b)

chloramphenicol against typhoid fever

c)

isoniazid against tubercular infection

d)

tetracycline against rickettsial infection

e)

pyrimethamine against malaria in endemic areas

39.

The therapeutic uses of amphetamines does not include which of the following:

a)

in hyperkinetic children

b)

narcolepsy

c)

obesity

d)

parkinsonism

e)

hypertension

40.

Nitrous oxide, a general anesthetic agent, is characterized by all of the features of which of the following groups?

a)

high potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation

b)

low potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation

c)

high potency, poor analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation

d)

high potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation

e)

low potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation

41.

A drug receptor may be all of the following, except:

a)

isolable enzyme

b)

functional component of a cell membrane

c)

protein or a nucleic acid

d)

chelates

42.

Mechanism of action of trimethoprim:

a)

competitive inhibitor for the incorporation of PABA

b)

folate reductase inhibitor

c)

inhibits protein synthesis

d)

destruction of bacterial cell wall

43.

A drug molecule which possesses both intrinsic activity and affinity:

a)

agonist

b)

antagonist

c)

poison

d)

none of the above

44.

Chelating agent that is an effective antidote foe copper poisoning and used in the treatment of Wilson’s disease:

a)

deferoxamine mesylate

b)

dimercaprol

c)

penicillamine

d)

EDTA

45.

Which is not a chelating agent?

a)

8-Methoxyquinoline

b)

8-Mercaptoquinoline

c)

8-Hydroxyquinoline

d)

4-AZA-Oxime

46.

Dimercaprol is also known as:

a)

BAL

b)

Dithioglycerol

c)

both a & b

d)

none of the above

47.

Synthesized from dry hydrogen chloride and carbon monoxide at 300 degrees and 200 atm pressure:

a)

tetrachloroethylene

b)

piperazine

c)

both

d)

none

48.

Passive diffusion includes what drug?

a)

Lipid soluble

b)

Lipid insoluble

c)

Amphoteric

d)

Hydrophilic

49.

It is the tendency of the drug to combine with the receptor:

a)

Efficacy

b)

Intrinsic activity

c)

Bonding

d)

Affinity

50.

Brand name of Bisacodyl:

a)

Gelusin MPX

b)

Dulcolax

c)

Haloperidol

d)

Fleet

51.

Penicillin G

a)

Methicillin

b)

Benzyl penicillin

c)

both

d)

none

52.

Organo-Silicon polymers containing O and Si atoms with a substituent organic groups:

a)

silicons

b)

alkynes

c)

esters

d)

ethers

53.

A phenol primarily obtained from clove oil:

a)

resorcinol

b)

cresol

c)

hexylresorcinol

d)

eugenol

54.

Which of the following is used in the treatment of pernicious anemia?

a)

thiamine

b)

niacin

c)

riboflavin

d)

cyanocobalamin

55.

Classified as a macrolide antibiotic, except:

a)

Bacitracin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Spiramycin

d)

Oleandomycin

56.

A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo:

a)

Achromycin

b)

Albamycin

c)

Erythromycin

d)

Viomycin

57.

The following antimalarials are synthetic drugs, except:

a)

Atabrine

b)

Aralen

c)

Camoquin

d)

Quinine

58.

Polyene antibiotics for fungi:

a)

amphotericin B

b)

miconazole

c)

ketoconazole

d)

both a & b

e)

both b & c

59.

Also known as solvent shift:

a)

facilitated transport

b)

ion-pair transport

c)

bulk transport

d)

passive diffusion

e)

none of the above

60.

Externally, ethyl alcohol is employed as:

a)

refrigerant

b)

rubefacient

c)

astringent

d)

all of the above

61.

Carbonic acid gas:

a)

oxygen

b)

nitrogen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

ammonia

e)

helium

62.

For patients allergic to penicillins, this drug is used as alternative:

a)

erythromycin

b)

spectinomycin

c)

aureomycin

d)

lincomycin

e)

none of the above

63.

These anti-diarrheals trap the toxins and flushes them out of your system:

a)

adsorbents

b)

anti-motility agents

c)

astringents

d)

oral rehydration salts

64.

Drug of choice for urinary tract infections:

a)

co-trimoxazole

b)

gentamicin

c)

naprofen

d)

all of the above

65.

Voltaren:

a)

tolmetin

b)

sulindac

c)

diclofenac

d)

piroxicam

66.

The chemical name of Phenethicillin:

a)

Benzyl penicillin

b)

Phenoxymethyl penicillin

c)

Phenoxyethyl penicillin

d)

Phenoxypropyl penicillin

67.

The following are the uses of methylene blue, except:

a)

antidote for cyanide poisoning

b)

antidote for nitrate poisoning

c)

antidote for barbiturate poisoning

d)

none of the above

68.

Mechanism of action of this anti-tubercular agent is to inhibit protein synthesis:

a)

PZA

b)

Streptomycin

c)

INH

d)

Ethambutol

69.

Compounds that result from a combination of electron donors with a metal ion to form a ring structure:

a)

chelates

b)

ligands

c)

both

d)

none

70.

