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WorksheetsMCB5252 - Exam 2 - Question Bank
Total questions: 207
Worksheet time: 7hrs 54mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The Fc region of an antibody can attach to all except what?
a)
macrophages
b)
natural killer cells
c)
antigen
d)
mast cells
2.
The first line of nonspecific defense includes which
a)
digestive
b)
all of these
c)
two of these
d)
respiratory
e)
urogenital track
3.
The following events occur if human cells expressing HLA-I are mixed with anti-HLA-I, complement, and trypan blue. What step indicates the cells are HLA-I?
a)
Trypan blue enters the cells.
b)
Enzyme is released from neutrophils.
c)
Cells are damaged by complement.
d)
Anti-HLA antibodies bind to HLAs on lymphocytes.
e)
None of the answers are correct; the T cells are missing.
4.
The humoral immune system involves:
a)
the production of antibodies by B cells
b)
the production of antibodies by T cells
c)
T cells that act against foreign cells
d)
the regulation of the immune system
5.
The initial symptom of HIV infection is
a)
significant weight loss
b)
lymphadenopathy
c)
high viral load.
d)
appearance of thrush.
e)
loss of T cells.
6.
The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is IgM
a)
True
b)
False
7.
The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection?
a)
phase 1
b)
phase 2
c)
phase 3
d)
initial phase
e)
asymptomatic phase
8.
The only class of antibody that can cross the placenta is:
a)
epithelium
b)
IgE
c)
IgM
d)
IgE
e)
IgA
9.
The other name for antibody is:
a)
erythrocyte
b)
immunoglobulin
c)
cytoline
d)
hapten
e)
epitope
10.
The primary lymphoid organs are:
a)
Lymph Node
b)
Bone Marrow
c)
Thymus
d)
Spleen
e)
All of these
11.
The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of a a) IgG b)RhoGAM antigen d)IgE e)antihistamine
a)
IgG
b)
)RhoGAM
c)
antigen
d)
IgE
e)
antihistamine
12.
The receptors for Fc portion of antibodies could be found on:
a)
dendritic cells
b)
Macrophages
c)
Helper T cells
d)
IgM
e)
Plasma cells
13.
The rise in temperature that causes a fever is due to the hypothalamus responding to:
a)
interleukin-1.
b)
interleukin-2.
c)
gram-negative bacteria
d)
complement.
14.
The secondary response:
a)
All answers are correct
b)
Consists of mainly IgG
c)
Reaches a higher titer than primary response
d)
Is the result of re-exposure to an immunogen
e)
Lasts longer than primary response
15.
The specificity of an antibody is due to the
a)
Variable portion of light chain
b)
Constant portions of heavy and light chain
c)
Divalance nature of the molecule
d)
Variable portions of heavy and light chain
e)
Variable portion of heavy chain
16.
The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to
a)
cytokines.
b)
complement fixation.
c)
phagocytosis.
d)
antibodies against self.
e)
destruction of the antigen.
17.
The variable region or antigen-binding region is located on:
a)
Fab portion of light chain
b)
Neither light nor the heavy chain
c)
On the Fab portion of both heavy and light chains
d)
Fc region of of both light and heavy chains
e)
Fab portion of heavy chain
18.
These membrane proteins play a major role in body's rejection of transplant organ and tissue.
a)
Complement proteins
b)
MHC proteins
c)
Antibodies
d)
Cytokines
19.
To detect antibodies against HIV in a patient, you would use a(n):
a)
fluorescence-activated cell sorter.
b)
direct fluorescent antibody test.
c)
direct agglutination test.
d)
indirect ELISA
20.
Tolerance is a mechanism whereby lymphocytes directed to body antigens are destroyed before birth
a)
True
b)
False
21.
Transplant rejection is:
a)
Type I hypersensitivity
b)
Type III hypersensitivity
c)
Type IV hypersensitivity
d)
Type II hypersensitivity
22.
Traps microbes to prevent transportation to the lungs
a)
Epithelium
b)
mucous membrane
c)
alveolar phagocytes
d)
two of these
e)
mucocillary escalators (blanket)
23.
Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause
a)
autoimmunity.
b)
immunotherapy.
c)
immunologic enhancement.
d)
immunosuppression.
e)
immunologic surveillance.
24.
True or False: NK cells are components of the second line of defense.
a)
True
b)
False
25.
Type II hypersensitivity is mediated by:
a)
Antibody and complement
b)
TH1 cells
c)
any T cell
d)
None of the choices
26.
Type III hypersensitivity conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis involve
a)
The formation of immune complexes
b)
None of the choices
c)
The activation of mast cells
d)
Delayed, cell-mediated immune reactions
e)
A cytotoxic reaction
27.
What are the advantages to the immune system?
a)
all of these
b)
kills bacteria and other infectious agents
c)
kills cells infected with intra-cellular pathogens
d)
inactiviates or destroys viruses and toxins
e)
kills cancer cells
28.
What category of immunity best contains NK cells and T cells?
a)
Innate Immunity
b)
These two types of cells are NOT in the same category of immunity.
c)
Acquired/Adaptive immunity
d)
Humoral Immunity
29.
What does the activation of a complement result in?
a)
Strays away phagocytes from the area
b)
destroys membrane
c)
Lyse foreign cells, formation of membrane attack complex
d)
Assists in the formation of DNA
e)
Limits phagocytes in doing their job
30.
