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От Рахита до Пневмонии тест

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3580secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

" Rickets rosary»- is:

a)

Prominent costochondral junctions

b)

Thickening at the interface of bone and cartilage of the femur

c)

Thickening at the interface of bone and cartilage of the radius

d)

Thickening at the interface of bone and cartilage of the sternum

2.

"String of pearls " - is:

a)

Thickening of the epiphyseal phalanges

b)

Thickening of the epiphyses of the humeral

c)

Thickening of the femoral epiphysis

d)

Thickening of the epiphyses of long bone

3.

By the first signs of rickets does not apply:

a)

fever

b)

hyper excitability

c)

sweating

d)

Alopecia of backhead

4.
Calciferol is not prescribed as a prevention of rickets:
a)
In the summer, fall
b)
When adaptive feeding mixtures
c)
When breast-feeding
d)
During the course of UV-radiation
5.

Causes of rickets are not:

a)

Chronic infectious processes

b)

Artificial feeding with non-adaptive mixtures

c)

Malabsorption syndrome

d)

Insufficient insolation

6.

Changes associated with hypotonia:

a)

Froggy abdomen

b)

Chest deformity

c)

scoliosis

d)

Spin lumbar kyphosis

7.

Changes in the chest with rickets include all mentioned below, except:

a)

Emphysematous chest

b)

Chicken breast

c)

Funnel breast

d)

Barrel shaped chest

8.

Children of the following age do not have rickets:

a)

Adolescence

b)

Infants

c)

Young children

d)

Premature babies

9.

Craniotabes is:

a)

Softening the flat bones of the skull

b)

Compliance of fontanels

c)

Divergence of seams

d)

The protrusion of the frontal eminence.

10.

Daily prophylactic dose of cholecalciferol:

a)

400-500 IU

b)

100-200 IU

c)

600-1000 IU

d)

1000-2000 IU

11.

Disorders of bone formation and bone mineralization deficiency can occur with:

a)

Rickets

b)

Anemia

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Diathesis

12.

Forming of “rosary” on the ribs, “chicken breasts” are observed with:

a)

Rickets

b)

Birth trauma

c)

Bronchial asthma

d)

Dysbiosis

13.

Normal level of phosphorus in the blood serum:

a)

1.5-1.9 mmol / l

b)

1.0-1.4 mmol / l

c)

0.5-0.9 mmol / l

d)

2.0-2.4 mmol / l

14.

Normal level of total Ca in serum:

a)

2.2-2.7 mmol / l

b)

1.0-1.4 mmol / l

c)

2.0-2.4 mmol / l

d)

0.5-0.9 mmol / l

15.

Rachitic bracelets - is:

a)

Thickening of the epiphyses of the forearm bones

b)

Thickening of the epiphyses of the humeral

c)

Thickening of the epiphyseal phalanges

d)

Thickening of the femoral epiphysis

16.
Symptoms of rachitis are all mentioned below, except:
a)
Cyanosis of arms and legs
b)
Minor softening of the edges of a large fontanel
c)
Anxiety
d)
Crying
17.
Symptoms of rachitis are all mentioned below, except:
a)
Cough
b)
Alopecia
c)
Irritability
d)
Tearfulness
18.

Which of the followings is not considered as a source of vitamin D?

a)

Orange

b)

Egg yolk

c)

UV light

d)

Fortified milk

19.

In how many steps does Vitamin D undergo hydroxylation in organism?

a)

2 steps

b)

1 step

c)

3 steps

d)

4 steps

20.

(a)   is a disease of growing organism due to defective mineralization of bones.

21.

Vitamin D undergoes 1st step hydroxylation in__________, and the 2nd step hydroxylation in_____________?

a)

liver, kidney

b)

skin, liver

c)

kidney, liver

d)

skin, bone

22.

How does calcitriol(1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D) regulate calcium metabolism?

a)

All answers are correct

b)

increases reabsorption of phosphate in the kidney

c)

acts on bone to release calcium and phosphate

d)

promotes absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestine

23.

Which of the followings is not one of the postnatal factors of rickets?

a)

Mother’s diseases during the pregnancy

b)

Poor son exposure

c)

Chronic feeding disorders

d)

Covered body

24.

Iatrogenic factors of rickets include the use of all following medications, except

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Anticonvulsants

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Diuretics

25.

Please, write the skeletal changes which are seen in children with rickets:

(a)  

26.

