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Basic Path Quiz 3 - FT, Ovaries, Breast

Total questions: 218

Worksheet time: 2hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What two factors impact the etiology and pathogenesis of sporadic breast tumors?

a)

Environmental

b)

Transmission

c)

Virulence

d)

Hereditary

2.

What percentage of breast cancers occur due to inheritance of an identifiable susceptibility gene or genes?

a)

5%

b)

12%

c)

32%

d)

48%

3.

What are some the factors that increase the risk of familial breast cancer?

a)

Multiple affected 1o relatives

b)

Early onset cancer

c)

Multiple cancers

d)

Family member with other specific cancers

4.

The major known susceptibility genes for familial breast cancer are:

a)

BRCA 1

b)

BRCA 2

c)

TP53

d)

CHEK 2

e)

CHEK 1

5.

Germline mutations such as BRCA1 and BRCA2 are autosomal dominant. What is the percent of children who will inherit a defective copy of the suppressor genes if one parent is affected?

a)

15%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

6.

What is required of the remaining normal allele to completely lose suppressor gene function if the germline mutation is present?

A ________ ______________ mutation

a)

single inherited

b)

single sporadic

c)

double inherited

d)

double sporadic

7.

What percent risk of cancer if a BRCA1 and BRCA2 germline mutation is inherited?

a)

0-30%

b)

15-45%

c)

30-90%

d)

60-90%

8.

What is the purpose of BRCA1, BRCA2, TP53, and CHEK2 genes?

DNA r (a)  

9.

Mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 are responsible for what percent of “single gene” familial breast cancers?

a)

0-30%

b)

15-45%

c)

30-90%

d)

80-90%

10.

Mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 are responsible for what percent of breast cancer overall?

a)

3%

b)

12%

c)

32%

d)

48%

11.

Individuals who carry the BRCA1 mutation are more prone to what other primary tumors besides breast cancer?

a)

endometrial cancer

b)

cervical cancer

c)

ovarian carcinoma

d)

leiomyosarcoma

12.

What is the percent risk of breast cancer for those who carry the BRCA2 mutation?

a)

10-20%

b)

15-45%

c)

30-90%

d)

80-90%

13.

Those individuals who have both the BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are more prone to what other type of tumors?

a)

pancreatic carcinoma

b)

cervical cancer

c)

prostatic carcinoma

d)

leiomyosarcoma

14.

What is the approximate frequency of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations that increase breast cancer risk?

a)

1 in 20 people

b)

1 in 100 people

c)

1 in 200 people

d)

1 in 400 people

15.

What are three methods of reducing the risk of breast cancer once a patient has been identified as having a high-risk genetic mutation?

a)

increased surveillance

b)

prophylactic mastectomy

c)

hysterectomy

d)

salpingo-oophorectomy

16.

What is the inherent risk to the patient if breast or ovarian epithelial DNA damage occurs and there is impairment of suppressor gene function in repairing DNA or causing cell death (apoptosis)?

P (a)   DNA damage

17.

The dominant pathway for breast genetic carcinogenesis in 50-65% of breast cancers following a driver mutation is associated with which gene mutation and what receptor status?

a)

ER positive, Her2 negative

b)

ER positive, Her2 positive

c)

ER negative, Her2 negative

d)

ER negative, Her2 positive

18.

The germline mutation associated with HER2-positive cancers is?

a)

BRCA 1

b)

BRCA 2

c)

TP53

d)

CHEK 2

e)

CHEK 1

19.

. An independent pathway linked to breast cancer in African American women is associated with what gene mutation and what receptor status?

a)

ER positive, Her2 negative

b)

ER positive, Her2 positive

c)

ER negative, Her2 negative

d)

ER negative, Her2 positive

20.

What percent of breast tumors are HER2 positive?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

21.

What conditions in the microenvironment of the breast parenchyma are important risk factors to breast cancer?

a)

amyloid depositions

b)

increased fibrous stroma

c)

focal alterations

d)

angiogenesis

22.

The greatest percentage of breast cancers are of what tumor class?

a)

adenomas

b)

adenocarcinomas

c)

carcinoma

23.

What are the two known precursor lesions to most breast cancers?

a)

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

b)

Stromal carcinoma in situ (SCIS)

c)

Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

d)

Atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH)

24.

What percent of breast cancer is invasive at the time of diagnosis despite mammography screening?

a)

70%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

25.

Most evidence suggests that all breast carcinomas arise from what component of the ductal system?

T (a)   duct lobular unit (TDLU)

26.

DCIS is rarely felt as a palpable mass or grossly seen when examining a breast. What is the most reliable way to identify an area of DCIS?

a)

mammography

b)

ultrasound

27.

Is there strong evidence that DCIS once identified in one breast will likely be found in the contralateral breast?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

maybe

d)

I don't know

28.

