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Worksheets

MCAC Elite

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Chest compressions should be administered to adults, children, and infants, at what rate?

a)

20-40 compressions

b)

100-120 per minute

c)

1-2 inches

d)

All of the above

2.

When two or more rescuers are administering CPR to a child, rescue breaths should be given after how many compressions?

a)

30

b)

20

c)

15

d)

5

3.

While an AED is analyzing a victim's heart rhythm, what should the rescuers be doing?

a)

Compressions

b)

Checking for a pulse

c)

Rescue breathing

d)

Staying clear from the victim

4.

The ratio for rescue breathing, for an adult is one breath every (a)   seconds

5.

What is the compression to breath ratio for CPR, on an infant, with one rescuer?

a)

15 compressions to 2 puffs

b)

1 breath every 5-6 seconds

c)

30 compressions to 2 puffs

d)

1 breath every 3-4 seconds

6.

What are the universal precautions?

a)

Universal Studios Florida

b)

2 hands around the neck, gasping for air

c)

To treat all bodily fluids as if they are infected/contaminated

d)

10-20

7.

What organs are at greatest risk for permanent damage during drowning? (check all that apply)

a)

lungs

b)

heart

c)

stomach

d)

brain

8.

What is the most important predictor of survival, for a person in the drowning process?

a)

Using a feet first surface dive

b)

How DEEP the pool is

c)

Calling 911

d)

Amount of TIME the victim was submerged

9.

What are the components of the acronym STAAR Aquatic Rescue Model?

a)

See, Target, Assess, Alert, Record

b)

See, Tell, Act, And Record

c)

Scan, Tell, Activate, And Rescue

d)

Scan, Target, Assess, Alert, Rescue

10.

What do 2 long whistle blast indicate?

a)

Major emergency (rescue of passive victim)

b)

Major emergency (rescue of active victim)

c)

Need the attention of another lifeguard

d)

All of the above

11.

What are the components of the acronym SAMPLE?

a)

Signs/symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past Medical History, Last Oral Intake, Emergency

b)

Signs/symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past Medical History, Last Oral Intake, Explain

c)

Signs/symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past Medical History, Last Oral Intake, Events

d)

Signs/symptoms, Allergies, Medical Doctors, Past Medical History, Last Oral Intake, Events

12.

What are the components of the acronym DOTS?

a)

Deformities, Obstruction, Tenderness, Swelling

b)

Deformities, Open Wounds, Tightness, Swelling

c)

Deformities, Open Wounds, Tenderness, Swelling

d)

Defibrillator, Open Wounds, Tightness, Swelling

13.

What are the components of the acronym RID? (check all that apply)

a)

Distraction

b)

Rescue

c)

Intrusion

d)

Recognition

14.

What are the components of the acronym CPR?

a)

Compulsive, Preliminary, Rescue

b)

Compulsive, Pulmonary, Resuscitation

c)

Cardio, Preliminary, Rescue

d)

Cardio, Pulmonary, Resuscitation

15.

After surveying the scene, what must be done before providing care to a infant/child?

a)

Obtain consent

b)

Secondary assessment

c)

Call 911

d)

Glove up

16.

What legal principle governs what you are expected to do, during an emergency situation, while at work?

a)

Good Samaritan Act

b)

OSHA Law

c)

Duty to Act

d)

Emergency Action Plan

17.

How many points of contact should you have when entering and exiting the lifeguard stand?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

18.

How many rescue breaths should be given to a passive drowning victim in the water?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

19.

In order to use an AED on a drowning victim, how far away from the water's edge should the victim be?

a)

4 feet

b)

3 feet

c)

5 feet

d)

6 feet

20.

What is the bleach to water ratio used when preparing a solution to clean bodily fluid or fecal matter?

a)

1 part water to 9 parts bleach

b)

1 part bleach to 1 part water

c)

1 part bleach to 9 parts water

d)

1 part bleach to 1 part disinfectant

21.

