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INSTRUMENT (BASIC) ชุดที่ 2

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

STALL SPEED WITH FLAPS UP FOR CT-4E

a)

65KIAS

b)

63 KIAS

c)

60KIAS

d)

54 KIAS

2.

STALL SPEED WITH FLAPS HALF FOR CT-4E

a)

65 KIAS

b)

63 KIAS

c)

60 KIAS

d)

54 KIAS

3.

STALL SPEED WITH FLAPS FULL FOR CT-4E

a)

65 KIAS

b)

63 KIAS

c)

60 KIAS

d)

54 KIAS

4.

ขณะขับเคลื่อน บ. หากได้รับทัศนะสัญญาณ ไฟสีขาวกระพริบจากหอบังคับการบินหมายความว่า

a)

ให้หยุด

b)

ให้ขับเคลื่อนออกจากทางวิ่ง

c)

ให้ขับเคลื่อนไปที่จุดติดเครื่องยนต์

d)

ให้ขับเคลื่อนต่อไปได้

5.

การบินที่ความเร็ว High Cruise จะใช้ Power Setting ประมาณ .........นิ้วปรอท ความเร็ว ......... นอต

a)

17-18 นิ้วปรอท, 110 นอต

b)

19-20 นิ้วปรอท, 120 นอต

c)

21-22 นิ้วปรอท, 130 นอต

d)

23-24 นิ้วปรอท, 140 นอต

6.

การบินที่ความเร็ว Low Cruise จะใช้ Power Setting ประมาณ .........นิ้วปรอท ความเร็ว ......... นอต

a)

17-18 นิ้วปรอท, 110 นอต

b)

19-20 นิ้วปรอท, 120 นอต

c)

21-22 นิ้วปรอท, 130 นอต

d)

23-24 นิ้วปรอท, 140 นอต

7.

การบินที่ความเร็ว Normal Cruise จะใช้ Power Setting ประมาณ .........นิ้วปรอท ความเร็ว ......... นอต

a)

17-18 นิ้วปรอท, 110 นอต

b)

19-20 นิ้วปรอท, 120 นอต

c)

21-22 นิ้วปรอท, 130 นอต

d)

23-24 นิ้วปรอท, 140 นอต

8.

The rate of descent, engine off, propeller ‘windmilling’. Flaps up and ..... KIAS. Is ….. nautical miles per ….. ft. at zero wind velocity.

a)

85 KIAS., 1.0 nm., 1,000 ft.

b)

70 KIAS., 1.0 nm., 1,000 ft.

c)

85 KIAS., 1.1 nm., 1,000 ft.

d)

70 KIAS., 1.1 nm., 1,000 ft.

9.

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the ‘taxiway directional sign’ indicates

a)

direction to the take-off runway.

b)

designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

c)

designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

10.

When is an IFR clearance required during VRF conditions?

a)

When operating in the class E airspace.

b)

When operating in a class A airspace.

c)

When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.

11.

When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?

a)

When requested or advised by ATC.

b)

Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR.

c)

Any time a landing is planned at an intermediate airport.

12.

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that

a)

ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.

b)

the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intension if not off by the void time.

c)

ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.

13.

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departing clearance?

a)

DP or transition name and altitude to maintain.

b)

Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.

c)

Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.

14.

Which clearance procedure may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?

a)

DP’s, STAR’s, and contact approaches.

b)

Contact and visual approaches.

c)

DP’s, STAR’s, and visual approaches.

15.

Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a

a)

180o turn.

b)

270o turn.

c)

360o turn.

16.

Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause

a)

pilot disorientation.

b)

false horizon.

c)

elevator illusion.

17.

During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to straight-and-level flight from a 180o steep turn to the right?

a)

A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.

b)

The miniature aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left.

c)

The miniature aircraft would show a slight descent and wings-level attitude.

18.

One characteristic that a property functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the

a)

ability to resist precession 90o to any applied force.

b)

resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.

c)

deflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.

19.

Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?

a)

Attitude indicator.

b)

Heading indicator or magnetic compass.

c)

Ball of the turn coordinator.

20.

Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

a)

Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.

b)

Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected.

c)

The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.

21.

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

a)

Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.

b)

Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.

c)

Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.

22.

You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find that the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you

a)

must return to the parking area and have the instrument corrected by an authorized instrument repairman.

b)

may take off and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication.

c)

may not take off until the instrument is corrected by either the pilot or a mechanic.

23.

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?

a)

VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months.

b)

ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months.

c)

VOR within 24 calendar months, transponder with in 24 calendar months, and altimeter systems within 12 calendar months.

24.

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

a)

Set the OBS on 180o plus or minus 4o; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.

b)

Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4o of that radial with a FROM indication.

c)

With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000o, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4o of that radial with a TO indication.

25.

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector and TO/FORM indicator should read

a)

within 4o of the selected radial

b)

within 6o of the selected radial.

c)

0o TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.

26.

DME is accurate to within .................. (whichever is greater).

a)

1.5 mile or 5%

b)

1.0 mile or 4%

c)

.5 mile or 3%

27.

Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?

a)

The first flickering of the TO-FORM indicator and CDI as the station is approached.

b)

The first full-scale deflection of the CDI.

c)

The first complete reversal of the TO-FORM indicator.

28.

When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of

a)

20 second intervals at 1020 Hz.

b)

30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.

c)

60 second intervals at 1350 Hz.

29.

As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?

a)

Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

b)

Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.

c)

Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

1. What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a right turn while taxiing?

30.

What instruments are primary for pitch, bank and power, respectively, when transitioning in to a constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight?

a)

Attitude indicator, heading Indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

b)

Attitude indicator for pitch and bank; airspeed indicator for power.

c)

Vertical speed, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure or tachometer.

31.

What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?

a)

Aircraft control, cross-check and instrument interpretation.

b)

Instrument interpretation, cross-check and aircraft control.

c)

Cross-check, instrument interpretation and aircraft control.

32.

Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are

a)

airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack.

b)

flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack.

c)

relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component

33.

To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately

a)

10 percent of the vertical speed.

b)

20 percent of the vertical speed.

c)

30 percent of the vertical speed.

34.

The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. hat is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated straight-and-level flight?

a)

Magnetic compass.

b)

Attitude indicator.

c)

Miniature aircraft of turn coordinator.

35.

Class G airspace is that airspace where

a)

ATC does not control air traffic.

b)

ATC controls only IFR flights.

c)

the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles.

36.

A “VRB” wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is

a)

3 knots or less.

b)

6 knots or less.

c)

9 knots or less.

37.

On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should

a)

swing opposite to the direction of turn when turning from north.

b)

exhibit the same number of degrees of dip as the latitude.

c)

swing freely and indicate known headings.

38.

NDB station passage occurs when

a)

the needle passes behind the wingtip position and settles at or near the 180o position.

b)

the needle passes behind the wingtip position and settles at or near the 090o position

c)

the needle passes behind the wingtip position and settles at or near the 045o position.

39.

Which DME indication should you receive hen you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

1.3

40.

Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92 inches Hg.?

a)

Density.

b)

Pressure.

c)

Standard.