At what diet is the highest percentage of anemia?

a)

Vegetable

b)

Dairy

c)

Meat

d)

Meat and vegetable

27.

B12-deficiency anemia is characterized by:

a)

Hyperchromic anemia

b)

Increased serum iron

c)

Microcytic anemia

d)

Decrease in the number of reticulocytes

28.

Changes are typical for the folic-deficiency anemia in children, except:

a)

Hypochromia

b)

Increase the size of red blood cells

c)

Decrease of red blood cells

d)

Hyperchromia

29.

Clinical symptoms of iron deficiency anemia:

a)

All answers are correct

b)

Systolic murmurs

c)

Fatigue, irritability

d)

Pallor of the skin

30.

Depots of iron in the body are all mentioned below, except:

a)

Kidneys

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Liver

d)

Spleen

31.
Duration of the course of treatment with iron supplements with its latent deficiency:
a)
Up to one month
b)
Up to three months
c)
4-5 months
d)
Up to 7 months.
32.

For severe anemia, the following symptoms are typical, except:

a)

Coprostas

b)

Dry skin and brittle nails

c)

Functional systolic murmur

d)

Atrophic glossitis

33.

How does the level of serum iron in children with iron deficiency anemia change?

a)

Drops

b)

Dramatically rises

c)

Never changes

d)

Rises slightly

34.

In the clinical picture of iron deficiency anemia in young children, there are syndromes of:

a)

Epithelial

b)

Vascular

c)

Toxic

d)

Pulmonary syndrome

35.

Insufficient initial level of iron does not occur in children:

a)

Heavyweight at birth

b)

Premature

c)

Born from mothers with anemia

d)

From multiple pregnancy

36.

Iron deficiency anemia in elder children often develops as a result of:

a)

Chronic blood loss

b)

Insufficient intake of iron from food

c)

Avitaminosis

d)

Iron absorption disorders

37.

Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by a decrease in all mentioned parameters, except:

a)

Globular value

b)

Reticulocyte count

c)

Hemoglobulin

d)

Red blood cells

38.

Principles of treatment of iron deficiency anemia are:

a)

Prescribing iron supplements

b)

Vitamin therapy with vitamin B12

c)

Replacement therapy with blood products

d)

Use of dietary products which have lots of iron, vitamins, proteins.

39.

The reasons for the development of iron deficiency anemia in children are everything mentioned below, except:

a)

Panmyelophthisis.

b)

Malabsorption syndrome

c)

Infectious diseases

d)

Alimentary (insufficient intake of iron from food)

40.

The total duration of treatment of iron deficiency anemia with oral iron supplements should be:

a)

At least 3 months.

b)

3-6 months.

c)

1 month

d)

1 year

41.

What can be diagnosed to a child with a serum iron value of 3-7 µmol/l?

a)

Iron-deficiency anemia

b)

Spherocytic anemia

c)

Chronic hemolysis

d)

Minkowski-Chauffard disease

42.

What hemogram indicator is a sign of iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Reducing the amount of hemoglobin.

b)

Hypochromia of erythrocytes.

c)

Microcytosis.

d)

Blast cell appearance.

43.

When iron deficiency anemia, the decrease of … is revealed:

a)

Serum iron levels

b)

Serum iron binding ability

c)

Serum ferritin level

d)

The concentration of hemoglobulin in the blood cell.

44.

With a deficiency of folic acid, anemia is:

a)

Hyperchromic

b)

Normochromic

c)

Hypochromic

d)

Spherocytic

45.

Which biological active substance is released by the immune system in response to an allergen?

a)

Histamine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Insulin

d)

No clue

46.

Atopic dermatitis is:

a)

Chronic allergic disease with skin lesions

b)

Acute infectious disease of the skin and subcutaneous tissue

c)

Allergic reaction to contact with chemicals

d)

Acute allergic inflammation of the skin

47.

Clearly defined discoloration of the skin, not rising and not sinking:

a)

Spot

b)

Papule (nodule)

c)

Plaque

d)

Bubble (vesicle)

48.

Clinical and anamnestic signs of atopic dermatitis do not include:

a)

Changes in peripheral blood analysis indicating bacterial inflammation activity

b)

Pruritus of the skin

c)

Typical morphology and localization of skin rashes

d)

The presence of allergic diseases in relatives

49.

In 1-years children with atopic dermatitis, the most frequent sensitizing factor is allergens of:

a)

Cow's milk

b)

Cereals

c)

House dust mites

d)

House dust

50.