What does the monoclonal antibody do?
a)
destroys b cells
b)
produce antibodies to promote that antigen
c)
destroys the Tcells
d)
destroys host cells
e)
produces antibodies against that antigen
31.
What group should NOT be given live vaccines?
a)
Fever
b)
Patients with colds
c)
Animals
d)
Patients in long term hospital care
32.
What involves formation of Type III hypersensitivity?
a)
tuberculin hypersensitivity
b)
all of these
c)
allergic contact dermatitis
d)
transplantation rejection
e)
immune complexes
33.
What is a difference between memory B cells and plasma cells?
a)
Memory B cells are long-lived; plasma cells are short-live
b)
More than one answer is correct.
c)
Memory B cells are short-lived; plasma cells are long-live
d)
Memory B cells do produce antibodies; plasma cells do NOT produce antibodies.
e)
Memory B cells do NOT produce antibodies; plasma cells do produce antibodies.
34.
What is a disadvantage of an attenuated vaccine?
a)
They are antigenically weak since pathogens will NOT reproduce in host
b)
Will NOT stimulate herd immunity
c)
The killed pathogens in attenuated vaccines does NOT cause a strong immune response
d)
Vaccinated individuals can pass on the attenuated pathogen to others
e)
Pathogen can retain enough virulence to cause disease
35.
What is a lysosome?
a)
Organelle found in phagocytic cells used to recognize pathogens
b)
Organelle found in B-cells used to digest pathogens
c)
Organelle found in phagocytic cells used to bind to pathogens
d)
Organelle found in memory cells used to digest pathogens
e)
Organelle found in phagocytic cells used to digest pathogens
36.
What is meant by a primary immunodeficiency?
a)
It results from some genetic or developmental defect
b)
it develops later in life
c)
It can be induced by severe stress or malnutrition
d)
It develops as a direct consequence of some other recognized cause
37.
What is Opsonization?
a)
None of these
b)
The process in which host phagocytic cells lyse the membranes of microorganisms.
c)
The process used by microorganisms to prevent phagocytic cells from recognizing antibodies.
d)
The process in which microbes are coated by serum components for recognition by phagocytes
e)
The process used by microorganisms to avoid being coated by serum components of the host.
38.
What is the major function of B cells?
a)
The secretion of antibodies
b)
To stimulate T cells to produce antibodies to fight infections
c)
To solely circulate in the blood looking for antigens
d)
To act as intercellular mediators or signaling molecules
39.
What types of vaccines does NOT replicate or mutate to a virulent form?
a)
Help spread the message and magnify the immune response
b)
Toxoid Vaccine
c)
None of these
d)
Attenuated Vaccine
40.
When an individual is exposed to a pathogen, their body goes through a primary immune response and starts producing antibodies. What type of immunity is this?
a)
Hypersensitive immunity
b)
Active immunity
c)
Passive immunity
d)
Acute immunity
e)
Non-specific immunity
41.
Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+?
a)
anti-A, anti-Rh
b)
anti-A
c)
anti-B, anti-Rh
d)
anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh
e)
anti-B
42.
Which antibody is involved mainly in allergic reactions?
a)
IgR
b)
IgM
c)
IgG
d)
IgE
43.
Which antibody-function does NOT match?
a)
The most abundant antibody in the serum=IgG
b)
The only immunoglobulin class able to cross the placental barrier=IgG
c)
The class of immunoglobulin transferred from mother to infant during breast-feeding=IgA
d)
Antibody most probably found in tear and saliva=IgA
e)
The dominant antibody produced during the secondary immune response=IgA
44.
Which are autoimmune diseases?<br />
a)
DiGeorges Disease
b)
Rhematoid Arthritis
c)
Graves Disease
d)
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
e)
Graft vs Host Disease
45.
Which are found in lymph system?
a)
Complement Proteins
b)
Cytokine
c)
Lymphocytes
d)
Leukocyte
e)
All of these are found in lymph system
46.
Which are functions of the complement proteins?
a)
puncture cell membranes causing cell lysis
b)
unite non-specific and specific arms of the immune system to destroy and remove invading pathogens
c)
chemotactic signals that recruit phagocytes to their activation site
d)
opsinization
e)
all of these
47.
Which are the main players in cell-mediated immunity?
a)
T-cells
b)
Red blood cells
c)
Complement system
d)
B-cells
e)
Antibodies
48.
Which binds to and destroys the extracellular bacteria
a)
Antigens
b)
Antibodies
c)
Complements
d)
Interferon
e)
Acylovir
49.
Which cell classes involve in elimination of virus-infected T cell.
a)
T cells are NOT involved in elimination of infected host (self) cells
b)
Helper T cell
c)
Suppressor T cell
d)
Cytotoxic T cell
e)
Delayed Type Hypersensitivity T cells
50.
Which cells in body are the primary targets for human immunodeficiency virus
a)
B cells
b)
Stem cells
c)
CD4 cells
d)
T cells
e)
CD8 cells
51.
Which concerning the functions of complement proteins is false?
a)
may unite the nonspecific and specific arms of the immune system to destroy invading pathogens
b)
lyse foreign cells
c)
formation of membrane attack complex
d)
opsonization which refers to attracting phagocytes to the area
52.
