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Course Protection APHG 3rd 9 weeks

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Countryside. Place where farming is the primary activity

a)

Urban

b)

Plantation

c)

Organic theory

d)

Rural

e)

Suburban

2.

Another word for farming or agriculture or having to do with the use or ownership of farmland.

a)

swidden

b)

suburban

c)

urban

d)

agrarian

e)

secularism

3.

Degradation of land, especially in semiarid areas, primarily because of human actions like excessive crop planting and animal grazing.

a)

desertification

b)

deforestation

c)

distance decay

d)

shifting cultivation

e)

environmental determinism

4.

Agriculture undertaken primarily to generate products for sale off the farm.

a)

Commercial agriculture

b)

Hunting and gathering

c)

Subsistance agriculture

d)

Intensive subsistance agriculture

e)

Pastoral nomadism

5.

Non-subsistence crops such as tea, cacao, coffee, and tobacco.

a)

green revolution

b)

luxury crop

c)

subsistence agriculture

d)

intertillage

e)

commercial grain farming

6.

A form commercial farming which grows specialty crops such as grapes, olives, and other fruits and vegetables.

a)

mediterranean agriculture

b)

dairy farming

c)

livestock ranching

d)

market gardening

e)

swidden

7.

Plants used in agriculture where the DNA of which has been modified to introduce a new trait to the plant which does not occur naturally int he species.

a)

Genetically modified organism

b)

Green revolution

c)

Agrarian

d)

Hybrid crops

e)

Organic Theory

8.

A movement which coincides with the industrial revolution where farmers developed new techniques of farming and used new tools like the seed drill or McCormick Reaper. While still relying on animal power, production increased dramatically.

a)

1st agricultural revolution

b)

2nd agricultural revolution

c)

global exchange

d)

green revolution

e)

3rd agricultural revolution

9.

A form of commercial farming which focuses on the development, distribution and sale of milk, cheese and butter.

a)

livestock ranching

b)

dairy farming

c)

mediterranean agriculture

d)

milkshed

e)

swiss cheese program

10.

The clearing of rows in the field through the use of hoes, rakes, and other manual equipment.

a)

double cropping

b)

commodity chain

c)

swidden

d)

intertillage

e)

terrace farming

11.

The transition from hunting and gathering to plant domestication about 10,000 years ago.

a)

2nd agricultural revolution

b)

green revolution

c)

3rd agricultural revolution

d)

global exchange

e)

1st agricultural revolution

12.

Destruction of forests for food production.

a)

deforestation

b)

distance decay

c)

desertification

d)

debt-for-nature swap

e)

deindustrialization

13.

Also known as market gardening. A form of commercial agriculture specializing in growing vegetable for the market.

a)

mediterranean agriculture

b)

dairying

c)

von thunen's model

d)

shifting cultuvation

e)

truck farming

14.

Form of farming where farmers must work more intensively to subsist on a parcel of land and all possible farm land that can be farmed is?

a)

commercial grain farming

b)

shifting cultivaiton

c)

market gardening

d)

pastoral nomadism

e)

intensive subsistence agriculture

15.

Large parcel of land, expensive farming equipment, and few workers is indicative of which type of agriculture?

a)

commercial

b)

wet rice intensive

c)

subsistence

d)

slash and burn

e)

nomadic herding

16.

When was agriculture first developed?

a)

approximately 3,000 years ago

b)

approximately 30,000 years ago

c)

approximately 10,000 years ago

d)

approximately 20,000 years ago

e)

approximately 5,000 years ago

17.

Which of the following descriptions illustrates the 3rd agricultural revolution?

a)

loss of farmland, degradation of soil, loss of farm jobs, loss of traditional varieties of plants

b)

use of biotechnology, expansion of mechanization of agriculture and reduction of farms

c)

sudden inability to feed the growing population as predicted by Malthus

d)

benefits of industrial revolution, use of technology to increase production and distribution

e)

a shift from hunting and gathering to planting crops to animal domestication

18.

Which of the following descriptions illustrates the 1st agricultural revolution?

a)

benefits of industrial revolution, use of technology to increase production and distribution

b)

loss of farmland, degradation of soil, loss of farm jobs, loss of traditional varieties of plants

c)

sudden inability to feed the growing population as predicted by Malthus

d)

a shift from hunting and gathering to planting crops to animal domestication

19.

Northern Africa, Russia, and Southwest Asia would most likely have which type of agriculture?

a)

slash and burn agriculture

b)

commercial agriculture

c)

subsistence rice agriculture

d)

nomadic herding

20.

