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Chapter 44 practice quiz Part 2

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define Rheumatoid Arthritis

a)

chronic, inflammatory autoimmune disease of the joint

b)

chronic, systemic, inflammatory autoimmune disease of the joints.

c)

degenerative joint disease

d)

degenerative bone disease

2.

RA is the least serious of all arthritic diseases

a)

True

b)

False

3.

In a patient you suspected of having RA, which of the following subjective symptoms would you expect?

a)

morning stiffness

b)

fevers

c)

joint pain

d)

fatigue

e)

bilateral joint pain

4.

For the same RA patient, which objective data would you expect to see?

a)

swelling of the joints

b)

fatigue

c)

muscle aches

d)

fever

e)

irritation

5.

What is the catalyst for RA "Flares"

a)

Idiopathic

b)

antigens against the ligaments of the joints

c)

stress

d)

low hemoglobin hematocrit

e)

excess of proteins in the body

6.

Which diagnostic tests would be used for a patient suspected of having RA?

a)

ESR

b)

Synovial Fluid Aspiration

c)

RF factor

d)

Anti-RO

e)

ANA

7.

What is the main treatment class for RA?

a)

antivirals

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

DMARDS

d)

Salicylates

e)

COX-2 Inhibitors

8.

Besides DMARD's which alternative medication classes are likely to be furnished to patients with RA?

a)

Salicylates

b)

NSAIDS

c)

COX -2 Inhibitors

d)

Antimalarial

e)

Antineoplastic Drugs

9.

In RA intermittent immobilization the joint is crucial so as to slow inflammation

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Beside physical activity what other nursing intervention/treatments are used for RA patients?

a)

cryotherapy

b)

balancing rest and activities

c)

heat therapy

d)

Fall precautions

e)

use of orthopedic devices

11.

What is the prognosis for Rheumatoid Arthritis?

a)

manageable with antivirals combined with vitamin D

b)

chronic with periods of remission which grow further apart as the disease develops

c)

Chronic with stages 1(minimal) - 5(terminal)

d)

Chronic, yet limited to a singal organ

12.

What are MRI's typically used to find?

a)

abnormalities of the bone

b)

abnormalities of the joint

c)

internal bleeding

d)

internal inflammation

13.

Do patients undergoing an MRI need any special precautions.

a)

CBC for phosphorus levels

b)

removal of all metal items

c)

Isolation following to protect others from radiologic specimens

d)

special eye pads to reduce the risk of becoming blind

14.

What is phantom pain?

a)

Pain where inflammation cannot be detected by ESR/WBC's

b)

pain in an amputated limb

c)

pain associated with psychosis

d)

pain behind the inner cantus of the eye. Not real, yet is produces by false brain signals

15.

What causes phantom pain

a)

nerves at amputated site still send messages to the brain

b)

Overabundance of RBC's at the site causes pressure

16.

What is the treatment options for a client with unmanaged Phantom Pain?

a)

Amputate the lib at a higher spot

b)

inserting procaine into the stump

c)

repeatedly hitting the limb against something

d)

prescribing a sympathetic nerve block

e)

Encourage the patient psychologically

17.

During the healing stage of a fracture, what is the purpose of Callus's?

a)

creates inflammation around the site to protect it

b)

to form a bony deposit between and around the ends of the broken bone

c)

mature osteoblasts that lay the ground work as well as create the new bone

d)

tear down old bone

e)

strengthens and adds calcium to the fracture

18.

For the following symptoms/ afflictions, which would necessitate the uses of an Myelogram to assist in diagnosis?

a)

herniated disks

b)

tumors

c)

callus'

d)

infection

e)

malignant melanomas of the skin

19.

Of the following, are precautions/procedure used within a myelogram?

a)

removal of oil based dye through spinal needle

b)

removal of water based dye through spinal needle

c)

placing patient in Semi-Fowlers for 12 hrs after Myelogram(water based)

d)

if oil based dye, patient lays flat for 12 hrs

e)

use of contrast

20.

What is the appropriate response to a patient who worries over paralysis from needle injection?

a)

You do not need to worry, the surgeon knows what he is doing

b)

this is unlikely to happen as the needle will be inserted below the spinal level

c)

This is unlikely to happen, but we can give you medication for your anxiety during the procedure if you prefer

d)

You seem really anxious over the prospect of being paralyzed. Tell me more about this.

21.

You are told that the patient you have not yet met has compartment syndrome. What can you expect?

a)

a mental condition in which the patient ascribes certain personalities to various aspects of his or her life

b)

degenerative chronic gangrene condition managed through antifungals and amputation

c)

Patient has paralysis of a limb

d)

loss of function in a single ear or eye

22.

Which of the following subjective/ objective data would you expect to see in a patient with compartment syndrome?

a)

unrelenting pain, not soothed by analgesia

b)

inability to flex fingers or toes of affected area

c)

absence of pulse in the affected area

d)

coolness in the affected area

e)

erythema of the effected area

23.

what is the medical treatment for compartment syndrome?

a)

DMARD's

b)

NSAID's

c)

fasciotomy

d)

tracheotomy

24.

As the nurse to a patient with compartment syndrome, what interventions would you apply?

a)

cryotherapy

b)

amputate the limb yourself

c)

elevation of the leg no higher than the heart

d)

place the patient in reverse Trendelenburg's position

e)

remove anything constrictive to the limb

25.