Which DOES NOT apply to macrophages?
a)
They can recognize pathogens and bind to them directly and without help of other immune system components
b)
Their action is enhanced by complement fixation
c)
They are APC and present antigens to Helper T cells
d)
Their action is enhanced by presence of opsonin on bacteria surface
e)
All of these apply to macrophages
53.
Which does NOT pertain to complement system?
a)
It is produced by lymphocytes
b)
It consists of a set of serum proteins that (in a healthy person) circulate in inactive form
c)
It is activated by antibody-antigen complexes
d)
It enhances phagocytosis and lysis of microbes
54.
Which does NOT properly describe the secondary response?
a)
B cells undergo an anamnestic response
b)
Mainly IgM
c)
A shorter lag and a more rapid log phase
d)
Occurs after a secondary exposure to the same antigen
55.
Which immune-complex coats microbes by serum components in preparation for recognition and ingestion by phagocytic cells?
a)
Opsonization
b)
Complement fixation
c)
Neutralization
d)
Agglutination
56.
Which is a mis-match
a)
An active infection of a pathogen that you survive--Active acquired natural immunity
b)
Innate immunity--Immunity that you are born with
c)
Drinking of live attenuated polio virus--Active acquired artificial immunity
d)
Artificial passive immunity--An injection of bacteria components
e)
All of these statements match
57.
Which is a MISMATCH?
a)
Mucous membranes=first line of defense
b)
Fever=second line of defense
c)
Lymphocytes=third line of defense
d)
Phagocytosis=second line of defense
e)
Inflammation=first line of defense
58.
Which is FALSE about attenuated vaccines?
a)
chemically or thermally modified toxins are used for this vaccine
b)
It is a live vaccine but reduced virulent strain
c)
all of these
d)
pregnant women should NOT use this vaccine
e)
potential to revert to wild type or mutate to a virulent form
59.
Which is most useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies?
a)
Agglutination test
b)
Direct fluorescent antibody
c)
Neutralization test
d)
Direct ELISA
e)
Indirect ELISA
60.
Which is NOT a characteristic of antigens?
a)
They can be bound by antibodies
b)
They are generally simple molecules
c)
They can be components of bacterial cell walls
d)
They have size restrictions
e)
They can trigger an immune response
61.
Which is NOT a characteristic of B cells?
a)
They are a major part of cell-mediated immunity
b)
They are agranulocytes
c)
They are derived from lymphoid progenitor cells
d)
They are antigen presenting cells (AP
e)
They display immunoglobulin on their surface
62.
Which is NOT a component of antibodies?
a)
Fab portion
b)
Disulfide Bridges
c)
All of these are components of antibodies
d)
Fc portion
e)
Epitope
63.
Which is NOT a nonspecific defense mechanism
a)
inflammation
b)
antibody
c)
fever
d)
skin
64.
Which is NOT a Primary Immunodeficiency?
a)
Congenital agammaglobulinemia
b)
DiGeorge syndrome
c)
Severe combined immunodeficiency
d)
Chediak-Higashi disease
e)
Monoclonal gammopathy
65.
Which is NOT a secondary lymphoid organ?
a)
All of these are true.
b)
Spleen
c)
Thymus
d)
Tonsils
66.
Which is NOT an APC
a)
Macrophages
b)
T cells
c)
All of these are APCs
d)
Dendritic cells
e)
B cells
67.
Which is NOT an AUTOIMMUNE disease
a)
Serum sickness
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Multiple Sclerosis
d)
Grave's disease
e)
Myasthenia gravis
68.
Which is NOT an immune complex disease
a)
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
b)
Rheumatic fever
c)
Glomerolonephritis
d)
Systemic lupus erythematosus
69.
Which is NOT part of the 1st line of defense?
a)
Mucocilliary blanket
b)
Mucous membranes
c)
Skin
d)
Fever
e)
Naturally-occurring flora
70.
Which is NOT part of the immune system
a)
Lymphocytes
b)
White blood cells
c)
Spleen
d)
Red blood cells
e)
Lymph nodes
71.
Which is NOT part of the skin's role in immunity?
a)
Microbial antagonism
b)
Lysozyme
c)
Acts as a physical barrier
d)
Macrophages
e)
Normal flora
72.
Which is NOT true about Type I hypersensitivity?
a)
Involves formation of immune complexes
b)
Can cause anaphylaxis
c)
Can develop within seconds of exposure to an antigen
d)
Can be triggered by allergens
e)
It can cause localized or systemic reactions
73.
Which is part of the body's first line of defense?
a)
Neutrophils
b)
B-cells
c)
NK cells
d)
Alveolar macrophages
e)
T-cells
74.
Which is the most antigentic compounds
a)
Polysaccharides
b)
Proteins
c)
LPS
d)
Lipids
75.
Which is TRUE about ELISA?
a)
A type of labeled antibody test
b)
all of these
c)
used to detect either antigens or antibodies
d)
uses antibody molecules that are linked to some molecular "label" that enables them to be easily detected
76.
Which is true concerning antigen presentation?
a)
Dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells are all APC's that have MCH Class II molecules
b)
APC's play a very important role in the cell-mediated immunity.
c)
APC's work to stimulate T-helper cells to cause cloning of the cell and proliferation.
d)
All of these are true
77.
