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Midterm Review

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The leadership trait that gives the energy to do a job and the inspiration to encourage others is called:

a)

courage.

b)

enthusiasm.

c)

honesty.

d)

tact.

2.

Jamie is researching parliamentary law. Which is the highest-ranking motion?

a)

Adjourn

b)

Amendment

c)

Main motion

d)

Refer to a committee

3.

The most effective way for small animal students to develop leadership qualities is through:

a)

participation in FFA activities.

b)

studying animal science.

c)

trips to the animal shelter.

d)

watching videos.

4.

During the meeting, the chapter president tapped the gavel three times, which was followed by all members:

a)

leaving.

b)

sitting down.

c)

standing.

d)

voting by ballot.

5.

Jonathan refers to Robert’s Rules of Order during the club business meeting. What is the most likely reason?

a)

To find out who will be the guest speaker for the meeting

b)

To get the names of all absent members

c)

To give a ruling on parliamentary law

d)

To read the minutes from the last meeting

6.

When difficult conditions occur, courage is an important quality because it:

a)

helps one move forward anyway.

b)

keeps one awake at night.

c)

never offends anyone.

d)

places one's own desires first.

7.

A pet store owner using people, resources, and processes to reach a goal is:

a)

managing.

b)

owning.

c)

planning.

d)

selling.

8.

Betty wants to develop her leadership skills. The part of the small animal care instructional program that will best help her is:

a)

classroom.

b)

FFA.

c)

laboratory.

d)

Supervised Agriculture Experience.

9.

The component of the small animal instructional program that gives students an opportunity to explore interests and gain work experience is the:

a)

classroom.

b)

FFA.

c)

state FFA convention.

d)

Supervised Agriculture Experience.

10.

Caroline is giving a persuasive speech to the "Pocket Pet Pals" of Wake County on the advantages of cage sanitation. What is most likely her goal for the speech?

a)

Convince people to keep animals' environments clean

b)

Entertain the group with stories about her pets

c)

Give information on pocket pets' cage construction and cost

d)

Introduce herself to the audience

11.

Scott is speaking at the county Small Animal Veterinarian Association meeting. Due to a lack of time to prepare, he uses a speech he prepared earlier about livestock diseases. Why is the speech inappropriate for the meeting?

a)

Age of speech

b)

Length of the speech

c)

Type of audience

d)

Who is speaking

12.

Hannah is giving a speech about the construction and cost of rabbit cages. What is most likely the purpose of her speech?

a)

Entertain the audience with stories of how her rabbit escaped

b)

Express anger over the use of rabbits in research

c)

Inform her audience about economics of different rabbit cages

d)

Persuade her audience to let rabbits loose from cages

13.

What component of the small animal instructional program includes the purpose of developing communication skills and confidence through competitive events?

a)

Classroom

b)

FFA

c)

Laboratory

d)

Supervised Agricultural Experience

14.

Silas is called upon by his old FFA Advisor to bring greetings at the annual FFA Banquet. Since Silas was not given advance notice to prepare the speech, what will he most likely do?

a)

Recite the FFA Creed that he learned 10 years ago

b)

Speak extemporaneously with few notes

c)

Give a speech he has memorized

d)

Use parliamentary procedure

15.

Dr. O’Donnell is giving a speech to small animal veterinary technicians. Which is the most appropriate topic for the speech?

a)

How genetics affects marbling of meat

b)

Marketing corsages for commercial greenhouses

c)

New weed control methods for field crops

d)

Zoonosis and pet care providers

16.

If Fred believes that a parliamentary error has been made, then he should:

a)

call for a division of the assembly.

b)

move to adjourn the meeting.

c)

move to suspend the rules.

d)

rise to a point of order.

17.

Mark presented a motion that will limit the rights of a member. Which type of vote must be used?

a)

Simple majority

b)

Two-thirds majority

c)

Unanimously favorable

d)

Voice

18.

During the meeting, the chapter president tapped the gavel one time, which was followed by all members:

a)

leaving.

b)

sitting down.

c)

standing.

d)

voting by ballot.

19.

The chairperson required everyone to vote using a paper ballot because the members needed to:

a)

debate a topic.

b)

form a committee.

c)

introduce a motion.

d)

nominate a new president.

20.

If Anthony presents a motion that requires a two-thirds majority vote, the motion involves:

a)

the approval of minutes.

b)

the election of officers.

c)

passing a main motion.

d)

stopping debate.

21.

If a member wants to improve a main motion by adding words, substituting words, or striking out words, the member moves to:

a)

adjourn the meeting.

b)

amend the motion.

c)

refer to a committee.

d)

take from the table.

22.

The leadership quality that means reliable support for an individual, group, or cause is:

a)

enthusiasm.

b)

loyalty.

c)

tact.

d)

unselfishness.

