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A&P TRIAD 4 TEST

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

The _____________________________ division of your autonomic nervous system sounds your internal alarm bells while the _____________________________________ division calms you down and conserves your energy.

a)

parasympathetic, sympathetic

b)

thoracolumbar, craniosacral

c)

craniosacral, thoracolumbar

d)

sympathetic, parasympathetic

2.
What are the divisions of the Peripheral Nervous System?
a)
Somatic & Motor
b)
Brake & Motor
c)
Somatic & Autonomic
d)
Sensory & Motor
3.
The "fight or flight" response during threatening situations in the role of the:
a)
sympathetic nervous system
b)
parasympathetic system
c)
somatic nervous system
d)
cerebellum
4.
The part of the nervous system that consists of nerves that branch out from the CNS (central nervous system) and connect to other body parts
a)
Sympathetic
b)
Parasympathetic
c)
Autonomic
d)
Peripheral
5.

What's in the picture?

a)

synaptic vesicles

b)

neurotransmitters

c)

presynaptic neuron

d)

postsynaptic neuron

e)

synaptic cleft

6.

What's in the picture?

a)

synaptic vesicles

b)

neurotransmitters

c)

presynaptic neuron

d)

postsynaptic neuron

e)

synaptic cleft

7.

Chemicals released into a cleft when an action potential reaches the terminal are called.....

a)

ligand gated ion channels

b)

synaptic vesicles

c)

neurotransmitters

d)

voltage gated ion channels

8.

Which of the following is NOT true of reflexes?

a)

They are automatic and do not require consciousness.

b)

Many, like the "pull away your hand" or "jerk your knee" reaction, originate in the spinal cord.

c)

Most occur before you even think about it.

d)

They originate in the brain and are voluntary.

e)

Many are evolved reactions meant to keep the body safe.

9.
Division of the Autonomic Nervous System (which is a subdivision of the Peripheral Nervous System) that is FIGHT OR FLIGHT
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
10.
 Division of the Autonomic Nervous System (which is a subdivision of the Peripheral Nervous System) that is & REST AND DIGEST
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
11.
What is not a response of the sympathetic nervous system?
a)
Dilation of the pupils
b)
Elevation of the heart rate
c)
Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle
d)
  increased activity of the digestive system
12.

Characteristics of the Parasympathetic Nervous System

a)

Ganglia close to the spinal cord

b)

Ganglia in/near the effectors

c)

Nerves originate from the craniosacral areas

d)

Nerves originate from the thoracolumbar area

e)

Long Pre-ganglionic neuron

13.

Characteristics of the Sympathetic Nervous System

a)

Ganglia close to the spinal cord

b)

Ganglia in/near the effectors

c)

Nerves originate from the craniosacral areas

d)

Nerves originate from the thoracolumbar area

e)

Long Pre-ganglionic neuron

14.

Hypoglossal

a)

12

b)

13

c)

14

d)

7

15.

Nerve for swallowing

a)

Facial

b)

Olfactory

c)

Hypoglossal

d)

Vagus

16.

What is the name for the cavity inside the diaphysis of a long bone?

a)

Epiphyseal Plate

b)

Medullary Cavity

c)

Periosteum

d)

Haversian Canal

17.

Remodeling is the term for removal and addition of bone. Which cells remove bone tissue?

a)

Osteocyte

b)

Osteoblast

c)

Osteoclast

18.

What is the name of the thin membrane that wraps around a long bone?

a)

Medullary cavity

b)

Periosteum

c)

Haversian Canal

d)

Spongy Bone

19.
The term ossification refers to...?
a)
the formation of bone
b)
a lack of calcium in the bones
c)
a lack of phosphorus in the bones
d)
how bones align with each other
20.
Which set of bones below belongs to the axial skeleton?
a)
Femur, patella, tibia
b)
Clavicle, scapula, humerus
c)
Carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
d)
Skull, ribs, vertebrae
21.
. Which of the following are functions of the skeletal system?
a)
   Protect softer tissues and organs
b)
 Provide points of attachment for muscles
c)
     House blood-producing cells
d)
 All of the above
22.
Bones are classified according to their 
a)
size
b)
shape
c)
location
d)
color
23.
The skeletal system can be divided into what two systems? 
a)
Maxillary and cuboid 
b)
axial and appendicular
c)
integument and myocytic
d)
long and short
24.

The term for blood cell formation

a)

osteocyte

b)

hematopoiesis

c)

osteogenesis

d)

osteoblast

25.

The ends of a bone are called

a)

epiphyses

b)

diaphyses

c)

osteoblasts

d)

lacunae

26.

Mature bone cells are called _________________

a)

osteoblasts

b)

osteoclasts

c)

osteocytes

d)

canaliculi

27.

The cells that produce bone cells are called

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoclasts

c)

osteoblasts

d)

lacunae

28.

Which description best characterizes the process of endochondral ossification?

a)

Calcium is laid down in the bone matrix

b)

Blood cells are forming in the marrow

c)

Fibrous membranes produce bones

d)

Bones form in a cartilage model

29.

What do the radius, phalanges, and tibia have in common?

a)

Irregular types of bone

b)

Classified as long bones

c)

Considered parts of the axial skeleton

d)

Parts of the upper extremities

30.