Which is true of cell mediated immunity?
a)
It activates B cells in response to extracellular pathogens
b)
It involves the production of antibodies and the formation of memory cells
c)
It activates cytotoxic T and NK cells in response to intracellular pathogens
d)
It involves the production of antibodies within cells to expel intracellular pathogens
e)
It involves the requires the recruitment of cytokines which combat extracellular pathogens
78.
Which is true of opsonins?
a)
Regulate cytokines and recruit other immune cells
b)
Prevent cell lysis by a pathogen
c)
Coat microbial cells to signal for phagocytic recognition
d)
All of these are true of opsonins
e)
Bind to antigens as a way to attract antibodies to the site of infection
79.
Which is true of T-independent antigens?
a)
They have less accessible antigenic determinants
b)
They require helper T cells
c)
Both
80.
Which is true?
a)
Inflammation is associated with dilation of capillaries to allow for increased blood flow to the region affected for a better immune response.
b)
Inflammation is an innate response that is beneficial for the human body to promote healing if it occurs in an acute form.
c)
Chronic inflammation can be dangerous as it can cause permanent tissue damage.
d)
All of these are true.
81.
Which is true?
a)
More than one of these.
b)
T cells mature in bone marrow.
c)
Examples of lymphocytes include B cells, T cells, and NK cells.
d)
B cells mature in the thymus
e)
None of these.
82.
Which is(are) TRUE of antigens
a)
Antigens could be found on the surface of bacteria
b)
Exposure to antigens results in formation of antibodies
c)
All of these are true of antigens
d)
Antigens should be large enough for the immune system to detect them
e)
Proteins are the most antigenic of all polymers
83.
Which is/are (a) phagocytic cell(s)?<br />
a)
Neutrophils
b)
Plasm cells
c)
Macrophages
d)
Monocytes
84.
Which is/are true about macrophages?
a)
All of these
b)
They are named according to the tissue in which they reside
c)
They have Fc and TLR receptors
d)
They reside in specific tissues
85.
Which is/are true of passive immunity?
a)
All of these are true of passive immunity
b)
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is when a pregnant woman passes along her antibodies to the fetus.
c)
Unlike active immunity, passive immunity does NOT have cells which continually produce antibodies.
d)
Passive immunity generally does NOT last as long as active immunity
e)
Passive immunity generally provides immediate protection
86.
Which leukocyte is NOT phagocytic?
a)
macrophages
b)
lymphocytes
c)
monocytes
d)
neutrophils
87.
Which may NOT be found in lymph system?
a)
antigens
b)
antibodies
c)
complement proteins
d)
red blood cells
e)
white blood cells
88.
Which most accurately describes how cytokines assist helper T cells?
a)
Help spread the message and magnify the immune response
b)
they do NOT assist helper T cells
c)
inhibiting secretion of specific antiviral antibodies
d)
preventing B-cell proliferation
89.
Which describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction?
a)
Antibodies are not made.
b)
Mediate by T cells.
c)
Immune complexes form.
d)
Cells are killed.
e)
Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens.
90.
Which is a possible outcome of an HIV infection?
a)
The disease does not progress to AIDS.
b)
Infection may initially be asymptomatic.
c)
There may be persistent yeast infections .
d)
Virions may remain latent.
e)
All of the answers are correct.
91.
Which is the least likely vaccine against HIV?
a)
subunit
b)
glycoprotein
c)
attenuated virus
d)
protein core
e)
All of these vaccines are equally likely.
92.
Which may result from systemic anaphylaxis?
a)
hives
b)
asthma
c)
hay fever
d)
shock
e)
immunodeficiency
93.
Which regions has the greatest distribution of HIV infection and AIDS in the world?
a)
North America
b)
South and Southeast Asia
c)
Eastern Europe and Central Asia
d)
sub-Saharan Africa
e)
Latin America
94.
Which statements about human embryonic stem cells is FALSE?
a)
They are undifferentiated.
b)
They are pluripotent.
c)
They express few MHC I antigens.
d)
They are typically obtained from the blastocyst stage of embryonic development.
e)
They express no MHC II antigens.
95.
Which statements about type I reactions is FALSE?
a)
Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils.
b)
The symptoms are due to histamine.
c)
The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen.
d)
They involve helper T cells.
e)
They involve IgE antibodies.
96.
Which statements about type IV reactions is FALSE?
a)
Reactions are primarily due to T cell proliferation.
b)
Reactions are not apparent for a day or more.
c)
Cytokines initiate tissue damage.
d)
Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example.
e)
Allergic contact dermatitis is an example.
97.
Which types of transplant is least compatible?
a)
autograft
b)
isograft
c)
xenotransplant
d)
allograft
e)
All of these types of tranplant are equally compatible.
98.
Which utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and immunotoxin?
a)
immune complex
b)
immunotherapy
c)
immunologic surveillance
d)
immunologic enhancement
e)
immunosuppression
99.
Which pairings is/are correct?
a)
IgM = Major circulating antibody
b)
None of these
c)
IgG = Involved in allergic reactions
d)
IgA = Agglutinate bacteria
e)
IgE = Major antibody in secretion
100.
Which produces hydrolytic enzymes such as lysozyme?
a)
B cells
b)
T cells
c)
Red blood cells
d)
Macrophages
e)
Complement system
101.