Is there strong evidence that LCIS once identified in one breast will likely be found in the contralateral breast?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

maybe

d)

I don't know

29.

Comedo DCIS (comedocarcinoma) is defined by what histologic features?

a)

tumor cells with low grade nuclei

b)

tumor cells with high grade nuclei

c)

central necrosis

d)

diffuse hemorrhage

30.

What are some of the comparisons that can be made between non-comedo DCIS and comedo DCIS?

a)

less aggressive

b)

more aggressive

c)

more granular calcifications

d)

less granular calcifications

31.

What are the histologic patterns of non-comedo DCIS?

a)

cribiform

b)

micropapillary

c)

papillary

d)

solid

e)

patchy

32.

What type of tumor is usually associated with Paget disease of the nipple?

a)

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

b)

Stromal carcinoma in situ (SCIS)

c)

Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

d)

Atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH)

33.

A genetic pathway linked to Paget disease of the nipple?

a)

ER positive, Her2 negative

b)

ER positive, Her2 positive

c)

ER negative, Her2 negative

d)

ER negative, Her2 positive

34.

What are some of the clinical symptoms of Paget disease of the nipple?

a)

pruritis

b)

palpable mass

c)

crusty nipple

d)

dirty knees, look at these

35.

What are the major risk factors for DCIS recurrence?

a)

high grade nuclei

b)

necrosis

c)

extent of disease

d)

positive surgical margins

e)

what's a margin

36.

How effective is conservation breast surgery in curing DCIS?

a)

70%

b)

50%

c)

30%

d)

40%

37.

What therapeutic measures are taken to reduce the risk of DCIS recurrence?

a)

post operative radiation therapy

b)

pre operative radiation therapy

c)

tamoxifen

d)

acetaminophen

38.

What tumor suppressor gene is lost with lobular carcinoma in-situ?

E-c (a)   due to a CDH1 mutation

39.

Is lobular carcinoma easily identified on mammogram?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

maybe

d)

I don't know

40.

Is HER2 expressed in lobular carcinoma?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

maybe

d)

I don't know

41.

What percent of patients who have a positive biopsy for LCIS will develop lobular carcinoma in 20 to 30 years’ time?

a)

15-25%

b)

25-35%

c)

35-45%

d)

55-65%

42.

What are the treatment options for LCIS?

a)

prophylactic double mastectomy

b)

acetaminophen

c)

tamixofen

d)

follow up exam

43.

Approximately 40% to 50% of breast cancers fall into what molecular subtype?

a)

ER positive, Her2 negative

b)

ER positive, Her2 positive

c)

ER negative, Her2 negative

d)

ER negative, Her2 positive

44.

High proliferative ER+ HER2- breast cancers are linked to what genetic mutation?

a)

BRCA 1

b)

BRCA 2

c)

TP53

d)

CHEK 2

e)

CHEK 1

45.

Which of the ER+HER2- breast cancers are most responsive to chemotherapy?

a)

high grade

b)

low grade

46.

What is the second most common molecular subtype for invasive breast carcinoma?

a)

ER positive

b)

PR positive

c)

Her2 positive

d)

ER negative

47.

What is the histology type of the majority of HER2 positive invasive breast tumors?

a)

poorly differentiated

b)

highly differentiated

48.

Triple negative tumors are most common in what ethnic groups?

a)

European americans

b)

Asian americans

c)

African americans

d)

Native americans

49.

Triple negative tumors are found mostly in young women with what genetic mutation?

a)

BRCA 1

b)

BRCA 2

c)

TP53

d)

CHEK 2

e)

CHEK 1

50.

Which molecular subtype of invasive breast cancer tends to be the most aggressive and the highest level of mortality?

a)

double negative tumors

b)

double positive tumors

c)

triple negative tumors

d)

triple positive tumors

51.

What is the name of the histologic grading system used in breast cancer?

N (a)  

52.

What are three considerations in the current histologic grading system of breast cancer?

a)

tubule formation

b)

lobule formation

c)

nuclear pleomorphism

d)

lymphatic cell involvement

e)

mitotic count

53.

What HER2- ER- invasive breast cancer type has a fairly good prognosis despite a poorly differentiated histologic pattern?

a)

medullary

b)

papillary

c)

stromal

d)

ductal

54.

What breast cancer is known to be extensively invasive, is a high-grade lesion, and not specific to any one molecular subtype?

a)

medullary

b)

papillary

c)

stromal

d)

inflammatory

55.

What is the most common Estrogen receptor status of male breast cancers?

a)

ER positive

b)

PR positive

c)

Her2 positive

d)

ER negative

56.

What is the most common germline mutation in male breast cancer?

a)

BRCA 1

b)

BRCA 2

c)

TP53

d)

CHEK 2

e)

CHEK 1

57.

