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Pharm NSAID/Opioid/GOUT/RA/Osteoporosis/OAB/UI

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Naproxen Drug Class

a)

Selective Cox Inhibitor

b)

Opioid Antagonist

c)

Non Selective Cox Inhibitor

d)

Partial Agonist

2.

Etodolac

a)

Non Selective Cox Inhibitor

b)

Selective Cox-2 Inhibitor

c)

IL-1 Receptor Antagonist

d)

Biological DMARD TNF Inhibitor

3.

Meperidine

a)

Full Agonist Opioid

b)

Partial Agonist Opioid

c)

Uricosuric Agent

d)

Selective Cox-2 Inhibitor

4.

Probemecid

a)

Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitor

b)

Non selective Cox Inhibitor

c)

Non-TNF inhibitor DMARD

d)

Uricosouric Agent

5.

Naltrexone

a)

Partial Opioid Agonist

b)

Rank Ligand inhibitor

c)

Beta3 Agonist

d)

Opioid Antagonist

6.

Colchicine Treats what?

a)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

b)

Gout

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

ED

7.

Febuxostat

a)

Xanthine Oxidase inhibitor

b)

Muscarinic Blocker

c)

Alpha Adrenergic Blocker

d)

Non selective Cox Inhibitor

8.

Select the TNF-Inhibitors that treat RA

a)

Romosozumab

b)

Adalimurab

c)

Infliximab

d)

Rifuximab

9.

Select the Non-TNF inhibitors for treatment of RA

a)

Abatacept

b)

Enterecept

c)

Rifuximab

d)

Infliximab

10.

Canakinumab

a)

Sclerosis Inhibitor

b)

IL-Receptor Antagonist

c)

TNF inhibitor

d)

Non TNF inhibitor

11.

Sulindac

a)

Non selective Cox Inhibitor

b)

Tx for Rheumatoid Arthritis

c)

Selective Cox 2 inhibitor

d)

Biphosphate

12.

Which of these acts on 5-HT3 receptors

a)

Morphine

b)

Codeine

c)

Tramadol

d)

Buprenorphine

13.

Methotrexate

a)

DMARD

b)

TNF inhibiting Biological DMARD

c)

Full Agonist Opioid

d)

Opioid Antagonist

14.

Select the DMARDS

a)

Leflunomide

b)

Sulfasalazine

c)

Anakinra

d)

Methotrexate

e)

Hydroxychloroquine

15.

Salicysm is an AE of which drug

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Sulindac

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Aspirin

16.

Non selective COX inhibitor used once daily due to very long half life from continuous recirculation

a)

Naproxen

b)

Ketorolac

c)

Piroxicam

d)

Ibuprofen

17.

Non Selective NSAID that inhibits phospholipase A and C, reduces neutrophil migration, and decreases T&B cell proliferation

a)

Indomethacin

b)

Piroxicam

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Sulindac

18.

CI with nasal polyps, angioedema, bronchospastic reactivity to aspirin

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Celecoxib

c)

Rifuximab

d)

Ibuprofen

19.

Estrogen Cream used for

a)

Urge Incontinence

b)

Stress Incontinence

20.

Zoledronic Acid

a)

Mixed Estrogen Ant/Ag

b)

Parathyroid Hormone Analog

c)

Beta3 Agonist

d)

Biphosphonate

21.

What activates NLRP3

a)

Urate Chrystals

b)

Arachidonic Acid

c)

Cox Isoenzyme

d)

Prostaglandin

22.

Rhabdomyolysis is a life threatening side effect of what GOUT Treating drug

a)

Probenicid

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Colchicine

d)

Enterecept

23.

Safer xanthine oxidase inhibitor for use in pt with chronic kidney disease

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Febuxostat

24.

Treats RA and stimulates Apoptosis in immune inflammatory cells. Inhibits Amino-imidozole-carboxamide-ribonucleotide synthesis.

a)

Adalimumab

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Meperidine

25.

Prodrug of A77 1726, Arrests cells in G1 phase and inhibits T Cell production

a)

Leflunomide

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Allopurinol

d)

Ketorolac

26.

Retinopathy is an important AE seen in

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Sulfasalazine

c)

Oxycodone

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

27.