Which regarding vaccines is true?
a)
Inactivated vaccines have the ability to revert to wild type and causes disease.
b)
All of these are false.
c)
Live attenuated vaccines elicit a stronger immune response than inactivated vaccines as it triggers a stronger cell-mediated response.
d)
Attenuated vaccines are safe for pregnant women since the vaccine has reduced virulence.
102.
Which releases histamine?<br />
a)
Bashophiles
b)
Neutrophils
c)
Mast Cells
d)
NK Cells
e)
T cells
103.
Which would NOT bind rabbit antibodies raised against human serum containing antibodies specific for diphtheria toxoid?
a)
diphtheria toxoid
b)
human IgG anti-toxoid antibody
c)
human gamma chain
d)
human kappa chain
e)
None of these would bind to rabbit antibodies raised against human serum
104.
Which, if any, are both phagocytic and antigen presenting cells (AP?
a)
Dendritic Cells
b)
Macrophages
c)
Both of these
d)
None of these
105.
While on safari in Serengeti National Park, Tanzania, your friend ventures away from camp and is bitten by a boomslang snake v. The venom will cause hemorrhaging and death within hours. Fortunately, you are prepared and administer artificially acquired passive immunity. With what did you inject your friend?
a)
anti-venom antibiotics
b)
anti-venom antigen
c)
inactivated snake venom
d)
anti-venom antibodies
106.
White blood cells play a major role in the innate and specific responses.
a)
True
b)
False
107.
A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with
a)
tumor-specific antigens.
b)
CD+ T cells.
c)
CTLs.
d)
CTLs and activated macrophages.
e)
activated macrophages.
108.
A patient's serum is analyzed and found to have an abnormally lower titer of cells with CD8 markers. The physician will tell this patient that he has insufficient number of:
a)
B cells
b)
neutrophiles
c)
helper T cells
d)
macrophages
e)
cytotoxic T cells
109.
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
a)
autoimmunity
b)
acute contact dermatitis
c)
psoriasis
d)
delayed cell immunity
e)
innate immunity
110.
A vaccine consisting of an inactivated diphtheria toxin is called a(n):
a)
toxoid
b)
subunit vaccine.
c)
attenuated whole agent vaccine.
d)
conjugated vaccine.
111.
A xenograph is a transplant between genetically different individuals within a species.
a)
True
b)
False
112.
Adaptive immunity can assist the host in the following ways (s):
a)
Formation of antibodies
b)
Activation of complement system
c)
Activation of macrophages which destroys pathogens
d)
Killing of infected host cells by cytotoxic T helper cells
e)
All of the above
113.
AIDS patients have a CD4 cell deficiency and they are susceptible to life-threatening viral infections. Knowing this, you can conclude that
a)
Antibodies are important in fighting viruses
b)
Viral infections can be fatal
c)
Viruses are hard to treat
d)
Helper T cells are important in fighting viruses
114.
All have a role in cell-mediated immunity except:
a)
Helper T cells
b)
NK cells
c)
cytotoxic T cells
d)
All DO have role in CMI
115.
All are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT
a)
penicillin allergic reactions.
b)
asthma.
c)
pollen allergies.
d)
transplant rejections.
e)
dust allergies.
116.
All are false regarding Herceptin EXCEPT
a)
it acts as an immunotoxin to target and kill cancer cells.
b)
it is used to treat some breast cancer patients.
c)
it is a vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.
d)
it is an endotoxin that stimulates TNF by macrophages.
e)
it neutralizes the growth factor EGF.
117.
All are reasons why an HIV vaccination has not been developed EXCEPT
a)
small and inexpensive animals for vaccine research are not available.
b)
use of a weakened virus would potentially transmit the infection.
c)
HIV has a high mutation rate so one vaccination would not be effective to treat the world-wide pandemic.
d)
vaccines are not effective against viral infections.
e)
there is no known organism that can provide a model of natural immunity.
118.
All are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT
a)
it requires previous exposure to an antigen.
b)
it is synonymous with "allergy."
c)
it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time.
d)
it is due to an altered immune response.
e)
it occurs in the presence of an antigen.
119.
All are used to determine relatedness between a donor and a recipient for transplants EXCEPT
a)
HLA antigens.
b)
ABO blood group antigens.
c)
MHC antigens.
d)
HLA and MHC antigens.
e)
HLA, MHC, and ABO blood group antigens.
120.
All lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura. Which occurs first?
a)
Antibodies against haptens are formed.
b)
Antibodies and complement react with platelets.
c)
Platelets are destroyed.
d)
Drug binds to platelets.
e)
Purpura occurs on the skin.
121.
All pertain to serological tests EXCEPT
a)
reactions can be detected by uptake of trypan blue by damaged cells.
b)
they are used to test for specific HLAs on lymphocytes.
c)
they can detect antibodies but not antigens.
d)
they can be used to diagnose various diseases.
e)
they are used to detect compatible tissues for transplantation.
122.
All regarding "privileged sites" are true EXCEPT
a)
they do not have lymphatic vessels.
b)
they include corneal and brain tissue.
c)
they include any tissue transplanted from a pig.
d)
they are rarely rejected.
e)
they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting the fetus.
123.
Allergen cross linkage of cell-bond IgE molecules results in:
a)
elevated intracellular cAMP
b)
histamine release
c)
All of these
d)
mast cell degranulation
e)
activation of macrophages
124.