What is the common age group for males to get breast cancer?

a)

20-30

b)

30-40

c)

50-60

d)

60-70

58.

What prognostic variables have the worst outcomes?

a)

distant metastases

b)

local invasion

c)

inflammatory carcinoma

d)

minimal lymph node involvement

59.

The prognosis of breast cancer is based on what two factors?

Biological features and s (a)  

60.

What is the most important prognostic factor for breast cancer outside of distant metastasis?

a)

mediastinal lymph node metastases

b)

inguinal lymph node metastases

c)

cervical lymph node metastases

d)

axillary lymph node metastases

61.

What is the purpose of doing sentinel lymph nodes?

It is the _______ lymph node tumor cells may drain to.

a)

first

b)

second

c)

third

d)

fourth

62.

What are the percentage of patients who end up having distant metastasis?

a)

10-20%

b)

15-45%

c)

30-90%

d)

80-90%

63.

Does the size of the tumor matter in rate of metastasis in HER2 positive ER negative tumors?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

maybe

d)

I don't know

64.

What size does a breast tumor have to get to have a significant (~20%) decline in survival rates?

a)

greater than 1 cm

b)

greater than 2 cm

c)

greater than 3 cm

d)

greater than 4 cm

65.

What is the classic skin descriptive feature of inflammatory breast carcinoma called?

a)

Peau d'Orange

b)

Spew d'Orange

c)

Peau d'Arroyo

d)

Spew d'Arroyo

66.

Inflammatory breast carcinoma is more common in what ethic group and what molecular profile?

a)

African americans - ER negative, Her2 positive

b)

African americans - ER negative, Her2 negative

c)

African americans - PR positive, Her2 positive

d)

African americans - ER negative, PR negative

67.

What percentage of tumor cells can be found within vascular spaces of invasive breast carcinoma?

a)

70%

b)

50%

c)

30%

d)

40%

68.

What are two unfavorable histologic types of invasive breast cancer?

a)

Medullary

b)

Metaplastic carcinoma

c)

Papillary

d)

Micropapillary

69.

Do tumors with high proliferation rate (ER- HER2+) respond well to chemotherapy?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

maybe

d)

I don't know

70.

How is the proliferation rate of breast tumors measured?

a)

mitotic activity

b)

protein detection

c)

number of pyknotic cells

d)

rate of angiogenesis

71.

Although HER2+ tumors generally have a poor survival rate, what impact does Herceptin have on these patients?

a)

one third of patients respond to treatment

b)

two thirds of patients respond to treatment

c)

100% of patients respond to treatment

72.

What seems to have the most impact on survival rates in staging breast cancer?

a)

invasion into the mediastinum

b)

lymph node invasion

c)

distant metastases

d)

spread to the nipple

73.

The most common benign breast tumor is?

F (a)  

74.

Does the presence of multiple or complex fibroadenomas cause an increase risk of breast cancer?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

maybe

d)

I don't know

75.

Can a phyllodes tumor be malignant?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

maybe

d)

I don't know

76.

What percentage of phyllodes tumor can be malignant?

a)

10-25%

b)

15-45%

c)

30-90%

d)

80-90%

77.

What is an interlobular stromal tumor equally common to men and women?

a)

Myofibroblastoma

b)

Fibroadenoma

c)

Lymphoma

d)

Leiomyoma

78.

Can fibromatosis of the breast metastasize?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

maybe

d)

I don't know

79.

What is the prognosis and mean age of sporadic angiosarcomas of the breast?

a)

poor prognosis, 55 average age

b)

poor prognosis, 35 average age

c)

good prognosis, 55 average age

d)

good prognosis, 35 average age

80.

What type of tumors occurs in breast capsular implants?

a)

Myofibroblastoma

b)

Fibroadenoma

c)

T cell Lymphomas

d)

B cell lymphomas

81.

What is the type of lymphoma of most primary and metastatic lymphoma?

a)

T cell

b)

B cell

82.

What are the most common metastatic cancer to the breast?

a)

Small cell carcinomas

b)

Ovarian cancers

c)

Melanomas

d)

Rhabdomyosarcomas

83.

The milk line or mammary ridge extends where on the body?

a)

Axillary to perineum

b)

Axillary to inguinal

c)

Perineum to medial malleolus

d)

Mediastinum to perineum

84.

The condition of having extra nipples is more common in what gender?

a)

male

b)

female

85.

What is one of the clinical risk factors of accessory axillary breast tissue?

a)

breast cancer

b)

infertility

c)

malfunction in breast milk production

d)

no risk, an extra titty never hurt nobody

86.

Why is an acquired retraction of the nipple concerning?

a)

malfunction in breast milk production

b)

indicative of invasive cancer

c)

inflammatory nipple disease

d)

something not good

87.

What are the clinical presentations of breast disease?

a)

pain

b)

breast size reduction

c)

nipple discharge

d)

palpable mass

88.