Percentage of Biphosponates that are absorbed (Take on empty stomach and maintain erect position)

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

40%

28.

Raloxifene/ Bazedoxifene Drug class

a)

Rank Ligand Inhibitor

b)

Biphosphonate

c)

Parathyroid Hormone Analog

d)

Mixed Estrogen Ant/ Ag

29.

Rank Ligand Inhibitor

a)

Rituximab

b)

Infliximab

c)

Denosumab

d)

Romosozumab

30.

Choose the parathyroid Hormone Analogs

a)

Finasteride

b)

Dutasteride

c)

Aboloparatide

d)

Teraparatide

31.

Choose the sclerostin inhibitor

a)

Rituximab

b)

Infliximab

c)

Adalimumab

d)

Romosozumab

32.

Side effects associated with Muscarinic Blockers

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Dry eyes

c)

Lacrimation

d)

Urinary retention

e)

Constipation

33.

CI of muscarinic blockers

a)

Narrow Angle Glaucoma

b)

Open Angle Glaucoma

c)

Urinary Retention

d)

Gastric Retention

e)

Pregnancy

34.

Oxybutynin Drug Class

a)

Beta3 agonist

b)

5 alpha reductase Inhibitor

c)

Muscarinic Blocker

d)

Alpha Adrenergic Blocker

35.

Darifenacin Drug Class

a)

Muscarinic Blocker

b)

Beta3 agonist

c)

Alpha Adronergic Blocker

d)

Non selective cox inhibitor

36.

Finasteride Class

a)

Beta3 Agonist

b)

5 alpha Reductase Inhibitor

c)

Alpha Adrenergic Blocker

d)

Biological DMARD

37.

Trospium Class

a)

Beta3 Agonist

b)

Alpha Adrenergic Blocker

c)

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

d)

Muscarinic Blocker

38.

Muscarinic Blocker (Anticholinergic) with highest risk of dry mouth

a)

Fesoterodine

b)

Tolteridine

c)

Trospium

d)

Oxybutynin

39.

Anticholinergic drug that uses 2D6 enzyme to metabolize to active form

a)

Trospium

b)

Tolterodine

c)

Oxybutynin

d)

Darifenacin

40.

Drug used for relaxation of detrusor muscle without Anticholinergic effects

a)

Oxybutynin

b)

Mirabegron

c)

Darifenacin

d)

Fesoterodine

41.

Which should not be used with uncontrolled HTN

a)

Mirabegron

b)

Trospium

c)

Oxybutynin

d)

Fesoterodine

42.

Drug known to increase digoxin levels

a)

Finasteride

b)

Terazosin

c)

Mirabegron

d)

Tolterodine

43.

Choose the 5 alpha reductase inhibitors used for treatment of BPA

a)

Finasteride

b)

Aboloparatide

c)

Dutasteride

d)

Teriparatide

44.

Choose the alpha receptor blockers for BPH treatment

a)

Oxybutynin

b)

Terazosin

c)

Tamsulosin

d)

Teriparatide

45.

Alpha receptor blocker that may cause abnormal ejaculation

a)

Terazosin

b)

Tamsulosin

46.

Alpha receptor blocker that induces first dose effect, causes dizziness, may reduce BP, should be dosed at night

a)

Terazosin

b)

Tamsulosin

47.

Select the PDE5 inhibitor for ED

a)

Raloxifene

b)

Darifenacin

c)

Finasteride

d)

Sildenafil

48.

Drug class CI with Nitrates

a)

5 alpha reductase inhibitors

b)

PDE5 inhibitors

c)

Alpha Adrenergic blockers

d)

Muscarinic Blockers

49.

PDE5 inhibitor with quick peak and 4 hour duration

a)

Sidenafil

b)

Tadalafil

50.

PDE5 inhibitor with 36 hour duration that can be used daily

a)

Sidenafil

b)

Tadalafil

51.

Partial Agonist opioid that is a strong K- receptor agonist, and partial mu receptor antagonist

a)

Nalbuphine

b)

Buprenorphine

52.

Treatment for GOUT that has anti inflammatory Eddie the by binding to in trace lunar protein tubulin

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Probenecid

c)

Colchicine

d)

Febuxostat

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