23.

Because students' interests change and new skills are developed throughout high school, student's SAEs should change and grow to:

a)

be based on activities completed in class.

b)

align with their career plan.

c)

be instructor led.

d)

stay the same.

24.

Being aware of job hazards and focusing on the importance of employee wellbeing is a major part of understanding:

a)

career exploration and planning.

b)

personal financial planning.

c)

agricultural literacy.

d)

workplace safety.

25.

A document often used in an entrepreneurship Supervised Agricultural Experience is a:

a)

labor resources report.

b)

employer evaluation.

c)

business plan.

d)

research plan.

26.

Students should complete a personal budget considering their future career as part of which area of their foundational SAE?

a)

career exploration and planning

b)

personal financial planning

c)

agricultural literacy

d)

workplace safety

27.

The type of SAE that enables students to work cooperatively, but allows for the risk of the business to be held by the agriculture program is:

a)

placement.

b)

experimental.

c)

entrepreneurship.

d)

school-based enterprise.

28.

A type of SAE that helps provide for a community need is:

a)

analytical.

b)

invention.

c)

placement.

d)

service learning.

29.

Since a good career choice is based on one's personal interest, which career is best for a person who enjoys working with people and small animals?

a)

florist

b)

pet groomer

c)

dump truck driver

d)

golf course superintendent

30.

Which part of the foundational SAE did Amber complete when she filled in an interest inventory to determine a future job?

a)

workplace safety

b)

agricultural literacy

c)

career exploration and planning

d)

employability skills for college and career readiness

31.

If the financial statement of a pet grooming business lists total liabilities of $400,000 and a net worth of $100,000, what is the debt-to-equity ratio?

a)

1:01

b)

1:03

c)

4:01

d)

4:04

32.

If a veterinary office has total assets of $500,000 and total liabilities of $200,000, what amount should be entered on the net worth line of a financial statement?

a)

$100,000

b)

$300,000

c)

$400,000

d)

$700,000

33.

When preparing a financial statement for his vet clinic improvements, Dr. Josh had to include the amount of mortgages that are not due this year as:

a)

current assets.

b)

current liabilities.

c)

noncurrent assets.

d)

noncurrent liabilities.

34.

If a business has $10,000 cash on hand, $25,000 in a checking account, and land valued at $300,000, on which line of a financial statement should the $335,000 total be entered?

a)

Current assets

b)

Net worth

c)

Total assets

d)

Total liabilities

35.

If a small animal breeder has a $250,000 mortgage on his land, and he owes Farm Credit Service $30,000 for this year’s payment, what amount should be entered on the noncurrent liability line of the financial statement?

a)

$30,000

b)

$220,000

c)

$250,000

d)

$280,000

36.

Cash and things that are owned by the individual or the business for which a financial statement is prepared are listed as:

a)

assets.

b)

equity.

c)

liabilities.

d)

working capital.

37.

If a pet groomer has $6,000 cash on hand and $30,000 in a checking account, on which line of a financial statement should the $36,000 total be entered?

a)

Current assets

b)

Net worth

c)

Total assets

d)

Total liabilities

38.

If a pet store owner has a $500,000 mortgage on her land and buildings, and she owes Farm Credit Service $60,000 for this year’s mortgage payment, what amount should be entered on the current liability line of the financial statement?

a)

$60,000

b)

$440,000

c)

$500,000

d)

$560,000

39.

Susan is seeking a loan to start a pet grooming service. She is asked to complete a net worth statement, so the bank can determine her:

a)

current assets.

b)

equity.

c)

inventory.

d)

total liabilities.

40.

Spaying is the best medical procedure to remove:

a)

bacteria.

b)

ovaries.

c)

testicles.

d)

viruses.

41.

Vaccines for hepatitis are most likely a direct result of using small animals for:

a)

circus acts.

b)

companion animals.

c)

pets.

d)

research.

42.

A biopsy is the best procedure to perform when:

a)

cleaning a surface to prevent infection.

b)

inserting a tube to drain fluids.

c)

keeping animals from mating.

d)

removing tissue for diagnosis.

43.

"Itis" is the best suffix to use with medical terminology to indicate the animal has:

a)

a flow or discharge.

b)

an inflammation.

c)

been operated on.

d)

no blood.

44.

A veterinarian who orders a sick animal to be kept away from other small animals is most concerned the animal may:

a)

have an infectious disease.

b)

keep other animals from eating.

c)

play with other animals.

d)

sleep all the time.

45.

What small animal worker is most likely responsible for bathing, brushing, and trimming pets’ nails and hair?

a)

Animal groomer

b)

Biologist

c)

Dealer

d)

Lab animal breeder

46.