Laboratory signs lymphatic - hypoplastic constitution anomaly ( lymphatic diathesis )

a)

High lymphocyte count , high levels of circulating immune complexes, Dysproteinemia, high levels of lipids and cholesterol, low ACTH, high level of CTH, TTH;

b)

High lymphocyte count , high levels of circulating immune complexes, high levels of lipids and cholesterol, high levels of ACTH and cortisol;

c)

Low lymphocyte count, high levels of circulating immune complexes, Dysproteinemia, low level of total lipids and cholesterol, low ACTH, high cortisol level;

d)

Low lymphocyte count, low levels of circulating immune complexes, Dysproteinemia, high levels of lipids and cholesterol, low ACTH, high cortisol level ;

51.

Lymphatic-hypoplastic constitution anomaly (lymphatic diathesis) may lead to all, except:

a)

Syndrome malabsorption ;

b)

Sudden death syndrome;

c)

Infection - allergic bronchial asthma;

d)

Autoimmune diseases;

52.
Nervous - arthritic diathesis is characterized by:
a)
Disorders in exchange of purines ;
b)
Urine metabolism;
c)
Purine ;
d)
peripheral lymph node will increase
53.

Neuro-arthritic diathesis is more common:

a)

In the school period childhood

b)

In the early childhood (pre-preschool) period;

c)

In the preschool period ;

d)

In the newborn period;

54.

Stages of development of atopic dermatitis do not include:

a)

Teenage stage.

b)

Stage of pronounced changes

c)

Stage of remission

d)

Initial stage

55.

The basis of the neuro-arthritic diathesis is a violation of:

a)

uric acid,

b)

pyruvic acid

c)

citric acid

d)

succinic acid

56.
The mandatory criteria for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis includes
a)
Pruritus of the skin
b)
Palmar ichthyosis
c)
Xerosis (dryness) of the skin
d)
Cheilitis, perioral dermatitis
57.

The methods of diagnosis of atopic dermatitis includes all of followings, except:

a)

X-ray

b)

Collection of history of atopy

c)

Specific allergic skin tests

d)

General blood analysis

58.

The methods of diagnosis of atopic dermatitis includes all of followings, except:

a)

X-ray

b)

Collection of history of atopy

c)

Specific allergic skin tests

d)

General blood analysis

59.

Therapy for exudative- catarrhal diathesis includes administration of:

a)

Antihistamines

b)

Ampicillin

c)

Elcar

d)

Nevigramon

60.

What indicators are elevated in the blood with exudative - catarrhal diathesis?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

61.

What indicators are elevated in the blood with exudative - catarrhal diathesis?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

62.

Which complications may occur at a later age in children undergoing exudative catarrhal diathesis?

a)

Bronchial asthma

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Heart disorder

d)

Rheumatism

63.

Which type of diathesis most likely characterized with acute adrenal insufficiency?

a)

Lymphatic-hypoplastic

b)

Neuro- arthritic

c)

Exudative catarrhal diathesis

d)

Atopic diathesis

64.

Which syndromes are observed in neuro-arthritic diathesis?

a)

Neurasthenic

b)

Dysuria

c)

Malabsorption

d)

Dyspeptic

65.

For treatment of non-complicated atopic dermatitis are used the following medications: (this question may have more than one correct answers)

a)

Antihistamines per os

b)

Topical corticosteroids

c)

Antibiotics

d)

I/m antihistamines

66.

Which one is not the minor criteria of atopic dermatitis? (this question may have more than one correct answers)

a)

Elevated serum immunoglobulin E levels

b)

Early age at onset

c)

Personal or family history of atopy

d)

Chronic or relapsing dermatitis

67.

What are the major criteria of atopic dermatitis? (this question may have more than one correct answers)

a)

Chronic and relapsing dermatitis

b)

Itching

c)

Facial erythema or pallor

d)

Personal hitory of atopy

68.

What are the major criteria of atopic dermatitis? (this question can have more than one correct answers)

a)

Pruritus

b)

Personal and family history of atopy

c)

Typical distribution of skin lesions

d)

Elevated serum IgE

69.

Which of the following statements is not corret for AD?

a)

This is allergic disease

b)

It is chronic inflamation of the skin

c)

It can exacerbate by the effect of some irritants

d)

Diet is not important in the treatment of AD

70.