What percentage of mastalgia or mastodynia is associated with breast cancer?

a)

10%

b)

50%

c)

30%

d)

40%

89.

Non-cyclic breast pain is most associated with?

a)

ruptured cysts

b)

physical injury

c)

diabetes

d)

infections

90.

Palpable breast masses are most commonly?

a)

cysts

b)

fibroadenomas

c)

invasive carcinomas

d)

fibrotic tissue

91.

What is the percentage of post-menopausal women who have palpable breast masses that are malignant?

a)

10-20%

b)

50-60%

c)

30-40%

d)

40-50%

92.

What number of breast tumors cannot be palpated that are malignant?

a)

one third

b)

two thirds

c)

all of them

93.

What size does a breast tumor commonly get to before being palpated by the patient?

a)

1-2 cm

b)

2-3 cm

c)

3-4 cm

d)

4-5 cm

94.

What is the most common quadrant for breast cancer to occur in?

a)

right upper outer quadrant

b)

right lower outer quadrant

c)

left upper outer quadrant

d)

left lower outer quadrant

95.

When is nipple discharge most concerning as a clinical presentation for breast cancer?

a)

older than 60

b)

unilateral

c)

bloody discharge

d)

serous discharge

96.

What are the most common signs of breast cancer on mammography imaging?

a)

density

b)

calcifications

c)

cysts

d)

necrosis

97.

What is the percentage of breast carcinomas not detected on mammogram?

a)

10%

b)

50%

c)

30%

d)

40%

98.

What are challenges in detecting breast cancer on mammograms?

a)

diffuse infiltrative pattern with little or no desmoplastic response

b)

dense obscure lesion

c)

location close to chest wall

d)

location at the periphery

99.

What is the benefit of using ultrasound technology in addition to mammography?

To distinguish c (a)   vs. mass

100.

What is the advantage of using MRI to detect breast cancer?

Increased v (a)   flow that takes up contrast agents

101.

What are the calcifications detected on imaging specific to breast cancer called?

a)

microfibrosis

b)

macrofibrosis

c)

micro calcifications

d)

macro calcifications

102.

What are the two most common benign soft tissue densities seen on breast imaging

a)

Myofibroblastoma

b)

Fibroadenoma

c)

Lymphoma

d)

Leiomyoma

e)

Cysts

103.

When is there an increased risk for a fibroadenoma to be malignant?

a)

multiple

b)

simple

c)

complex

d)

singular lesion

104.

What constitutes a “complex cyst” on ultrasound?

a)

empty cyst

b)

material in cyst

c)

echoes

d)

stellate borders

105.

What are benign inflammatory conditions of the breast?

a)

infections

b)

allergies

c)

autoimmune

d)

foreign body

106.

What should be considered in the clinical differential of a woman presenting with inflammation of the breast?

a)

micropapillary breast cancer

b)

papillary breast cancer

c)

medullary breast cancer

d)

inflammatory breast cancer

107.

What is the name of the condition most commonly caused by a Staph aureus bacterial infection in the first month of breastfeeding due to cracks and fissures in the nipples, that results in breast abscess?

a)

Acute mastocytosis

b)

Chronic mastocytosis

c)

Acute mastitis

d)

Chronic mastitis

108.

A subareolar abscess common in male and female smokers is called?

___________ ____________ of lactiferous ducts

a)

squamous metaplasia

b)

squamous hyperplasia

c)

transitional metaplasia

d)

transitional hyperplasia

109.

What is a palpable periareolar mass that often presents with a thick white nipple discharge in women (commonly multiparous) between the ages of 50-60, not related to smoking called?

a)

Acute mastitis

b)

Duct ectasia

c)

ductal carcinoma in situ

d)

lobule carcinoma in situ

110.

What condition of the breast can form an area of thickening or skin retraction that mimics breast cancer which is commonly associated with trauma or surgery?

a)

fibrotic scarring

b)

fat necrosis

c)

ductal calcification

d)

lobule calcification

111.

What is the name of a benign, hard, palpable breast mass which is difficult to distinguish from breast cancer, common to patients with Type 1 diabetes and autoimmune thyroid?

a)

Acute mastitis

b)

Duct ectasia

c)

Lymphocytic mastopathy

d)

Granulomatous inflammation

112.

What condition is a manifestation of a systemic granulomatous disease that can mimic the appearance of cancer?

a)

Acute mastitis

b)

Duct ectasia

c)

Lymphocytic mastopathy

d)

Granulomatous inflammation

113.

What are the three group classifications of benign epithelial lesions?

a)

non proliferative

b)

proliferative

c)

atypical hyperplasia

d)

typical hyperplasia

114.

An increase in lobular acini which may result in flattening and atypia, and the presence of calcifications is called?

a)

non proliferative breast changes

b)

proliferative breast changes

c)

atypical hyperplasia

d)

typical hyperplasia

115.