Transport of drug molecules from the site of administration to the systemic circulation:

a)

absorption

b)

adsorption

c)

metabolism

d)

excretion

e)

toxicology

71.

Methylsalicylate is also known as:

a)

toothace drop

b)

oil of Jasmine

c)

oil of rose

d)

oil of wintergreen

72.

Agents that facilitate the evacuation of bowels:

a)

anti-motility agents

b)

cathartics

c)

astringents

d)

antacids

e)

none of the above

73.

Absolute alcohol is commercially prepared by:

a)

direct distillation

b)

fermentation

c)

azeotropic distillations

d)

none

74.

Nubain:

a)

meperidine

b)

nalbuphine

c)

methadone

d)

fentanyl

e)

pentazocine

75.

Kaopectate:

a)

activated charcoal

b)

attaulgite

c)

Oresol

d)

kaolin + pectin

e)

atropine sulfate

76.

The least stable of all vitamins:

a)

ascorbic acid

b)

folic acid

c)

thiamine

d)

retinoic acid

e)

menadione

77.

A change in structure of isoniazid causes:

a)

an increase in the potency of the drug

b)

an increase in the duration of drug action

c)

decrease in the potency of the drug

d)

none of the above

78.

The most toxic vitamin:

a)

folic acid

b)

pantothenic acid

c)

retinoic acid

d)

thiamine

e)

pyridoxine

79.

Major organ for excretion:

a)

liver

b)

kidney

c)

skin

d)

small intestines

e)

none of the above

80.

Generic name of Benadryl AH:

a)

guaiafenesin

b)

diphenhydramine

c)

apomorphine

d)

benzonatate

81.

A bright red dye that was found to create remarkable cures of streptococcal infections:

a)

prontosil

b)

methyl red

c)

both

d)

none

82.

Halazone is a/an:

a)

iodophor

b)

mercury containing anti-infective

c)

chlorine containing anti-infective

d)

oxidizing agent

e)

none of the above

83.

Drug of choice for leprosy:

a)

rifampicin

b)

ethonamide

c)

prothionamide

d)

clofazimine

e)

dapsone

84.

The metabolic function of niacin:

a)

decarboxylation

b)

redox reactions

c)

differentiation of epithelial tissues

d)

maturation of erythrocytes

85.

Sunshine vitamin:

a)

A

b)

D

c)

E

d)

K

86.

The following are fat-soluble vitamins, except:

a)

A

b)

B2

c)

D

d)

E

e)

K

87.

In terms of pH, aspirin is absorbed in the:

a)

mouth

b)

small intestines

c)

stomach

d)

large intestines

e)

rectum

88.

Therapeutic gas used as a gas diluent/carrier:

a)

oxygen

b)

helium

c)

nitrogen

d)

carbon dioxide

89.

The following drugs are extensively metabolized in the liver, except:

a)

Isoproterenol

b)

Propranolol

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Paracetamol

90.

A dye used in vital nerve staining:

a)

malachite green

b)

gentian violet

c)

methylene blue

d)

basic fuchsin

91.

The excretion of weakly basic drug will be more rapid in acidic urine than in basic urine because:

a)

all drugs are excreted more rapidly in acidic urine

b)

the drug will exist primarily in the unionized form, which cannot easily be reabsorbed

c)

weak bases cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules

d)

the drug will exist primarily in the ionized form, which cannot be easily reabsorbed

92.

Superinfection is common with:

a)

antibiotics which are given parenterally

b)

those which are used for prolonged period

c)

those which suppress the normal bacterial flora

d)

those which are given as a depot preparation

93.

A potentially fatal aplastic anemia is a toxicity associated with:

a)

chloramphenicol

b)

nitrofurantoin

c)

clindamycin

d)

cephalothin

94.

Which is not true for cephalosporins?

a)

broad spectrum

b)

bactericidal

c)

affected by penicillinases

d)

acid-stable

95.

Bactrim and Septrim are trade names for a fixed-dose combination of:

a)

sulfamethizole and trimethoxazole

b)

sulfisoxazole and methenamine

c)

sulfamethoxazole and phenazopyridine

d)

sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

96.

Which of the following is most likely to cause tinnitus and hearing loss in high doses?

a)

ibuprofen

b)

phenylbutazone

c)

acetylsalicylic acid

d)

indomethacin

97.

Pharmacologic effects of the classic antihistamines include all of the following, except:

a)

sedation with low doses

b)

inhibition of gastric acid secretion

c)

antipruritic effect

d)

drying of salivary and bronchial secretion

98.

An example of a commercial product that is pro-drug:

a)

Lasix

b)

Geocillin

c)

Morphine

d)

Valium

99.

All of the following statements are correct, except:

a)

sulfonamides increase the risk of neonatal kernicterus

b)

ketoconazole penetrates into the CSF

c)

metronidazole is effective against Enterobacter histolytica

d)

mebendazole is the drug of choice in the treatment of whipworm infections

100.

Large overdose of acetaminophen are likely to cause:

a)

tinnitus

b)

hepatic necrosis

c)

agranulocytosis

d)

renal tubular acidosis

Module 1 Green PACOP OrgChem (200-300)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

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