Drowning is a process with outcomes, what are those outcomes? (check all that apply)

a)

Fear of impending doom

b)

Survival with brain damage

c)

Death

d)

Survival without brain damage

22.

When a lifeguard jumps in the pool, to make a rescue, who covers their zone?

a)

Guard to their left

b)

Guard to their right

c)

Head guard

d)

Supervisor/Manager

23.

(True/False) Patrons drown, due to water in the lungs.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Drowning does not stop until when? (check all that apply)

a)

The lifeguard jumps in

b)

When 5 rescue breaths are given

c)

When EMS arrives

d)

5 initial breaths are given

25.

What areas of the water must you scan? (check all that apply)

a)

Bottom

b)

Areas with swimmers

c)

Surface/Top

d)

Middle

26.

What are the components to the acronym PPE?

a)

Professional proactive emergency

b)

Perfectly planned escape

c)

Personal protective equipment

d)

Personal property excluded

27.

What determines whether the water is shallow or not?

a)

Depth markers

b)

Numbers on or near the pool

c)

Facility Manager

d)

The person's height

28.

What water entry method has the lowest risk of back, leg or foot injury, and is useful in a wide range of water depths and circumstances?

a)

Stride jump

b)

Compact jump

c)

Slide/slip in entry

d)

All of the above

29.

When doing CPR on an adult, how deep should the compressions be?

a)

1 inch

b)

2 inches

c)

3 inches

d)

4 inches

30.

How would you assess if someone is having a stroke? (check all that apply)

a)

Face

b)

Arms

c)

Time

d)

Speech

31.

What are the components of the acronym EAP?

a)

Emergency automated plan

b)

Empty all pools

c)

Embrace all people

d)

Emergency action plan

32.

What do 2 short whistle blasts indicate?

a)

Major emergency (rescue of passive victim)

b)

Major emergency (rescue of active victim)

c)

Need attention of another lifeguard

d)

All of the above

33.

What are the most common patron behaviors that can cause injury? (check all that apply)

a)

Diving in shallow water

b)

Collision with other person

c)

Running

d)

Horseplay

34.

When should you call 911? (check all that apply)

a)

Active drowning patron

b)

Severe headache

c)

Allergic reaction

d)

Burns over an area larger than the palm of your hand

35.

What are signs or symptoms of a heart attack? (check all that apply)

a)

Embarrassment

b)

Dizziness

c)

Slurred speech

d)

Fear of impending doom

36.

What differentiates a swimmer in distress, from one that is drowning? (check all that apply)

a)

Unable to call out for help

b)

Still able to breathe

c)

Unable to breathe

d)

Nose and mouth remain above the water's surface

37.

When should you call 911? (check all that apply)

a)

Emission of strange noises

b)

Seizure

c)

Severe stiff neck

d)

Unresponsiveness

38.

What are signs or symptoms of a heart attack? (check all that apply)

a)

Nausea

b)

Uncertainty

c)

Severe fever

d)

Light headedness

39.

What are the components of the acronym AED?

a)

Automatic External Device

b)

Automated Exercise Delivery

c)

Automated External Defibrillator

d)

Automatic External Defibrillator

40.

When should you call 911? (check all that apply)

a)

Bleeding you can't stop

b)

Uncontrollable jerking movements

c)

Seizure

d)

Fainting

41.

When are inspections of slides and attractions usually conducted? (check all that apply)

a)

Before the facility opens

b)

When the facility shuts down

c)

Daily

d)

Weekly

42.

When performing rescue breathing on a child, how many breaths should be given in a 2 minute period?

a)

100

b)

100-120

c)

24-40

d)

40-60

43.

Name 3 signs or symptoms of a heart attack. (check all that apply)

a)

Light headedness

b)

Dry skin

c)

Heavy sweating

d)

Denial

44.

When should you call 911?

a)

Bee sting that causes a reaction

b)

Lack of alertness

c)

Snakebite

d)

All of the above

45.

What is the first step of the primary assessment?

a)

Check for a pulse

b)

Activate the EAP

c)

Assess/survey the scene

d)

Call 911