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AST 1 ANS Quiz

Total questions: 33

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
An increase in BP is compensated by…
a)
Baroreceptor firing increase
b)
Decrease in Sympathetic activation
c)
Increase in Parasympathetic activation
d)
Decrease in heart rate (Chronotropy)
e)
Decrease in contractility (Inotropy)
2.

The _______ is where the sympathetic nervous system is derived

a)

Thoracolumbar

b)

Cranial

c)

Sacral

d)

Craniosacral

e)

Craniolumbar

3.
One could consider the sweat gland to be a peculiar portion of the sympathetic NS because it is…
a)
Acetylcholine activated
b)
Norepinephrine activated
c)
Epinephrine activated
d)
Dopamine activated
e)
Its own tiny little sweat brain
4.

Sympathetic activation of the Adrenal Medulla occurs via

a)

Acetylcholine activation

b)

Norepinephrine activation

c)

Dopaminergic activation

d)

Epinephrine activation

e)

All of them

5.

In the sympathetic pathway, a short pre-ganglionic neuron releases ______ on to ______ receptors.

a)

Acetylcholine -> Nicotinic

b)

Norepinephrine -> Muscarinic

c)

Acetylcholine -> Muscarinic

d)

Norepinephrine -> Nicotinic

6.

In the sympathetic pathway, a long post-ganglionic neuron releases ______ on to ______ receptors.

a)

Norepinephrine -> Adrenergic

b)

Norepinephrine -> Muscarinic

c)

Acetylcholine -> Muscarinic

d)

Acetylcholine -> Adrenergic

7.

In the parasympathetic pathway, a long pre-ganglionic neuron releases _____ on to _____ receptors.

a)

Acetylcholine -> Nicotinic

b)

Acetylcholine -> Muscarinic

c)

Norepinephrine -> Muscarinic

d)

Norepinephrine -> Nicotinic

8.

In the parasympathetic pathway, a short post-ganglionic neuron releases _____ on to _____ receptors.

a)

Acetylcholine -> Muscarinic

b)

Acetylcholine -> Nicotinic

c)

Norepinephrine -> Muscarinic

d)

Norepinephrine -> Adrenergic

9.

Metoprolol will induce bradycardia at which site?

a)

Site V

b)

Site VI

c)

Site IV

d)

Site II

e)

Site III

10.

Pyridostigmine sees its therapeutic effects at which site?

a)

Site VII

b)

Site VI

c)

Site V

d)

Site IV

e)

Site III

11.

Atropine induces tachycardia at which site?

a)

Site VI

b)

Site VII

c)

Site V

d)

Site III

e)

Site IV

12.
Timolol (an antihypertensive) will affect which site?
a)
Site V
b)
Site VII
c)
Site VI
d)
Site IV
e)
Site III
13.

Terbutaline (an antiasthmatic) generates ADRs at which site?

a)

Site V

b)

Site VII

c)

Site II

d)

Site I

e)

Site III

14.

Tubocurarine has therapeutic effects at which site?

a)

Site VII

b)

Site VI

c)

Site V

d)

Site IV

e)

Site III

15.

Methacholine induces bradycardia via which site?

a)

Site VI

b)

Site VII

c)

Site IV

d)

Site III

e)

Site V

16.
Which second messenger system does Sildenafil prevent metabolism of?
a)
cGMP
b)
cAMP
c)
NO
d)
PLC
e)
PKA
17.
You've been poisoned with Sarin (an organophosphate). What drug regimen would be the most effective antidote?
a)
2-PAM
b)
Physostigmine
c)
Atropine
d)
Pyridostigmine
18.
How does Phenylephrine cause a decrease in HR?
a)
Baroreflex
b)
Decreasing peripheral resistance
c)
Decreasing HR directly
d)
Blocking B2 receptors
19.
Agonising ______ and blocking ______ will both yield an increase in HR.
a)
B1, Muscarinic
b)
B2, Muscarinic
c)
A1, Muscarinic
d)
A2, Muscarinic
20.
A patient looking for nasal decongestion would benefit the most from what type of agonist?
a)
A1
b)
B1
c)
A2
d)
B2
21.
What 2nd messenger system does the B1 receptor act upon?
a)
cAMP
b)
cGMP
c)
DAG
d)
IP3
22.
Phenylephrine is a…
a)
Direct-acting, selective A1 agonist
b)
Direct-acting, selective A2 agonist
c)
Direct-acting, selective B2 agonist
d)
Indirect-acting reuptake inhibitor
e)
Indirect-acting releasing agent
23.
Clonidine is a…
a)
Direct-acting, selective A2 agonist
b)
Direct-acting, selective A1 agonist
c)
Direct-acting, selective B2 agonist
d)
Indirect-acting reuptake inhibitor
e)
Indirect-acting releasing agent
24.
Dobutamine is a…
a)
Direct-acting, selective B1 agonist
b)
Direct-acting, selective A2 agonist
c)
Direct-acting, selective A1 agonist
d)
Indirect-acting reuptake inhibitor
e)
Indirect-acting releasing agent
25.
Terbutaline is a…<br />
a)
Direct-acting, selective B2 agonist
b)
Direct-acting, selective A2 agonist
c)
Direct-acting, selective A1 agonist
d)
Indirect-acting reuptake inhibitor
e)
Indirect-acting releasing agent
26.
Amphetamines are…
a)
Indirect-acting releasing agents
b)
Direct-acting, selective A2 agonist
c)
Direct-acting, selective A1 agonist
d)
Direct-acting, selective B2 agonist
e)
Indirect-acting reuptake inhibitor
27.
Cocaine is a…
a)
Indirect-acting reuptake inhibitor
b)
Direct-acting, selective A2 agonist
c)
Direct-acting, selective A1 agonist
d)
Direct-acting, selective B2 agonist
e)
Indirect-acting MAOI
28.
Selegiline is a…
a)
Indirect-acting MAOI
b)
Direct-acting, selective A2 agonist
c)
Direct-acting, selective A1 agonist
d)
Direct-acting, selective B2 agonist
e)
Indirect-acting reuptake inhibitor
29.
Entacapone is a…
a)
Indirect-acting COMT Inhibitor
b)
Direct-acting, selective A2 agonist
c)
Direct-acting, selective A1 agonist
d)
Direct-acting, selective B2 agonist
e)
Indirect-acting reuptake inhibitor
30.
What are the major effects mediated by the A1 receptor?
a)
Vasoconstriction
b)
An increase of peripheral resistance
c)
An increase in BP
d)
Mydriasis
e)
Contraction of bladder
31.
What are the major effects mediated by the A2 receptor?
a)
NE release inhibition
b)
Insulin release inhibition
c)
Platelet aggregation
d)
Myosis
e)
Miosis
32.
What are the major effects mediated by the B1 receptor?
a)
Tachycardia
b)
Lipolysis
c)
Inotropy
d)
Dromotropy
e)
Bradycardia
33.
What are the major effects mediated by the B2 receptor?
a)
Vasodilation
b)
A decrease of peripheral resistance
c)
Bronchodilation
d)
SM tremor
e)
Tachycardia

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