Allergic contact dermatitis is due to
a)
sensitized T cells.
b)
IgE antibodies.
c)
IgG antibodies.
d)
activated macrophages.
e)
IgM antibodies.
125.
Allergies to ragweed pollen, insect stings, dust, antibiotics, and food are examples of:
a)
type III antibody-antigen mediated hypersensitivity reaction
b)
Arthus reaction
c)
IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
d)
cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
126.
An immunologist working with 2 groups of antibodies each with different constant region but identical variable regions must be working with 2 different classes of antibodies
a)
True
b)
False
127.
An increase in eosinophils in a blood count could indicate what?
a)
A viral infection
b)
A bacterial disease
c)
An infection caused by foreign matter
d)
All of these
e)
A parasitic worm infection
128.
An injection of pooled human gamma globulin may provide passive immunity to humans from hepatitis A because it contains:
a)
helper T cells.
b)
antibodies.
c)
B cells.
d)
cytotoxic T cells.
129.
Antibodies can have all effects on target cells except what?
a)
agglutination
b)
lysis
c)
opsonization
d)
neutralization
130.
Antigen-antibody interaction which results in clumping and aggregation of insoluble antigens such as cells is called:
a)
Agglutination
b)
Complement fixation
c)
Neutralization
d)
Precipitation
131.
Antigens are processed and presented by dendritic cells
a)
True
b)
false
132.
Antigens coated with antibodies are NOT susceptible to phagocytosis
a)
True
b)
False
133.
Assume you mix red blood cells, antibodies against red blood cells, and complement in a test tube . What would you expect to see?
a)
agglutination of the red blood cells
b)
opsonization
c)
phagocytosis
d)
lysis of the red blood cells
134.
Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on
a)
gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5.
b)
gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor.
c)
CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor.
d)
gp120 binding to the CD4+ plasma membrane.
e)
gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor.
135.
Autoimmune diseases result from activation of self-reactive macrophages
a)
True
b)
False
136.
Autoimmunity includes?
a)
natural consequence of aging
b)
All of these
c)
presence of serum antibodies against self-antigens
d)
induced by infectious organisms and drugs
e)
often benign
137.
Bacteria can survive phagocytosis by:
a)
Inhibiting phagosome-lysosome fusion
b)
Escaping from the phagosome
c)
Surviving inside the phagosome
d)
All of these
138.
B-cells originate in the _________ and are activated in the _________.
a)
Thymus; lymph nodes
b)
Bone marrow; lymph nodes
c)
Lymph nodes; thymus
d)
Thymus; bone marrow
e)
Bone marrow; thymus
139.
Blood transfusion adverse reactions are examples of:
a)
type IV hypersensitivity.
b)
Type III autoimmunity.
c)
type I autoimmunity
d)
type II hypersensitivity.
140.
Botulinum antitoxin produced in a horse and given to a human suffering from botulism food poisoning is an example of
a)
Naturally acquired passive immunity
b)
Artificially acquired active immunity
c)
Artificially acquired passive immunity
d)
Naturally acquired active immunity
141.
CD4 or CD8 are found on surface of T cells
a)
True
b)
False
142.
Cell-mediated immunity involves:
a)
Natural killer cells
b)
Two of these
c)
Cytotoxic T cell
d)
Eosinophills
e)
B cells
143.
Cell-mediated immunity is part of the body's _________ immunity, which is part of the body's _______ line of defense.
a)
Acquired; 3rd
b)
Acquired; 1st
c)
Innate; 2nd
d)
Acquired; 2nd
e)
Innate; 1st
144.
Cell-mediated immunity provides protection through cellular systems. It provides protection by all EXCEPT:
a)
Getting rid of virus-infected cells
b)
Getting rid of altered self cells
c)
Activating the complement system
d)
Destroying cancerous cells
e)
Killing the intracellular bacteria
145.
Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all mechanisms EXCEPT
a)
blockage of viral attachment.
b)
destruction of viral ribosomes.
c)
termination of viral DNA.
d)
inhibition of viral proteases.
e)
prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA.
146.
Choose the correctly matched pair.
a)
Primary immune response to infection === long latent period
b)
Secondary immune response to infection === mainly IgM
c)
Primary immune response to infection === long lasting
d)
Secondary immune response to infection === slow acting
147.
Complexes that are found on almost all types of nucleated cells
a)
Two of these
b)
CD11B
c)
CD4
d)
MHCII
e)
MHC I
148.
Congenital immunodeficiency develops in later life
a)
True
b)
False
149.
Cross liking between bacterial cell antigens is part of:
a)
neutralization
b)
opsonization
c)
precipitation
d)
agglutination
e)
complement fixation
150.
Dendritic cells are professional phagocytic cells
a)
True
b)
False
151.
Desensitization involves injection of
a)
histamine.
b)
antihistamine.
c)
IgG antibodies.
d)
antigens.
e)
IgE antibodies.
152.
During asymptomatic phase I of HIV disease, HIV infection is diagnosed by
a)
testing for seroconversion.
b)
counting CD8+ T cells. counting CD4+ T cells.
c)
D) measuring antibodies against HIV.
d)
measuring viral RNA.
153.
