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Outpatient Comprehensive OSCE Review

Total questions: 25

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following blood pressures is NOT correctly matched to the stage of HTN?

a)

128/78: Pre-hypertension

b)

132/82: Stage 1 HTN

c)

132/82 and ASCVD risk 20%: Stage 2 HTN

d)

138/94: Stage 2 HTN

e)

148/82: Stage 2 HTN

2.

Which of the following would NOT be considered a first-line antihypertensive per the 2017 ACC/AHA HTN Guidelines?

a)

Amlodipine

b)

Chlorthalidone

c)

HCTZ

d)

Lisinopril

e)

Metoprolol

3.

In which of the following patients would an ACE inhibitor NOT be the preferred first-line therapy per the 2017 ACC/AHA HTN Guidelines?

a)

African American without comorbidities

b)

Chronic kidney disease

c)

Diabetic with albuminuria

d)

History of stroke

4.

Which of the following is NOT correctly listed with its maximum recommended dose for treatment of hypertension?

a)

Amlodipine 10 mg/day

b)

Chlorthalidone 50 mg/day

c)

HCTZ 25 or 50 mg/day

d)

Lisinopril 40 mg/day

5.

Which of the following correctly pairs the antihypertensive agent with a reason NOT to initiate that agent?

a)

Losartan - cough on ACE inhibitor

b)

HCTZ - elevated potassium

c)

Metoprolol - elevated heart rate

d)

Spironolactone - elevated potassium

6.

In which of the following situations is warfarin the preferred anticoagulant per CHEST guidelines?

a)

Treatment of venous thromboembolism

b)

Prevention of venous thromboembolism after hip replacement

c)

Prevention of stroke in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation

d)

Prevention of thromboembolism with mechanical prosthetic valves

7.

A CHA2DS2-VASc score must be calculated to determine:

a)

Need for anticoagulation after VTE

b)

Need for anticoagulation in non-valvular AFib

c)

Need for aspirin therapy in diabetic patients

d)

INR goal in patients following MVR

8.

A parenteral anticoagulant (ex. LMWH) does NOT need to be used when starting which of the following oral anticoagulants for treatment of VTE?

a)

Apixaban

b)

Edoxaban

c)

Dabigatran

d)

Warfarin

9.

What is the *most* appropriate VTE treatment dose of Lovenox for an 83 kg patient with normal renal function?

a)

75 mg every 12 hours

b)

80 mg every 12 hours

c)

85 mg every 12 hours

d)

90 mg every 12 hours

10.

Which of the following must you counsel a patient about when starting a DOAC? (There may be more than one right answer)

a)

Monitoring (CBC, SCr)

b)

Bleeding risk (w/ examples)

c)

Importance of compliance

d)

Drug-drug interactions

e)

Alcohol avoidance

11.

For which of the following would you NOT need to wipe a rubber seal on the pen with an alcohol swab before attaching a pen needle?

a)

Lantus

b)

Ozempic

c)

Trulicity

d)

Victoza

12.

Which of the following are common adverse effects to counsel on related to GLP-1 RAs?

a)

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

b)

UTIs, volume depletion, hypotension

c)

Pancreatitis, joint pain

d)

Fluid retention, heart failure

13.

A patient has an A1c of 10% despite adherence to Glucophage 1g BID, Victoza 1.8mg QD, & Jardiance 25mg QD. Which of the following would you start?

a)

Novolog 4 units prior to meals

b)

Lantus 24 units daily

c)

Januvia 100 mg once daily

d)

Tresiba 10 units daily

14.

Which of the following should be discontinued when starting someone on basal insulin?

a)

Metformin

b)

Glipizide

c)

Empagliflozin

d)

Liraglutide

15.

When might you consider addition of prandial insulin?

a)

In conjunction with initiation of basal regimen

b)

Basal insulin dose >0.1-0.2 u/kg/day

c)

FBG at goal but postprandial glucoses elevated

d)

Prior to adding GLP-1 RA to regimen

16.

Which of the following would be most appropriate to recommend for opioid-induced constipation in a treatment-naive patient per 2019 AGA Guidelines?

a)

Methylnaltrexone QD

b)

Bisacodyl suppository PRN

c)

Docusate-senna BID

d)

Lubiprostone BID

17.

When would you advise a second dose of naloxone be administered to a patient by a bystander in the setting of opioid overdose?

a)

Once breathing returns to normal

b)

10-15 minutes after the initial dose

c)

Once patient is awake

d)

If patient remains unresponsive

18.

How many doses of naloxone are in a Narcan Nasal Spray or Evzio Auto-Injector device?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Five

19.

Which of the following correctly pairs the antidepressant with its *most common* short-term/transient adverse effects?

a)

SNRIs - serotonin syndrome

b)

SSRIs - GI upset, headache, anxiety, insomnia or sedation

c)

Trazodone - insomnia, hypertension

d)

Bupropion - sedation, drowsiness, weight gain

20.

How long can it take for the full effects of antidepressants to be seen in a patient?

a)

3-5 days

b)

1-3 weeks

c)

4-8 weeks

d)

3-6 months

21.

Which patient would NOT qualify for a high intensity statin?

a)

42 yo w/ diabetes and microvascular complications

b)

45 yo w/ ASCVD risk 22.5%

c)

55 yo w/ ASCVD risk 12.5%, LDL 120 on moderate intensity statin

d)

70 yo w/ stroke last year

22.

Which of the following is a moderate intensity statin?

a)

Atorvastatin 40mg

b)

Pravastatin 20mg

c)

Rosuvastatin 20mg

d)

Simvastatin 20mg

23.

Which patient qualifies for low-dose aspirin for *primary prevention* per USPTF and/or ADA based on the information provided?

a)

42 yo w/ diabetes and HTN

b)

48 yo w/ MI last year

c)

55 yo w/ diabetes who smokes

d)

66 yo w/ ASCVD 12.5% on apixaban

24.

Which patient qualifies for PCV-13 (Prevnar) based on the information provided?

a)

35 yo w/ diabetes

b)

45 yo on dialysis

c)

60 yo who smokes

d)

66 yo otherwise healthy

25.

Which patient does NOT qualify for PPSV23 (Pneumovax) based on the information provided?

a)

45 yo with asthma

b)

35 yo with diabetes

c)

29 yo who smokes

d)

66 yo who had PPSV23 2 years ago