What is the name of a benign palpable mass commonly found in pregnant or lactating women?

a)

Myofibroblastoma

b)

Fibroadenoma

c)

Lymphoma

d)

Lactational adenoma

e)

Cysts

116.

What is the risk for breast carcinoma associated with breast epithelial proliferation (ductal hyperplasia without atypia) presenting as a mammographic density, calcifications, or as incidental findings in biopsies?

a)

small increased risk of breast cancer

b)

significantly increased risk of breast cancer

117.

What is the likely pathology diagnosis of a breast biopsy with increased number of acini within the lobules without distortion of the lobular arrangement, presenting clinically as a palpable mass, radiodensity or calcifications?

a)

sclerosing adenosis

b)

papilloma

c)

epithelial hyperplasia

d)

epithelial dysplasia

118.

What are the three components of a complex sclerosing breast lesion?

a)

sclerosing adenosis

b)

papilloma

c)

epithelial hyperplasia

d)

epithelial dysplasia

119.

What is a radial sclerosing lesion that often mimics invasive breast carcinoma?

R (a)   scar

120.

A common lesion associated with unilateral bloody discharge of the nipple or a sub-areolar mass that can be painful is likely?

a)

sclerosing adenosis

b)

papilloma

c)

epithelial hyperplasia

d)

epithelial dysplasia

121.

Do multiple small intraductal papillomas present any additional risk over a large solitary papilloma?

a)

no risk

b)

slight risk

c)

moderate risk

d)

significant risk

122.

What are some of the more common reasons for gynecomastia?

a)

increased estrogen

b)

cirrhosis of the liver

c)

Klinefelter syndrome and functioning testicular neoplasms

d)

Use of alcohol, marijuana, heroin, steroids

123.

What is the relative risk of developing invasive breast cancer with a diagnosis of LCIS or DCIS?

a)

10-20%

b)

8-10%

c)

15-20%

d)

40-50%

124.

What is the frequency of women developing breast cancer over a lifetime?

a)

1 in 2

b)

1 in 4

c)

1 in 8

d)

1 in 10

125.

Which breast is more common to find breast cancer?

a)

right

b)

left

126.

Most breast cancers are of what broad category of tumors?

a)

adenomas

b)

adenocarcinomas

c)

carcinoma

127.

What is the most common Estrogen hormone receptor and HER2 (Human epithelial growth factor receptor) combination found in breast cancers?

a)

ER positive, Her2 negative

b)

ER positive, Her2 positive

c)

ER negative, Her2 negative

d)

ER negative, Her2 positive

128.

Statistically, the frequency of ER positive breast tumors increase, decrease or are relatively the same with the age of the patient?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

129.

Has there been an increase, decrease or relatively no change in the diagnosis of DCIS with mammogram screening?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

130.

Which ethnic group has the highest percentage of invasive breast cancer in women over the age of 50?

a)

European americans

b)

Asian americans

c)

African americans

d)

Native americans

131.

Which ethnic group had the highest mortality associated with breast cancer?

a)

European americans

b)

Asian americans

c)

African americans

d)

Native americans

132.

Approximately 80% of breast cancers are ER positive or ER negative?

a)

ER positive

b)

ER negative

133.

What percent of breast cancers are HER2 positive (HER2 protein overexpression)?

a)

20%

b)

50%

c)

30%

d)

40%

134.

How is the drug Tamoxifen effective in treating ER/PR positive breast cancer?

Block h (a)   receptors

135.

How is an aromatase inhibitor effective in treating ER+ breast cancers?

a)

stops progesterone production

b)

stops estrogen production

c)

stops testosterone production

d)

stops adrenaline production

136.

What targeted drug is commonly used in HER2 positive tumors to reduce recurrence?

a)

tamoxifen

b)

acetaminophen

c)

herceptin

d)

trastuzumab

137.

Are there risks associated with targeted drug breast cancer therapies?

a)

Liver damage

b)

Kidney damage

c)

Lung damage

d)

Heart damage

138.

Triple negative breast cancers are commonly associated with what gene mutation?

a)

BRCA 1

b)

BRCA 2

c)

TP53

d)

CHEK 2

e)

CHEK 1

139.

What is the treatment recommendation for a patient having a triple negative tumor?

a)

surgery

b)

hope

c)

chemotherapy

d)

radiation therapy

140.

Neoadjuvant therapy is...

a)

after surgery

b)

before surgery

141.

Adjuvant therapy is...

a)

after surgery

b)

before surgery

142.

What stage tumors are heavily reliant on neoadjuvant therapy?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

143.

What are some of the risks of breast cancer associated with developed countries?

a)

delayed pregnancy

b)

fewer pregnancies

c)

higher incidence of multiple births

d)

less people are breast feeding

144.