Edith got bitten by a venomous snake . Her husband, Edgar, decided to treat her with a dose of horse serum. She did NOT have any problem the last time she got the serum. But, this time Edith developed some type of adverse reaction to the horse serum. What type of reaction could this be?
a)
Type IV, Delayed type hypersensitivity
b)
Complement fixation and subsequent membrane attack complex formation
c)
Type II hypersensitivity
d)
Type III hypersensitivity
e)
Type I hypersensitivity
154.
Epitopes or antigenic determinants are located on
a)
Membrane attach complex
b)
MHC proteins
c)
Antibody
d)
B cells
e)
Antigen
155.
Graft rejection is NOT likely to occur in which ?
a)
cornea
b)
bone marrow transplant
c)
liver
d)
Graft rejection is likely to occur in all of these
e)
heart
156.
Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n) a)bone marrow transplant b)RH incompatibility between mother and fetus blood transfusion d)skin graft e) corneal transplant
a)
bone marrow transplant
b)
RH incompatibility between mother and fetus
c)
blood transfusion
d)
skin graft
e)
corneal transplant
157.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an
a)
Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus.
b)
Rh- mother and an A fetus.
c)
AB mother with a B fetus.
d)
AB mother with an O fetus.
e)
Rh+ mother with an Rh- fetus.
158.
Hey fever, asthma, hives and food allergy are all manifestation of:
a)
Type III hypersensitivity
b)
Type II hypersensitivity
c)
Type IV hypersensitivity
d)
None of these
e)
Type I hypersensitivity
159.
HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on
a)
macrophages.
b)
dendritic cells.
c)
T helper cells.
d)
T helper cells and macrophages.
e)
T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
160.
How antibody may be effective against bacterial infection?
a)
opsonization
b)
all choices are correct
c)
block the attachment
d)
promote complement action
e)
neutralize the toxins
161.
How does indirect ELISA differ from direct ELISA?
a)
In direct ELISA, a secondary antibody linked to an enzyme is attached to the primary antibody.
b)
In indirect ELISA, two substrates are use
c)
In indirect ELISA, a secondary antibody linked to an enzyme is attached to the primary antibody.
d)
In direct ELISA, two substrates are use
e)
In direct ELISA, you are directly testing for an antibody of interest.
162.
How Mycobacterium may resist body defense system?
a)
Survives inside macrophages by neutralizing the hydrolytic enzymes
b)
Develops resistance to lysozyme
c)
Survives inside the macrophages by blocking its fusion with lysosome
d)
Resists phagocytosis by possessing capsule
163.
Humoral immunity is primarily directed against extracellular pathogens
a)
True
b)
False
164.
Hypersensitivity is best described as:
a)
The presence of antibodies
b)
An altered immune response
c)
Innate immunity
d)
Release of cytokines
e)
The presence of antigens
165.
Identify the incorrect statement:
a)
complement fixation: assists in lysing of bacterial cells
b)
neutralization: antibodies block binding of virus to host surface
c)
opsonization: opsonized bacteria are engulfed more readily
d)
Agglutination: cross-linked antibodies together
166.
IgE is the major circulating antibody?
a)
True
b)
False
167.
Immediate type hypersensivity involves all EXCEPT:
a)
anaphylactic reaction
b)
Mediated by IgE antibodies
c)
allergic reaction to pollen and dust
d)
Occurs almost immediately
e)
Mediated by T cells
168.
Immune cells communincate through which s:
a)
Cytokines
b)
Antibodies
c)
Antigens
d)
Perforins
e)
Complements
169.
Immunity acquired by transplacental transfer is called:
a)
artificially acquired passive immunity
b)
naturally acquired active immunity
c)
naturally acquired passive immunity
d)
artificially acquired active immunity
170.
Immunity following recovery from chickenpox is an example of:
a)
artificially acquired active immunity
b)
naturally acquired passive immunity
c)
artificially acquired passive immunity
d)
naturally acquired active immunity
171.
Immunity is created when body makes B cells and T cells specific for an antigen. This is an example of:
a)
Active immunity
b)
Passive immunity
c)
Both
d)
Neither
172.
Immunodeficiencies are a result of all EXCEPT
a)
cyclosporine.
b)
HIV infection.
c)
Hodgkin's disease.
d)
DiGeorge syndrome.
e)
autoimmune diseases.
173.
In addition to Macrophages and Dendritic cells, what other cells are phagocytic cells?
a)
Eosinophils and Basophils
b)
Basophils and Mast cells
c)
Neutrophils and Eosinophils
d)
Monocytes and Neutrophils
174.
In addition to phagocytosis, macrophages also trigger acute-phase response by releasing compound such as IL-1. IL-1 can trigger:
a)
Fever
b)
Tumoricidal activity
c)
Tissue damage
d)
None of the choices
175.
In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the structure labeled "a"?
a)
antibody
b)
antigen
c)
mast cell
d)
complement
e)
neutrophil
176.
In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of
a)
acquired immunodeficiency.
b)
immune complex autoimmunity.
c)
cytotoxic autoimmunity.
d)
cell-mediated autoimmunity.
e)
immunosuppression.
177.
In the secondary response:
a)
the response is more rapid and large amounts of IgG are produced
b)
the response is more rapid and large amounts of IgM are produced
c)
the response is slower and large amounts of IgM are produced
d)
the response is more rapid but small amount of IgG are produced
e)
the response is slower and large amounts of IgG are produced
178.