What is an irreversible consequence of Compartment syndrome if not properly managed?

a)

cauterization of the limb

b)

amputation of the limb

c)

Volkmann's contracture

d)

reduced use of the hand

26.

What would be a likely scenario leading to a bone fracture?

a)

kid falls from a skateboard

b)

child trips in a bouncy house

c)

a person who steps on a Lego barefoot

d)

smoking frequently

27.

Which diagnostic tests would be used to examine the fracture?

a)

X-ray

b)

Myelogram

c)

Synovial fluid Aspiration

d)

Dexa Scan

28.

With the top row resembling 1-4, and the bottom row resembling 5-8;one and 5 beginning from the left side. which of the following are considered open fractures?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

8

29.

With the top row resembling 1-4, and the bottom row resembling 5-8;one and 5 beginning from the left side. which of the following are considered Simple fractures?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

8

30.

For patients with fractures, what is crucial

a)

the affected area is given a tetanus shot

b)

the patient be put on complete bed rest

c)

the wound be soaked in saline solution

d)

the patient requires the use of a bariatric chamber

31.

How will you acquire the patients baseline if they are immobilized due to fracture?

a)

A CBC with as many vitals are possible

b)

7 P's

c)

MILK acronym

d)

SOAP acronym

32.

What is ORIF, and how is it used in the context of a fracture?

a)

Orthopedic Reduction and Infrared Fixation (used to image the affected area)

b)

Open Reduction with Internal Fixation ( surgery to place fractured pieces back in original place)

c)

Open Reduction Induced Fracture ( rebreaking an old wound that healed wrong)

33.

For open fractures in addition to the precautions used for a closed fracture, what additional measures are used?

a)

Debridement

b)

transalpine cast

c)

barbituric

d)

wound culture

e)

check for last tetanus shot administration?

34.

In stage 1 post bone fracture healing, what occurs

a)

bleeding

b)

swelling

c)

clots form

d)

inflammation

35.

In stage 2 post bone fracture healing, what occurs

a)

osteoclast begin breaking down wound

b)

swelling

c)

osteoblasts form

d)

inflammation

36.

In stage 3 post bone fracture healing, what occurs

a)

osteoblasts create new bone

b)

osteoclasts destroy dead bone

c)

WBC's create inflammation around the joint

d)

collagen incorporates callus's

37.

In stage 4 post bone fracture healing, what occurs

a)

remodeling occurs when excess callus' reabsorbed

b)

endothelial cell begin process of rebuilding skin

c)

WBC's create inflammation around the joint

d)

spongy bone laid down

38.

What are the most common complications caused by fractures?

a)

compartment syndrome

b)

thromboembolus

c)

fat embolism

d)

leukopenia

e)

Gas Gangrene

39.

What causes Gas Gangrene?

a)

shower fungi(gym)

b)

Clostridium perfringens

c)

unwashed genitals

d)

C. Difficile

40.

What clinical manifestations would you expect to see in a client with Gas Gangrene?

a)

Gas bubbles under the skin

b)

growth of moldy substances in dark moist areas of the body

c)

Necrotic tissue

d)

patient has difficulty walking

41.

What would the medical management be for Gas Gangrene?

a)

creating a new surgical site for oxygenation/ promote drainage

b)

NSAIDS

c)

Skeletal muscle relaxants

d)

antibiotics

42.

As a nurse treating a patient with Gas Gangrene, what interventions would you employ?

a)

Initiate sterile technique

b)

Scraping to lesson growths

c)

Placing heated cloth over affected extremity

d)

utilize cytogenesis

43.

How would you describe the pathology of a thromboembolus?

a)

blood vessel blocked by an embolism

b)

an embolism that travel until it becomes stuck then dislodged again

44.

What would be the clinical symptoms associated with a thromboembolus?

a)

elevated triglyceride levels

b)

Patient has dyspnea, hypertension, hypotension

c)

cold, numb, and cyanosis of the affected area

d)

patient has a sharp thoracic pain

45.

What would the medical management be for a patient with a thromboembolus initially?

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

thrombectomy

c)

ORIF

d)

oxygen therapy

46.

Nursing intervention for thromboembolus?

a)

patient is on activity restrictions

b)

Anti embolic stockings

c)

Monitor I & O

d)

Monitor PT, INR, PTT

47.

What is the purpose of traction devices?

a)

align and stabilize a fracture site

b)

relieves pressure on the nerves in the cases of a herniated disk

c)

helps maintain proper positioning

d)

prevents deformities

e)

relieves muscle spasms

48.

Skeletal Traction used for the bones of the femur, tibia, humerus and cervical spine. How does it work?

a)

pierces the heel of the foot, patient is given regional anesthesia

b)

The pins form a tight mesh around the bone promoting immobilization

c)

The pins are applied directly to the bone with patient under local or general anesthesia

d)

applied to the skin and for short periods

49.

Skin Traction

a)

is used for a short amount of time and uses lighter weights

b)

is used for long periods of time and requires patient to be under general sedation

c)

only used in the third phase of fracture healing

d)

only used in the 2nd round of fracture healing

50.

What is the difference between buck's and Russell's traction

a)

Bucks is for hip use, Russell's is for knee

b)

Bucks is a sling on the knee, Russell's is used on the hip

c)

The weight of the pins and pulleys is heavier is Buck's than Russell's

d)

Russell's traction is used for fractures that are nearly completely healed