What percentage of men get breast cancer as compared to women?

a)

1%

b)

5%

c)

10%

d)

20%

145.

What are the three board risk factor categories associated with breast cancer?

a)

hereditary factors

b)

repeated blows to the chest

c)

increased estrogen

d)

environmental factors

146.

What percentage of breast cancers have a germline mutation?

a)

10-20%

b)

5-10%

c)

15-20%

d)

40-50%

147.

What is the risk of getting breast cancer if there is a first degree relative with breast cancer?

a)

10-20%

b)

5-10%

c)

15-20%

d)

40-50%

148.

Which races have the highest percentage of breast cancer?

a)

White

b)

Black

c)

Hispanic

d)

Non hispanic

149.

Which ethnic group has the highest percentage of BRAC1 and BRAC2 mutations?

a)

European americans

b)

Asian americans

c)

African americans

d)

Native americans

e)

Jewish

150.

The peak age for breast cancer is?

a)

30-40

b)

50-60

c)

70-80

d)

40-50

151.

There is a 20% increase in developing breast cancer in a child who starts their menses before the age of?

a)

15 years old

b)

13 years old

c)

11 years old

d)

9 years old

152.

Is there an increased risk in getting breast cancer in women who either have not had children (nulliparous) or have waited to have children later in life?

a)

True

b)

False

153.

What histologic features in a benign breast biopsy may increase the risk of breast cancer?

a)

non proliferative breast changes

b)

proliferative breast changes

c)

atypical hyperplasia

d)

typical hyperplasia

154.

What may increase the risk in developing ER positive tumors in menopausal women?

Combined estrogen and p (a)   therapy

155.

How much does having an oophorectomy reduce the risk of breast cancer?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

15%

d)

75%

156.

What is the risk in developing breast cancer if a woman has very dense breasts?

a)

4-6%

b)

8-10%

c)

13-15%

d)

22-24%

157.

What is the increased risk in developing breast cancer if a woman had a high exposure to radiation in the chest, particularly at a young age?

a)

10-20%

b)

20-30%

c)

15-20%

d)

40-50%

158.

What is the risk of getting breast cancer in the contralateral breast?

a)

1% per year

b)

5% per year

c)

15% per year

d)

10% per year

159.

Why is there a risk of obese women getting breast cancer over the age of 40?

a)

adipose synthesizes estrogen

b)

adipose synthesizes progesterone

c)

adipose synthesizes testosterone

d)

adipose synthesizes epinephrine

160.

What toxins seem to have the most increased risk in breast cancer?

a)

Chloride pesticides

b)

Organochlorine pesticides

c)

Cyanide pesticides

d)

Ammonia pesticides

161.

What are the two more common types of salpingitis and their causative agents?

a)

Suppurative Salpingitis – caused commonly by gonorrhea

b)

Suppurative Salpingitis – caused commonly by influenzae

c)

Tuberculous salpingitis – caused by TB where prevalent

d)

Mesothelioma salpingitis – caused by asbestos where prevalent

162.

A simple cyst common to the fallopian tube which may also be referred to as hydatids of Morgagni because it may be a remnant of the müllerian duct is?

a)

Rathke's cyst

b)

Thyroglossal duct cyst

c)

Paratubal cyst

d)

Nabothian cyst

163.

A benign tumor of the fallopian tube that presents as a subserosal nodule or is found with in the mesosalpinx tissue is most consistent with?

a)

adenomatoid tumor/mesothelioma

b)

carcinoid tumor/mesothelioma

c)

adenomatoid tumor/leiomyoma

d)

carcinoid tumor/leiomyoma

164.

Primary adenocarcinomas of the fallopian tube are rare and may have a subtle presentation clinically. What percentage of these tumors are already stage 1 at the time of diagnosis?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

15%

d)

75%

165.

Ovarian cancers are related to adenocarcinoma of the fallopian tube because a subset of _________ ovarian tumors is thought to arise from the ___________ of the fallopian tube.

a)

medullary, epithelium

b)

medullary, serosa

c)

serous, epithelium

d)

serous, serosa

166.

What are the three broad categories of ovarian neoplasms based on origin?

a)

Mullerian epithelium neoplasms

b)

Germ cell neoplasms

c)

Medullary follicular neoplasms

d)

Sex cord stromal cells neoplasm

167.

Primary inflammation of the ovary is called?

O (a)  

168.

What inflammatory process of the ovary affects the ovarian follicles and can lead to infertility?

a)

Autoimmune oophoritis

b)

Bacterial oophoritis

c)

Viral oophoritis

d)

Oh no! oophoritis

169.

Follicular cysts of the ovary may have an association with endometrial abnormalities because there is often a(n) ______________ in ______________ stimulation of the endometrium.

a)

decrease, estrogen

b)

decrease, progesterone

c)

increase, estrogen

d)

increase, progesterone

170.