Innate immunity is:
a)
The body's defense mediated by release of antibodies
b)
ANOTher name for humoral immunity
c)
The body's defenses against all kinds of pathogens
d)
Characterized by specificity and memory
179.
Interferon, complements, lysozyme, and membrane attach complex are all examples of
a)
Immune system components produced by white blood cells
b)
Cytokines
c)
nonspecific antimicrobial response factors
d)
Immune system enzymes
e)
Specific antimicrobial response factors
180.
Interferons are types of cytokines that are primarily produced in response to:
a)
viral infection
b)
protozoan infection
c)
bacterial infection
d)
fungal infection
181.
Involved in nonspecific defense composed of tightly packed live cells that continuously shed carrying germs away from the internal surfaces
a)
epithelium
b)
mucous Membrane
c)
all of these
d)
epidermis
e)
two of these
182.
Involves antibodies directly blocking the ability of antigens to bind to a host
a)
complement fixation
b)
all of these
c)
agglutination
d)
precipitation
e)
neutralization
183.
Macrophages are mature ______________ and play a role in ____________________.
a)
Dendritic cells; phagocytosis
b)
Dendritic cells; antigen presentation (AP
c)
All of these are true.
d)
Monocytes; inflammatory response
e)
Monocytes; antigen presentation (AP
184.
Macrophages are professional phagocytic cells. In addition to ingesting and killing infections agents they are also involved in:
a)
Activating T cells
b)
Producing cytokines
c)
All of these
d)
Killing tumor cells
e)
Inducing inflammatory response
185.
Major histocompatibility complex molecules are surface proteins that identify self from non-self. Therefore Class I MHC molecules are found on ____________ cells.
a)
All anucleated
b)
All nucleated
c)
All human
d)
All blood
186.
Making antibodies against one's own molecules causes:
a)
Cell-mediated immunity
b)
Non-specific immunity
c)
Autoimmune diseases
d)
Innate immunity
e)
Passive immunity
187.
Mannose receptors on the surface of macrophages allow these cells to directly bind to surface of bacteria
a)
True
b)
False
188.
MHC II molecules are found on which cells?
a)
all of these
b)
monocytes
c)
two of these
d)
macrophages
e)
dendrites
189.
mmune globulin therapy is an example of what type of immunity?
a)
Passive natural immunity
b)
Passive artificial immunity
c)
Active artificial immunity
d)
Active natural immunity
190.
Natural killer cells most prominent role is in:
a)
intracellular pathogens
b)
more than one of these is correct
c)
cell-mediated immunity
d)
extracellular pathogens
191.
Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies from the placenta is an example of innate immunity
a)
True
b)
False
192.
NK cells and Tc cells accomplish what in the body?
a)
Produce antibodies to fight infections
b)
kill malignant cells and cells infected with pathogens
c)
De-granulate to induce inflammation
d)
Present antigens to be destroyed by macrophages
193.
Perforin is produced by __________, which results in cell ______.
a)
NK cells , lysis
b)
T cells, division
c)
B cells, maturation
d)
macrophages, division
194.
Proteins are the most antigenic polymer
a)
True
b)
False
195.
Respiratory burst is due to increase oxygen uptake by macrophages during phagocytosis
a)
True
b)
False
196.
Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of
a)
IgG and IgA complexes in joints.
b)
IgA antibodies in joints.
c)
complement in joints.
d)
IgD and IgE complexes in joints.
e)
complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.
197.
Serology is:
a)
The study of prevalence of diseases
b)
The study of blood diseass
c)
The study of infectious diseases
d)
The study of immune system components
e)
The study of interaction between antigen and antibody
198.
Superantigens stimulate T cells to proliferate nonspecifically, causing the release of massive quantities of cytokines, which leads to tissue damage
a)
True
b)
False
199.
Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to
a)
IgE antibodies.
b)
IgG antibodies.
c)
antigens.
d)
cytokines.
e)
neutrophils.
200.
T cells and Natural Killer cells target which ?
a)
infected cells
b)
altered cells
c)
cancer cells
d)
all of these
201.
The amount of antibody titer produced during the primary response is:
a)
equal to that of the secondary response
b)
less than that of the secondary response
c)
twice as high as that of the secondary response
d)
somewhat greater than that of the secondary response
202.
The cellular organelle present in some WBC's responsible for digestion of ingested infectious agents is the
a)
Golgi apparatus
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Phagosome
d)
Lysosome
e)
Lysozyme
203.
The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are
a)
antigen-antibody complexes.
b)
found in basophils and mast cells.
c)
the proteins of the complement system.
d)
antibodies.
e)
antigens.
204.
The complement system directly involves in the defensive responses of an organism by all s EXCEPT:
a)
Lysis of antibody coated bacteria
b)
Lysis of bacteria by directly attaching to the surface of bacteria
c)
Aid with phagocytosis by opsonization
d)
Promote phagocytosis by chemotaxis
e)
Removing extra-cellular bacteria
205.
The complemnt pathway that is activated by an antigen-antibody complex is the
a)
Lectin pathway
b)
Alternate pathway
c)
C3 pathway
d)
Classical pathway
206.
The Fc portion of an immunoglobulin can interact with complement system and macrophages
a)
True
b)
False
207.
The Fc region of an antibody can attach to all except what?
a)
macrophages
b)
natural killer cells
c)
antigen
d)
mast cells
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