Which of the following statements is not corret for AD?

a)

For treatment of AD is used Corticosteroids

b)

The main symptom of AD is pruritus

c)

AD is contagious

d)

It is allergic disease

71.

Clinical signs of malnutrition in children II degree:

a)

Thinned subcutaneous fatty layer

b)

Old face and white

c)

Increased perspiration

d)

Subcutaneous fatty layer is absent

72.

Clinical symptoms of third-degree parathrophy:

a)

Total excessive fat deposition

b)

Excess fat deposition only on the abdomen

c)

Excessive fat deposition on the abdomen and body

d)

Excess mass 9%

73.

Clinical symptoms I degree paratrophy :

a)

Excessive deposition of fat on the abdomen only

b)

Total excess fat deposition

c)

Excessive deposition of fat on the abdomen and trunk

d)

Excess weight up to 9%

74.

Clinical symptoms of II degree paratrophy:

a)

Excessive deposition of fat on the abdomen and trunk

b)

Total excess fat deposition

c)

Excessive deposition of fat on the abdomen only

d)

Excess weight 9%

75.

Common manifestations of metabolism with malnutrition are the most typical, except:

a)

acidosis

b)

hypoglycemia

c)

hypovolemia

d)

hypoproteinemia

76.

Dystrophies include all of the following, except:

a)

Obesity

b)

Hypotrophy

c)

Paratrophy

d)

Hypostature

77.

Excess body weight in I degree paratrophy is:

a)

10-20 %

b)

5.4 %

c)

20-30 %

d)

30-40 %

78.

Equal significant lack of mass and height is called:

a)

Hypostature

b)

Hypotrophy

c)

Paratrophy

d)

Hypoplasia.

79.
Infant feeding is called natural when it is done by:
a)
Direct apposition to the breast of his/her biological mother;
b)
Feeding with expressed breast milk;
c)
Feeding by the nurse;
d)
Feeding with thermally processed mother's milk;
80.

Parathrophy includes conditions with:

a)

Overweight more than 10%

b)

Overweight from 5 to 10%

c)

Weight deficit more than 10%

d)

Overweight and growth of more than 10%.

81.

Mass deficit at the III degree of postnatal malnutrition is:

a)

30% or more

b)

10-20 %

c)

20-30 %

d)

5-15 %

82.

The examination of the skin and subcutaneous fat in I- degree malnutrition is characterized by:

a)

Elasticity of skin is not significantly changed

b)

Reduced tissue turgor

c)

The skin is dry to the touch

d)

The skin is pale with a grayish tinge

83.
The first breastfeeding should be carried out after birth during:
a)
First 30 minutes;
b)
The first hour;
c)
First 12 hours;
d)
The first day.
84.

What factors contribute to the development of hypotrophy:

a)

Malabsorption

b)

Rickets

c)

Lymphatic - hypoplastic diathesis

d)

Exudative catarrhal diathesis

85.

What is the reason violation of heat with malnutrition:

a)

With the reduction or disappearance of brown fats

b)

anorexic

c)

with sedentary

d)

Since adrenal dysfunction

86.
Bread is a great source of which energy nutrient?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Fats
c)
Proteins
d)
All of the above
87.

The followings are risk factors of gastritis, EXCEPT one:

a)

Improving posture, for instance, sitting up straighter

b)

Excessive alcohol consumption

c)

Older age

d)

Long-term use of NSAIDs and some other medications

88.

What is the type of bacteria that usually cause gastritis?

a)

Helicobacter pylori

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Clostridium botulinum

89.

Exogenous factors of acute gastritis education:

a)

chemical irritants

b)

Food allergen

c)

infectious agent

d)

OPN

90.
Etiologic factors in the development of chronic gastritis is:
a)
Helicobacter pylori
b)
pneumococci
c)
staphylococci
d)
colibacilly
91.

Exogenous factors of forming of acute gastritis are:

a)

Chemical irritants

b)

Food allergens

c)

Infectious factors

d)

Acute kidney failure

92.

Exogenous factors of malnutrition , except:

a)

toxics

b)

infection

c)

alimentary

d)

gastrointestinal disease

93.

In children, according to aetiology, the following gastritis is distinguished, except:

a)

Granulomatous.

b)

Reactive

c)

Autoimmune

d)

Associate with unwanted reactions

94.

The following are not the factors of "protection" of the gastric mucosa in children:

a)

Pepsinogen

b)

Mucocyanate barrier

c)

Regenerative ability of the mucous membrane

d)

Pyloric Helicobacter.