Corporal luteal cysts of the ovary are typically what color from luteinized granulosa cells but can be red from hemorrhage?

a)

bright yellow

b)

bright green

c)

bright pink

d)

rainbow

171.

What is a complex endocrine disorder characterized by hyperandrogenism, menstrual abnor­malities, polycystic ovaries, chronic anovulation, and decreased fertility?

P (a)   ovarian syndrome (also known as Stein Leventhal Syndrome)

172.

Gonadotropins during pregnancy can cause theca cells in the ovary to proliferate forming a concentric theca-lutein nodular hyperplasia which may present as a hormonally active benign lesion called?

a)

Myofibroblastoma

b)

Fibroadenoma

c)

Lymphoma

d)

Lactational adenoma

e)

Pregnancy luteoma

173.

The most common malignant tumors of the ovary are in what age group?

a)

35-45

b)

45-65

c)

65-85

d)

10-20

174.

Fibroblasts (resembling thecal cells) in a Brenner tumor are clinically significant because these tumors are hormonally _________ and can cause abnormal uterine ____________.

a)

silent, bleeding

b)

silent, swelling

c)

active, bleeding

d)

active, swelling

175.

What is the general size of a Brenner tumor?

a)

1-30 cm

b)

8-10 cm

c)

10-20 cm

d)

50-80 cm

176.

How often is a Brenner tumor bilaterally?

a)

very common (90%)

b)

common (50%)

c)

rare (10%)

177.

How often is a Brenner tumor unilaterally?

a)

very common (90%)

b)

common (50%)

c)

rare (10%)

178.

When is a Brenner tumor considered a transitional cell carcinoma of the ovary?

When _____ than 50% of the epithelium is a malignant transitional cell type.

a)

less

b)

more

179.

How common is a Cystadenofibroma that contain mucinous, serous, endometrioid, and transitional epithelium a borderline or show evidence of carcinoma?

a)

Very common

b)

common

c)

rare

d)

Very rarely

180.

A benign tumor that is usually small and multilocular simple (often firm) papillary processes that do not become as complicated and branching as those found in the ordinary cystadenoma is most consistent with?

a)

Myofibroblastoma

b)

Fibroadenoma

c)

Lymphoma

d)

Lactational adenoma

e)

Cystadenofibroma

181.

Clear cell carcinomas of the ovary are sometimes found in association with what type of ovary cancer and disorder?

a)

Endometrioid carcinoma of the ovary and oophoritis

b)

Endometrioid carcinoma of the ovary and endometriosis

c)

Mucinous carcinoma of the ovary and oophoritis

d)

Mucinous carcinoma of the ovary and endometriosis

182.

Clear cell carcinomas of the ovary are thought to be variants of what type of tumor?

a)

Endometrioid adenocarcinoma

b)

Mucinous adenocarcinoma

c)

Cystadenofibroma

d)

Serous carcinoma

183.

Endometrioid tumors of the ovary present as solid and cystic lesions. What percentage of these lesions are bilateral?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

15%

d)

40%

184.

What percent of ovarian endometrioid carcinomas are accompanied by carcinoma of the endometrium?

a)

1-15%

b)

15-30%

c)

30-45%

d)

45-60%

185.

What is the precursor lesion of an endometrioid tumor?

B (a)   tumor

186.

Endometrioid tumors of the ovary are distinguished from serous and mucinous tumors by the presence of tubular glands resembling b________ or m___________ endometrium

(a)  

187.

A primary neoplasm associated with a pseudomyxoma per­itonei presentation can arise from what organ?

a)

appendix

b)

gall bladder

c)

cecum

d)

ovary

188.

Extensive mucinous ascites, cystic epithelial implants on the peritoneal surfaces, adhesions, with frequent involvement of the ovaries is called?

P (a)   peritonei

189.

Although the 10-year survival rate of mucinous tumors of the ovary is high (>90%), tumors that spread beyond the ovary are usually fatal and must be distinguished from what other malignant mucinous lesion?

a)

Endometrioid adenocarcinoma

b)

Mucinous adenocarcinoma

c)

Cystadenofibroma

d)

Serous carcinoma

190.

Mucinous neoplasms of the ovary differ from serous neoplasms in what three ways?

a)

The surface of the ovary is rarely involved

b)

Typical unilateral, only 5% of primary mucinous cystadenomas and mucinous carcinomas are bilateral

c)

Mucinous tumors also tend to produce larger cystic masses

d)

Serous tumors also tend to produce smaller cystic masses

e)

The surface of the ovary is always involved

191.

What is the consistent genetic alteration in mucinous tumors of the ovary?

Mutation of the ______ proto-oncogene

a)

RB

b)

P53

c)

TP53

d)

KRAS

192.

