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Pharmacy & Pharmacology: Part II

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Neonatal animals are less tolerant of some drugs than older animals, because in neonates the drugs are:

a)

Biotransformed more rapidly

b)

Absorbed more slowly from the gastrointestinal tract

c)

Not biotransformed

d)

Biotransformed more slowly

2.

The generic name for a drug is also called the:

a)

Trade name

b)

Chemical name

c)

Proprietary name

d)

Nonproprietary name

3.

A prescription reads "2 tab q4h po prn until gone." The translation of these instructions is:

a)

Two tablets are to be taken four times per day for pain until all tablets are gone.

b)

Two tablets are to be taken four times per day under supervision by the veterinarian until all tablets are gone.

c)

Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hr with food and water until all tablets are gone.

d)

Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hr by mouth as needed until all tablets are gone.

4.

The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is extremely toxic to cats is:

a)

Asprin

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Carprofen

d)

Flunixin

5.

Which statement regarding tetracyclines is true?

a)

They are bactericidal

b)

They alter the permeability of the cell wall and cause lysis

c)

Currently man bacteria are resistant to tetracyclines

d)

They are unable to penetrate the bacterial cell wall

6.

The benzodiazepine derivative diazepam is often administered in combination with:

a)

Droperidol

b)

Morphine

c)

Ketamine

d)

Xylazine

7.

If using a regular disposable-type syringe, which of the following drugs should not be preloaded and left for a time before use?

a)

Acepromazine

b)

Atropine

c)

Diazepam

d)

Ketamine

8.

A 10-kg dog had inadvertently been administered a dose of xylazine hydrochloride intended for a 30-kg dog. The correct reversal agent for this overdose is:

a)

Atropine

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Naloxone

d)

Yohimbine

9.

Which of the following statements is true when considering the use of propofol?

a)

Is is a potent analgesic

b)

It can be given via IM and IV routes

c)

It is best administered as a single bolus

d)

It can be given in incremental doses

10.

Heartgard contains ivermectin, which:

a)

Prevents dogs from developing congestive heart failure

b)

Is also effective in treating tapeworms

c)

Is used to prevent heartworm infection

d)

Can be administered orally only

11.

Which of these opioids is an agonist/antagonist?

a)

Oxymorphone

b)

Meperidine

c)

Butorphanol

d)

Fentanyl

12.

Acepromazine maleate causes:

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Hypotension

d)

Reduced salivation

13.

Most biotransformation of drugs occurs in the :

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Lungs

d)

Skin

14.

The main reason that generic forms of drugs are less expensive than trademark name drugs is because generic brands:

a)

Use less expensive ingredients

b)

Are not advertised heavily

c)

Do not incur the expense of developing a new drug

d)

Do not work as well as trademark name drugs

15.

All of the following organs may facilitate the elimination of drugs except the:

a)

Kidnets

b)

Liver

c)

Lungs

d)

Spleen

16.

When a drug is said to have a narrow therapeutic range, it means that:

a)

The dose range that is effective is small

b)

It may be used for treatment of a few disorders only

c)

It must be dosed frequently

d)

It must be given in greater concentrations to be effective

17.

A drug that has extreme potential for abuse and no approved medicinal purpose in the United States is classified as:

a)

C-I

b)

C-II

c)

C-IV

d)

C-V

18.

The best means of assuring that a particular antibiotic treatment will be successful is to:

a)

Treat for no less than a full 2-week course

b)

Collect a sample from the infected area for culture and sensitivity

c)

Use the highest dose that is considered nontoxic

d)

Use a broad-spectrum antibiotic

19.

A 50-lb dog is to be given 1mg/kg dose of diazepam. How many milligrams should he receive?

a)

50 mg

b)

22.7 mg

c)

500 mg

d)

2.27 mg

20.

Guaifenesin is an example of a(n):

a)

Expectorant

b)

Antitussive

c)

Bronchodilator

d)

Decongestant

21.

The type of drug that would be most helpful for a patient with a productive cough is:

a)

Antitussive

b)

Antihistamine

c)

Expectorant

d)

Analgesic

22.

Scooter, a 13-year-old miniature schnauzer has arrested under anesthesia for routine dentistry. you run to the crash cart and grab what you know to be the drug of choice for cardiac arrest, which is:

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Sodium bicarbonate

d)

Dobutamine

23.

The most common side effect of NSAIDs is:

a)

Polyuria

b)

Gastrointestinal ulceration

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Constipation

24.

An opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control postsurgical pain is:

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Pentazocine

c)

Meperidine

d)

Butorphanol

25.

A cow is accidently dosed with an equine dose of xylazine. What drug should be immediately administered?

a)

None; the equine and bovine doses of xylazine are the same

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Naloxone

d)

Yohimbine

26.