What is the function of the epiphyseal plate?

a)

Stores bone marrow

b)

Lengthens long bones

c)

Cushions the ends of long bones

d)

Stores minerals

31.

If the body is in the anatomical position, which of the following bones is the medial bone of the forearm?

a)

Humerus

b)

Scapula

c)

Radius

d)

Ulna

32.

What bone structure is indicated by the arrow in the picture?

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Articular cartilage

c)

Medullary cavity

d)

Epiphyseal plate

33.
Where are blood cells made? 
a)
Yellow marrow 
b)
Red marrow
c)
Spongy Bone 
d)
Periosteum
34.

The joints that allow the most movement are called

a)

Fixed

b)

Fibrous

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Synovial

35.

An example of a Saddle joint is in the

a)

Knee

b)

Hip

c)

Thumb

d)

Vertebral column

36.
Identify the joint action being performed.
a)
Extension
b)
Flexion
c)
Abduction
d)
Adduction
37.
Identify the joint action being performed.
a)
Extension
b)
Flexion
c)
Abduction
d)
Adduction
38.
Hip and shoulder have examples of this type of joint
a)
ball and socket
b)
condyloid
c)
hinge
d)
gliding
39.
Fibrous joints are?
a)
freely moveable
b)
partially moveable
c)
immovable
40.
The elbows, knees and phalanges are examples of this type of joint
a)
ball and socket
b)
condyloid
c)
gliding
d)
hinge
41.
What is the name of bone O?
a)
Radius
b)
Ulna
c)
Tibia
d)
Fibula
42.
What is the name of bone N?
a)
Femur
b)
Humerus
c)
Tibia
d)
Fibula
43.
What is the name of bone G?
a)
Humerus
b)
Radius
c)
Ulna
d)
Femur
44.
What is the name of bone J?
a)
Scapula
b)
Humerus
c)
Clavicle
d)
Ulna
45.
What is the name of bone H?
a)
Clavicle
b)
Scapula
c)
Sternum
d)
Radius
46.

What is a natural byproduct of muscle cell metabolism?

a)

ATP

b)

Synthesis

c)

Protein

d)

Heat

47.

What are the individual muscle fibers (cells) that are arranged in bundles called?

a)

Epimysium

b)

Perimysium

c)

Endomysium

d)

Fascicles

48.

In addition to ATP, actin and myosin what else is needed for muscle contraction (this enables actin and myosin to cross bridges)?

a)

Protein

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Phosphorus

d)

Calcium

49.

What in muscle cells stores oxygen?

a)

Glycogen

b)

Myolglobin

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Fatty acids

50.
Which of the following are made up of smooth muscles?
a)
blood vessels, biceps, and lungs
b)
biceps, lungs, and heart
c)
digestive system, lungs, blood vessels
d)
heart, lungs, digestive system
51.
What are the three main types of muscles?
a)
skeletal, cardiac, smooth
b)
biceps, triceps, quadriceps
c)
smooth, flexible, strength
d)
none of the above
52.
What is one way the muscle in your heart is similar to the muscles that connect your arms and legs?
a)
It is voluntary and be controlled by you
b)
It makes a bone in your body move back and forth
c)
It contracts and relaxes
d)
It is voluntary and happens without your thinking about it
53.
What is Isometric movement
a)
When a muscle lengthens 
b)
There is no movement at the end of the muscle
c)
When a muscle shortens 
54.

Muscles that oppose one another are

a)

synergist

b)

hateful

c)

prime movers

d)

antagonists

55.

given the following events:

1.acetycholine broken down

2.acetylcholine moves across the synaptic cleft

3.action potential reaches the terminal branch (presynaptic terminal)

4.acetylcholine combines with a receptor molecule on a skeletal muscle (postsynaptic membrane)

5.action potential produced in skeletal muscle cell


Choose the arrangement that lists the events in the order the occur at a neuromuscular injunction

a)

2,3,4,1,5

b)

3,2,4,5,1

c)

3,4,2,1,3

d)

4,5,2,1,3

56.

Which structure provides an attachment site for calcium?

a)

actin

b)

troponin

c)

tropomyosin

d)

m-line

57.

Which of the following puts the structures of the muscle in order from largest to smallest?

a)

Whole muscle, muscle fiber, actin & myosin, myofibril, muscle fasicle

b)

Whole muscle, muscle fasicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, myosin & actin

c)

Whole muscle, muscle fiber, muscle fasicle, myofibril, actin & myosin

d)

Whole muscle, muscle fasicle, muscle fiber, actin & myosin, myofibril

58.

The image shown is an example of ____________________. This happens when another action potential (stimulus) occurs BEFORE the muscle is able to RELAX (before the relaxation phase). MORE calcium (Ca2+) is released resulting in MORE binding sites being revealed. As a result, MORE force is generated in that muscle fiber. In this case, twitches add to each other (get closer together in time).

a)

treppe

b)

temporal summation

c)

complete tetanus

d)

incomplete tetanus

59.

The muscle attachment to the movable bone is the:

a)

Muscle belly

b)

Muscle body

c)

Insertion

d)

Fascicle

60.

The protein that covers the binding site on actin when a muscle is relaxed is called

a)

Troponin

b)

Myosin

c)

Tropomyosin

d)

Myofibril

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