Animals kept for animal acts, marine mammal shows, and circuses are most likely kept by:

a)

biologists.

b)

exhibitors.

c)

kennel attendants.

d)

veterinarians.

47.

Compared to other costs for pet owners, expenses toward veterinary care, medicine, and supplies:

a)

are the largest.

b)

are the smallest.

c)

rank third behind the cost of grooming and toys.

d)

rank second to the cost of toys.

48.

Which small animals usually require the most veterinary expenses?

a)

Birds

b)

Cats

c)

Dogs

d)

Fish

49.

What career most likely involves treating and controlling animal injuries and diseases?

a)

Animal groomer

b)

Lab animal breeder

c)

Pet shop counselor

d)

Veterinarian

50.

A person who feeds and cares for animals and cleans cages is a:

a)

dog trainer.

b)

kennel attendant.

c)

small animal breeder.

d)

veterinary technician.

51.

The best prefix to use with medical terminology that means before the treatment is:

a)

post.

b)

anti.

c)

dys.

d)

pre.

52.

What is the best description of small animals such as hamsters, guinea pigs, and mice?

a)

Canines

b)

Felines

c)

Pocket Pets

d)

Scruff Pets

53.

The belief that animals are not to be used by humans for any purpose is most likely held by people who believe in:

a)

animal rights.

b)

animal welfare.

c)

hunters rights.

d)

wearing furs.

54.

PETA is the largest animal:

a)

breed association in the world.

b)

control agency in the United States.

c)

rights group in the world.

d)

welfare group in the state.

55.

Megan is receiving a series of shots after having been bitten by a feral cat. For what viral disease is she most likely being treated?

a)

Psittacosis

b)

Rabies

c)

Ringworm

d)

Salmonellosis

56.

June was diagnosed by the doctor as having toxoplasmosis. She was shocked to learn that the most likely source of her sickness came from:

a)

bird feces.

b)

cat feces.

c)

dog bites.

d)

tick bites.

57.

Groups in the animal rights movement are most likely to use:

a)

actors to promote wearing fur.

b)

advertisements to encourage people to eat more beef.

c)

ecoterroism to prevent the use of animals by humans.

d)

open hunting seasons for all game.

58.

Why is it an unsafe practice for Regan to save extra flea dip in an empty gallon milk container?

a)

Accidental poisoning can occur.

b)

Chemicals get stronger with age.

c)

Chemicals get weaker with age.

d)

Explosion may occur if dip mixes with milk.

59.

Scott caught a garter snake and box turtle that he intends to keep as pets. His mother encourages him to be careful to wash his hands after handling these animals to avoid what bacterial disease?

a)

Lyme disease

b)

Rabies

c)

Salmonellosis

d)

Strep throat

60.

Which had the most influence on early laws enacted to protect animals?

a)

Animal rights

b)

Animal welfare

c)

Human welfare

d)

Human rights

61.

Animal welfare groups are most likely against:

a)

eating meat.

b)

treating animals cruelly.

c)

using animals for experiments.

d)

using animals for human purposes.

62.

When Dr. Aaron trains his assistants, he explains that placing a rabbit on a smooth surface is a bad practice because the animal:

a)

can escape quickly.

b)

has fur on its foot pads that prevent traction and may result in injury if it tries to move.

c)

leaves germs to infect the next animal placed on the table.

d)

sees a mirror image in the surface and becomes upset that another rabbit is present.

63.

Sarah is examining an injured cat’s neck. How can she easily prevent the cat from scratching her and avoid injury to the animal at the same time?

a)

Hold the cat’s hind legs with one hand while using the other hand to examine the injury

b)

Lay the cat on its side and hold it down with both hands while looking at the injury

c)

Wrap each paw of the animal with a sterile bandage prior to doing the exam

d)

Wrap the cat in a blanket leaving only the head and neck exposed

64.

Sandy received a cat bite the first day she was a veterinary assistant. What is the most probable cause of the bite?

a)

The cat did not want to be disturbed from the nap it was taking in Sandy’s arms.

b)

The cat had a case of undetected rabies.

c)

A dog was heard in the next room.

d)

The cat received improper handling due to Sandy’s inexperience.

65.

Veterinary clinic contamination can best be prevented by:

a)

eating lunch in the treatment room.

b)

frequently washing hands and wearing protective clothing.

c)

placing a first aid kit in every room of the clinic.

d)

treating all sick animals at one time.

66.

Kim briefly restrains her black lab by having the dog sit, placing one arm under its neck with the forearm holding the dog’s head, and at the same time, using the other arm and hand to:

a)

grip the dog’s muzzle and force it down to the chest of the animal.

b)

pin the dog’s tail around to its side and over its back.

c)

pull the dog’s front feet close to its chest while lifting the dog from the floor.

d)

wrap around and pull the dog’s body close to her body.