Insulin concentration is measured in:

a)

mg/mL

b)

mEq/mL

c)

U/mL

d)

g/mL

27.

The primary function of insulin is to:

a)

Regulate the metabolic processes of the body

b)

Regulate digestion through secretion of gastrointestinal hormones

c)

Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells

d)

Control reproductive function

28.

The emetic of choice in cats is:

a)

Xylazine

b)

Syrup of ipecac

c)

Apomorphine

d)

Hydrogen peroxide

29.

The emetic of choice in dogs is:

a)

Xylazine

b)

Syrup of ipecac

c)

Apomorphine

d)

Hydrogen peroxide

30.

The principal site of drug biotransformation is the:

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Stomach

d)

Small intestine

31.

Duragesic (Fentanyl) transdermal patches are used most commonly in veterinary medicine to control:

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Vomiting

c)

Seizures

d)

Pain

32.

Which of the following drugs are contraindicated in a patient that has a history of seizures?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Thiopental

c)

Acepromazine

d)

Fentanyl

33.

The reversal agent used for opioid toxicity is:

a)

Naloxone (Narcan)

b)

Yohimbine

c)

Acetylcysteine

d)

Diazepam

34.

One of the adverse side effects of opioid administration is:

a)

Increased seizure activity in epileptic animals

b)

Induction of cardiac arrythmias

c)

Significant respiratory depression

d)

Systemic hypertension

35.

Nitroglycerin is administered primarily to achieve which of the following effects?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Vasoconstriction

c)

Antiarrhythmic effect

d)

ACE inhibitor effect

36.

Lidocaine is primarily used to control which of the following abnormalities?

a)

Supraventricular bradycardia

b)

Ventricular tachycardia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Supraventricular tachycardia

37.

An example of an anticholinergic drug is:

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Pilocarpine

c)

Atropine

d)

Nicotine

38.

The class of antibiotics most commonly prescribed to treat rickettsial infections, such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever, is:

a)

Tetracyclines

b)

Penecillins

c)

Aminoglycosides

d)

Sulfonamides

39.

It is essential for veterinary technicians to educate clients expecting to treat their pets with insulin. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Insulin can be stored at room temperature between uses

b)

The bottle of insulin should be shaken before use

c)

The injection is given in the same site each time

d)

Insulin should be given with a meal

40.

Which type of antimicrobial drug would be effective against organisms such as Giardia or Eimeria?

a)

Bactericidal

b)

Virucidal

c)

Antiprotozoal

d)

Fungistatic

41.

Antimicrobial drugs such as neomycin, gentamicin, and amikacin each belong to what group of antibiotics?

a)

Penicillins

b)

Cephalosporins

c)

Quinolines

d)

Aminoglycosides

42.

Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a significant problem in veterinary medicine. What factor is not considered to be a significant contributor to the development of bacterial resistance?

a)

Prolonged levels of higher-than-recommended dosages of antibiotics

b)

Normal dosages of antibiotics for half the recommended duration

c)

Low dosages of antibiotics in the feed for prolonged periods

d)

Antibiotics that do not reach the infection site in concentrations that exceed MIC

43.

What is the drug group of choice for treating Lyme disease (borreliosis)?

a)

Antifungal

b)

Antiviral

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Antiprotozoal

44.

With what type of diet should oral tetracyclines not be administered?

a)

High fat

b)

Low sodium

c)

High calcium

d)

Low potassium

45.

Why should tetracycline use be avoided in pregnant bitches?

a)

It may cause changes in the joint cartilage that may result in arthritis at an older age in the pup

b)

It may be deposited in dental enamel and give the pups teeth a mottled yellow appearance.

c)

It may impair normal central nervous system development in the pups that may show up as behavioral changes later in life.

d)

It may damage the developing pups and may result in liver impairment later in life

46.

What antibacterial drug is also effective against protozoa such as Giardia?

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Monensin

47.

Ketoconazole, miconazole, and griseofulvin are effective against:

a)

Viruses

b)

Flukes

c)

Intestinal nematodes

d)

Fungi

48.

What drug is used intravenously to treat status epilepticus?

a)

Potassium bromide

b)

Levetiracetam

c)

Diazepam

d)

Phenobarbital

49.

Drugs that effectively block the cough reflex are called:

a)

Mucolytics

b)

Expectorants

c)

Antitussives

d)

Decongestants

50.

Drugs used to increase airflow, through respiratory passageways narrowed by the relaxation of smooth muscle around them, are called:

a)

Bronchodilators

b)

Expectorants

c)

Antitussives

d)

Antihistamines