95.

What drugs are contraindicated with gastritis:

a)

acetylsalicylic acid

b)

Plestan

c)

festal

d)

mezim

96.

What kind of gastritis causes chemical irritation substances and medicines

a)

erosive

b)

catarrhal gastritis

c)

Acute gastritis

d)

Phlegmonous gastritis

97.

What medication should not be carried in Hyperacid form gastritis:

a)

vismuth drugs

b)

antibiotics

c)

gastroprotectors

d)

sedatives

98.
What research methods are more informative for gastritis:
a)
EGDS
b)
X-ray
c)
Sonography
d)
ECG
99.
What research methods are more informative in gastritis?
a)
esophagogastroduodenoscopy
b)
X-ray
c)
Ultrasound investigation
d)
ECG.
100.

Which kind the following localization gastritis in children except:

a)

Eosinophilia

b)

antral

c)

fundic

d)

pangastritis

101.

Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of Helicobacter pylori in children:

a)

Almagelume

b)

De - Nol

c)

amoxicillin

d)

clarithromycin

102.

X-ray on gastric ulcer has:

a)

Niche "

b)

edema

c)

formation

d)

ulceration

103.

There are mentioned the endonenous factors of duodenal ulceration in children, except:

a)

H. Pylori

b)

Violation of gastroduodenal motility

c)

Hormonal disorders

d)

Violation of the vegetative nervous regulation

104.

The main pathogenesis of peptic ulcer is:

a)

Imbalance of the factors of aggression and protection to the aggression

b)

Imbalance of the factors of aggression and protection to the protection

c)

Motility disorders

d)

Vegetative dystonia

105.

What is peptic ulcer?

a)

Sores or wounds that develop inside lining of the stomach, upper portion small intestine or esophagus

b)

Sores or wounds that develop inside lining of the lung, upper portion testes or vagina

106.

The factors of "aggression" in children with chronic gastroduodenal pathology include all of the following, except:

a)

Sufficient blood supply

b)

Increased production of HCl and pepsin

c)

Gastroduodenal motility disorders

d)

H. pylori

107.

Symptom of peptic ulcer?

a)

Burning pain

b)

Bloating

c)

Getting fat

d)

Sleepy

108.

The most frequent localization of peptic ulcer in children:

a)

Duodenum

b)

Stomach body

c)

Stomach bottom

d)

Double localization

109.

In gastric ulcer "early pain " appears __________after ingestion.

a)

15-30min.

b)

70-80min.

c)

60-120min.

d)

120-150min.

110.

Causes of stomach ulcers and duodenal ulcers include all, except:

a)

Smoking

b)

Negative emotion

c)

Eating disorder

d)

Gastritis with increased secretion

111.

Which of the diagnostic methods is the most informative for peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Endoscopy

b)

X-ray

c)

Complete blood test

d)

Stool test

112.

What are the complications of stomach ulcer?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Perforation

c)

Penetration

d)

Secondary infections

113.

Wet fine bubbling rales over the entire lung surface are heard during:

a)

acute bronchiolitis

b)

acute simple bronchitis

c)

bronchiectasis

d)

acute pneumonia

114.

The hyper resonant shade of percussion sound is determined in patients with:

a)

acute obstructive bronchitis

b)

acute simple bronchitis

c)

bronchiectatic disease

d)

acute laryngotracheitis

115.
The nature of breathing with bronchial obstruction:
a)
expiratory difficulty of breathing
b)
inspiratory difficulty of breathing
c)
difficulty in inhaling and exhaling
d)
normal breathing.
116.

Can Bronchitis happen at any age ?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only ages 25 and above

d)

Only ages 15 and below

117.

What are the main symptoms of acute obstructive bronchitis?

a)

Fever, cough, wheezing

b)

Fever, haedache, irritability

c)

Nausea, vomiting, sneezing

d)

Fever, headche, runny nose

118.

In bronchitis obstruction occurs due to, except:

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Oedema

c)

Hypersecretion of mucus

d)

Bronchial spasm

119.

In management of acute bronchitis is administered all blow, except:

a)

Vitamins

b)

Mucolytics

c)

Bronchodilators

d)

Antiviral drugs

120.

Pathophysiologic changes leading to bronchial obstraction are all, except:

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Spasm of smooth muscles of the bronchi

c)

Swelling of the mucous of bronchi

d)

Hypersecretion

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