Which matches up with the definition of food security and a country which lacks food security?

a)

access to safe, nutritious food; Chad

b)

high average of caloric intake; United States

c)

access to affordable, nutritious food; Brazil

d)

access to enough calories but not enough nutrients; China

21.

Which of the following allowed hunter gatherers to increase in population and have more reliable food sources?

a)

agricultural surplus

b)

inter-tribal coorperation

c)

better weapons

d)

medicinal herbs

22.

Which of the following crops would most likely be grown on terraced land?

a)

Coffee

b)

Grapes

c)

Rice

d)

Corn

23.

Livestock ranching would be located on which ring of Von Thunen's model?

a)

inner most

b)

outer most

c)

middle

d)

center

24.

Maize, beans, and squash were foods traditional grown in

a)

SW Asia

b)

Mesoamerica

c)

Oceania

d)

Sub-saharan Africa

25.

During recent years, Green Revolution scientists have

a)

focused on political issues of agriculture in developing countries

b)

focused on techniques of organic farming

c)

produced seeds for a greater variety of crop

d)

focused primarily on developing new strains of wheat and corn

26.

Which of the following crops would most likely be grown at a large scale in the central parts of continents?

a)

grapes

b)

wheat

c)

durian

d)

almonds

27.

Which of the following crops was domesticated in the region we know today as Ethiopia approximately 1200 years ago?

a)

coffee

b)

squash

c)

corn

d)

pineapples

28.

Which of the following is the least likely to be defined as a luxury crop?

a)

cocoa

b)

tea

c)

cotton

d)

tobacco

29.

Farmers that grow foods for their own consumption, use little technology, and work on small farms are typically

a)

involved in swidden sgriculture

b)

hunter and gatherers

c)

commercial farmers

d)

subsistence farmers

30.

Form of farming where farmers must work more intensively to subsist on a parcel of land and all possible farm land that can be farmed is?

a)

commercial grain farming

b)

shifting cultivaiton

c)

market gardening

d)

pastoral nomadism

e)

intensive subsistence agriculture

31.

Which of the following is the above urban structure?

a)

Burgess Concentric zone

b)

Hoyt Sector

c)

Harris and Ullman Multiple Nuclei

d)

Galactic City

32.

Which of the following is the above urban structure?

a)

Burgess Concentric zone

b)

Galactic City

c)

Hoyt Sector

d)

Ullman Harris Multiple Nuclei

33.

Which of the following is the above urban structure?

a)

Hoyt Sector

b)

Burgess Concentric zone

c)

Harris and Ullman Multiple Nuclei

d)

Latin American City

34.

Which of the following is the above urban structure?

a)

Hoyt Sector

b)

Ullman Harris Multiple Nuclei

c)

Galactic City

d)

Burgess Concentric zone

35.

Which of the following is the above urban structure?

a)

Latin American City

b)

African City

c)

Southeast Asian city

d)

Concentric Zone

36.

Which of the following is the above urban structure?

a)

Latin American City

b)

African City

c)

Southeast Asain

d)

Concentric Zone

37.
Area of a city where retail and office activities are clustered
a)
Central Business District (CBD)
b)
Central place
c)
Clustered rural settlement
d)
Urbanized Area
e)
Edge City
38.
A large node of office and retail activities on the edge of an urban area
a)
Edge City
b)
City-state
c)
Megacity
d)
Megalopolis
e)
Primate city
39.
Metropolitan area with more than 10 million people
a)
Megacity
b)
City-state
c)
Edge City
d)
Megalopolis
e)
Primate city
40.
A process of converting an urban neighborhood from a predominantly low-income renter-occupied area to a predominantly middle-class owner-occupied area
a)
Gentrification
b)
Filtering
c)
Annexation
d)
Conurbation
e)
New Urbanism
41.
A form of growth that is designed to limit the amount of urban sprawl and preserve nature and usable farmland. Provides connection between people and businesses and are more environmental and community friendly because of their easily walkable distances and frequent encounters between citizens. Examples: Avalon Park, Celebration Florida.
a)
Filtering
b)
Gentrification
c)
Annexation
d)
Conurbation
e)
New Urbanism
42.
A ring of land maintained as parks, agricultural, or other types of open space to limit the sprawl of an urban area
a)
Greenbelt
b)
City-state
c)
Edge City
d)
Megalopolis
e)
Primate city
43.
The largest settlement in a country, if it has more than twice as many people as the second-ranking settlement
a)
Megalopolis
b)
Megacity
c)
City-state
d)
Edge City
e)
Primate city
44.
Legislation and regulations to limit suburban sprawl and preserve farmland
a)
Smart Growth
b)
Threshold
c)
Range
d)
Public Housing
e)
Gentrification
45.