Most mucinous tumors of the ovary are malignant or benign?

a)

benign

b)

malignant

193.

In a high-grade serous carcinoma, the precursor lesion typically arises from in situ lesions in the fallopian tube _________ or from _________ inclusion cysts in the ovary.

a)

ampulla, mucous

b)

ampulla, serous

c)

fimbriae, mucous

d)

fimbriae, serous

194.

What is the precursor lesion typically in a low-grade serous carcinoma?

B (a)   tumor

195.

Serous carcinoma is divided into two categories based on their histology. What category is a moderately differentiated serous carcinoma?

a)

High grade

b)

moderate grade

c)

low grade

196.

What are some of the risk factors for ovarian tumors?

a)

Nulliparity

b)

Breast feeding

c)

A family history of ovarian cancer

d)

Heritable mutations (BRCA1 or BRCA2) 20% increase risk and HRR mutations (10%)

197.

How often do serous borderline and serous carcinomas demonstrate papillary excrences on the ovarian capsule?

a)

rarely

b)

frequently

c)

what is life anymore

198.

What percentage of serous carcinomas are bilateral?

a)

11%

b)

22%

c)

33%

d)

66%

199.

What percentage of borderline serous tumors are bilateral?

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

15%

d)

40%

200.

What percentage of ovarian serous neoplasms are malignant

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

15%

d)

40%

201.

What percentage of ovarian serous neoplasms are benign or considered borderline?

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

40%

202.

Low grade tumors of the ovary are associated with what two precursor lesions?

a)

Pseudomyxoma peritonei

b)

Borderline tumors

c)

Endometriosis

203.

What are the most common low grade (Type 1) carcinomas?

a)

low grade serous carcinoma

b)

endometrioid

c)

Mullerian

d)

mucinous neoplasms

204.

What is the most common Type 2 high grade ovarian tumor?

a)

Serous carcinomas that arise from serous intraepithelial carcinoma

b)

Mucinous carcinomas that arise from serous intraepithelial carcinoma

c)

Mucinous carcinomas that arise from mucinous intraepithelial carcinoma

d)

Serous carcinomas that arise from mucinous intraepithelial carcinoma

205.

The broad classification of ovarian tumors based on epithelial proliferation are?

a)

Benign (cystic, fibrous)

b)

Borderline

c)

Malignant

d)

Mixed

206.

Three major histologic types of ovarian tumors are?

a)

Carcinoid

b)

Serous

c)

Mucinous

d)

Endometrioid

207.

Most primary ovarian neoplasms arise from what type of epithelium?

a)

Medullary

b)

Stromal

c)

Mullerian

d)

Wolffian

208.

Of the three major histologic types of ovarian tumor, which is the most common type?

a)

Carcinoid (40%)

b)

Serous (40%)

c)

Mucinous (40%)

d)

Endometrioid (40%)

209.

Gastrointestinal tract symptoms are only typically of late stages of ovarian cancer due to?

____________ by the tumor or cancer ____________

a)

compression, invasion

b)

compression, metastases

c)

contraction, invasion

d)

contraction, metastases

210.

Most tumors of the ovary are functional or non-functional?

a)

functional

b)

non functional

211.

Metastatic tumors of the ovary are more common from what primary cancers?

a)

Colon

b)

Appendix

c)

Gastric

d)

Pancreaticobiliary

e)

Breast

212.

An embryonal carcinoma and the teratoma of the ovary arise from what component of the ovary?

a)

Germ cell

b)

Epithelium

c)

Sex cord stroma

d)

Follicular cells

213.

Endometrioid, serous, clear cell and mucinous cell tumors of the ovary arise from what component of the ovary?

a)

Germ cell

b)

Epithelium

c)

Sex cord stroma

d)

Follicular cells

214.

A fibroma and thecoma arise from what part of the ovary?

a)

Germ cell

b)

Epithelium

c)

Sex cord stroma

d)

Follicular cells

215.

A dysgerminoma arises from what cells?

a)

Germ cell

b)

Epithelium

c)

Sex cord stroma

d)

Follicular cells

216.

What are the three primary tissue origins of ovarian tumors?

a)

Surface or fallopian tube epithelium and endometriosis

b)

Thecal cells, including the sex cord stroma

c)

Germ cells, which migrate to the ovary from the yolk sac

d)

Stromal cells, including the sex cord stroma

217.

Ovarian tumor represent a disproportionate number of deaths associated with cancer of the female genital tract because most ovarian cancers have spread beyond the ovary by the time of ___________

a)

prognosis

b)

diagnosis

c)

death

218.

What impact does PCOS have on insulin?

a)

dysregulation of enzymes involved in androgen biosynthesis

b)

excessive androgen production which affects insulin resistance

c)

alters adipose metabolism

d)

causes kidneys to reabsorb water at a slower rate