A pattern of settlements in a country, such that the nth largest settlement is 1/n the population of the largest settlement. For example, the 3rd largest settlement is ⅓ the size of the largest settlement.

a)

Zoning Ordinance

b)

Rank-size rule

c)

Law of the Indies

d)

Enclosure movement

e)

Central Place Theory

46.
An area within a city in a less developed country in which people illegally establish residences on land they do not own or rent and erect homemade structures.
a)
Dispersed rural settlement
b)
Clustered rural settlement
c)
Economic base
d)
Squatter Settlement
e)
Urbanized Area
47.
A process by which banks draw lines on a map and refuse to lend money to purchase or improve property within the boundaries.
a)
Rush Hour
b)
Underclass
c)
Redlining
d)
Gentrification
e)
New Urbanism
48.

Metropolitan area with more than 20 million people

a)

Megacity

b)

City-state

c)

Metacity

d)

Megalopolis

e)

Primate city

49.
A process by which banks draw lines on a map and refuse to lend money to purchase or improve property within the boundaries.
a)
Rush Hour
b)
Underclass
c)
Redlining
d)
Gentrification
e)
New Urbanism
50.
What was the first hearth of civilization?
a)
Peru
b)
Nile
c)
Indus
d)
Mesopotamia
51.

Some real estate agents used scare tactics to get white neighbors to sell. This is an example of

a)

redlining

b)

greenlining

c)

blockbusting

d)

ghettoization

52.

Patterns of ethnic clustering within metropolitan areas is determined by residential choice and

a)

access to high paying jobs

b)

partly by discrimination

c)

all are dispersed immigrants

d)

economic benefits of being a minority

53.
The maximum distance people are willing to travel to use a service
a)
Service
b)
Market area
c)
Settlement
d)
Range
e)
Sprawl
54.

Many medium-sized metropolitan areas such as Charlotte, North Carolina, have added light-rail train systems to their public-transit networks. Which of the following best explains the goals of light-rail projects?

a)

Reduce highway accident numbers due to unsafe driving and outdated, less-safe vehicles

b)

Protect wetlands and local lakes from water pollution caused by industrial waste discharge

c)

Reduce the ecological footprint of cities and reduce the air pollution created by vehicle exhaust

d)

Redevelop urban brownfields and promote farmland protection policies that reduce urban sprawl

55.

Which of the following is considered a periphery country?

a)

India

b)

China

c)

Mexico

d)

Thailand

56.

The above model is a representation of

a)

Christaller's Central Place theory

b)

Ullmans Multiple Nuclei theory

c)

Wallerstien's World Systems theory

d)

Malthusian theory

57.

Which of the following exemplifies a smart-growth approach to urban planning?

a)

Construction of wider highways in an effort to lessen congestion

b)

Conversion of farmland to housing to encourage migration to suburbs

c)

Creation of zoning laws that separate retail space from housing developments

d)

Creation of walkable neighborhoods with mixed-use land and access to public transportation

58.

Which of the following is a correct statement about the major cities of the world?

a)

Most are located on rivers or seacoasts.

b)

Most are found in areas that are not very suitable for agriculture.

c)

Most primate cities are located in the United States and western Europe.

d)

They are concentrated between the tropic of Cancer and the tropic of Capricorn.

59.

Which of the following defines Chicago’s position in relation to the infrastructure of the United States?

a)

site

b)

situation

c)

absolution direction

d)

vernacular region

60.

New urbanism, smart growth and the construction of greenbelts are efforts to...

a)

combat or reduce urban sprawl

b)

industrialize LDC's

c)

encourage further urban sprawl

61.

In what country did the Industrial Revolution begin in the late-1700s?

a)

Spain

b)

Europe

c)

Britain

d)

Italy

62.
1.  Soda bottling is an example of a
a)
 perishable industry.
b)
 labor intensive industry.
c)
 bulk-gaining industry.
d)
 communications-oriented industry.
63.
A company which uses more than one mode of transport will often locate near what?
a)
Factory
b)
Consumer Products 
c)
Raw materials 
d)
Break-of-bulk Point
64.
What are the factories in Mexico called?
a)
Mariachi
b)
Maquiladoras
c)
Commercial Factories
d)
No factories in Mexico
65.
Targets generally have Best Buys, Sally Beauty Salons, Famous Footwear, JC Penny, & Petsmarts near them. This is known as what? 
a)
Maquiladora Industires
b)
Just-in-time planning
c)
Agglomerations
d)
Outsourcing
66.
A Doctor or Lawyer would be in which economic sector?
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Qinary
67.
The term used for a country with high birth rates, high death rates, little economic growth, and a high population in the primary sector.
a)
MDC
b)
LDC
c)
HDI
d)
GNP
68.
Mining and farming are part of which economic sector?
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Quaternary
69.
Whose development model consists of a 5 stage process that countries go through as they develop economically?
a)
Losch 
b)
Rostow 
c)
Wallerstein 
d)
Weber
70.
Which movement has aims to improve economic prospects for producers and laborers in LDCs?
a)
fair trade 
b)
maquiladora movement
c)
sustainability initiative
d)
World Trade Organization
71.
Which region of the world has no core countries?
a)
North America
b)
Western Europe
c)
Oceania
d)
Sub-Saharan Africa
72.
Farming, mining, fishing, and forestry are all considered to be
a)
Primary Economic Activities
b)
Secondary Economic Activities
c)
Tertiary Economic Activities
d)
Quaternary Economic Activities
73.
Created by Wallerstein to show that the world is interconnected and that we are all interdependent on each other.  Divides us into three tiers of economic prosperity.
a)
Dependency Theory
b)
Neo liberal counterrevolution
c)
structural adjustment loan
d)
World Systems theory
74.
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
a)
hydroelectricity
b)
oil
c)
coal
d)
fossil fuel
75.

Model that argues the more developed countries exploit poorer, less developed countries for their resources, etc. but that these poorer, less developed countries cannot survive without being exploited.

a)

Christaller's theory

b)

least cost theory

c)

bid-rent theory

d)

core-periphery model

76.

Factories built by US companies in Mexico near the US border, to take advantage of much lower labor cost in Mexico.

a)

Technopoles

b)

Maquiladores

c)

Telenovelas

d)

Esperantos

77.

This sector would include the top executives or officials in such fields as government, science, universities, nonprofit, etc.,

a)

Primary sector

b)

Quinary sector

c)

Secondary sector

d)

Quaternary sector

78.

An industry in which the final product weighs less or compromises a lower volume than the inputs.

a)

Qutsourcing

b)

Bulk-reducing industry

c)

Footloose industry

d)

Break-of-Bulk point

79.

Prior to the rise of the industrial revolution inGreat Britain, textile were manufactured in small, rural factories creating an industry known as

a)

cottage inductry

b)

light industry

c)

footloose industry

d)

textile industry

80.

Many corporate headquarters relocated in the USA where products design takes place. The actual manufacturing takes place overseas. What economic activity is conducted at corporate headquarters in this case?

a)

quaternary

b)

quinary

c)

primary

d)

secondary

81.

According to Weber, a bread manufacturer would choose to locate its factory close to a large population of people because

a)

bread is very perishable

b)

the finished product is bulk gaining

c)

baking is a footloose industry

d)

the finished product is bulk reducing

82.

When it is time to ship goods that have been manufactured, the lowest cost long distance freight is by which of the following modes of transport?

a)

truck

b)

airplane

c)

ship

d)

train

83.

In a post-industrial society, hourly workers would most likely be able to find employment working in which of the following?

a)

primary economic activities

b)

quaternary economic activities

c)

quinary economic activities

d)

tertiary economic activities

84.

Consumer and Business services would NOT be prevalent in what stage of Rostow's Modernization Model?

a)

drive to maturity

b)

high mass consumption

c)

traditional

d)

preconditions to takeoff

85.

What is the primary locational factor for locating a service?

a)

access to transfer points

b)

break of bulk points

c)

proximity to natural resources

d)

proximity to markets

86.

Maquiladoras in northern Mexico depend on low cost Mexican labor to inexpensively create expensive finished products. This most reflects which geographic principle?

a)

core-periphery model

b)

dependency ratio

c)

demographic transition

d)

push factor

87.

Which of these activities occurs nearest the market according to Weber's Least Cost Theory?

a)

paper production

b)

processing which makes the final product lighter than raw materials

c)

processing of raw materials into heavier finished products

d)

environmentally friendly production

88.
Which statement best describes an immediate result of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) selling oil above market value?
a)
The United States would increase research for alternative fuels 
b)
Oil prices in the United States would rise
c)
The United States would halt the sale of fuel to China
d)
Oil production in the United States would rise
89.
What does OPEC stand for?
a)
Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
b)
Oil of Political Economic Countries
c)
Organization of People Economic Communitities
d)
Oil People Economically Consume
90.
Why was the European Union formed? 
a)
to treat countries as one nation
b)
to unite Europe economically 
c)
to control how farmers and other primary workers get paid
d)
to give workers equal wages

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