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AP Psych Review

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Christine, who is opposed to capital punishment, was extremely surprised to learn that the results of a survey indicated that the majority of the population approved of capital punishment. Christine’s surprise best illustrates the power of

a)

the false consensus effect.

b)

the placebo effect.

c)

the double-blind procedure.

d)

random sampling.

e)

random assignment.

2.

A researcher would be most likely to discover a negative correlation between

a)

body height and body weight.

b)

self-esteem and depression.

c)

education and personal wealth.

d)

intelligence and academic success.

e)

illness and doctor visits.

3.

In order to study the potential effects of social interaction on problem solving, some research participants were instructed to solve problems working together; other participants were instructed to solve problems working alone. Those who worked alone were exposed to the ________ condition.

a)

experimental

b)

survey

c)

control

d)

correlational

e)

dependent variable

4.

In order to assess the influence of self-esteem on interpersonal attraction, researchers either

insulted or complimented college students about their physical appearance just before they went on a blind date. In this research, the dependent variable consisted of

a)

insults or compliments.

b)

physical appearance.

c)

interpersonal attraction.

d)

feelings of self-esteem.

e)

the blind date.

5.

A statistically significant difference between two sample groups is not likely to be

a)

a reflection of differences between the populations they represent.

b)

due to chance variation within and between the sample groups.

c)

observed more than 5 percent of the time the groups are compared.

d)

observed when the two groups are very large.

6.

With regard to the process of neural transmission, a refractory period refers to a time interval in which

a)

a neuron fires more rapidly than usual.

b)

an electrical charge travels from a sensory neuron to a motor neuron.

c)

positively charged ions are pumped back outside a neural membrane.

d)

an individual reflexively withdraws from a pain stimulus.

e)

the time in which a neuron will fire at 100% or not at all.

7.

After discovering that the shadows outside his window were only the trees in the yard, Ralph’s blood pressure decreased and his heartbeat slowed. These physical reactions were most directly regulated by his

a)

parasympathetic nervous system.

b)

sympathetic nervous system.

c)

somatic nervous system.

d)

central nervous system.

e)

medulla

8.

To identify which specific brain areas are most active during a particular mental task, researchers would be most likely to make use of a(n)

a)

fMRI

b)

hemispherectomy.

c)

EEG.

d)

PET scan.

e)

brain lesion.

9.

A laboratory cat could be made to twitch its whiskers by direct stimulation of the _______ lobes of its cerebral cortex.

a)

temporal

b)

occipital

c)

frontal

d)

pariental

10.

After Paul’s serious snow-skiing accident, doctors detected damage to his cerebral cortex in Wernicke’s area. Because of the damage, Paul is most likely to experience difficulty in

a)

remembering past events.

b)

pronouncing words correctly.

c)

understanding what others are saying.

d)

recognizing familiar faces.

e)

physically writing out a word.

11.

Paradoxical sleep is to slow-wave sleep as _________ sleep is to ________ sleep.

a)

Stage 1; REM

b)

REM; Stage 2

c)

Stage 2: REM

d)

Stage 3; REM

e)

REM; Stage 3

12.

Sodium pentothal has sometimes been called a “truth serum” because it relaxes people and enables them to more freely disclose personally embarrassing experiences.

It is most likely that sodium pentothal is a(n)

a)

barbiturate.

b)

amphetamine.

c)

glutamate.

d)

form of cocaine.

e)

a stimulant.

13.

Caged rats respond to foot shocks with unusually high levels of aggression after ingesting

a)

heroin.

b)

cocaine.

c)

marijuana.

d)

barbiturates.

e)

alcohol.

14.

The emotional tone of our dreams is especially likely to be influenced by activation of the ________ during REM sleep.

a)

sensory cortex.

b)

auditory cortex.

c)

limbic system.

d)

frontal lobe.

e)

pineal gland.

15.

Josef, a high school student, tells his therapist that he has had a recurring dream in which he hunts and kills a ferocious tiger. The therapist explains that the dream reflects Josef’s unresolved feelings of hostility toward his father. According to the ____________ perspective on dreams, the therapist is revealing the possible ___________ content of Josef’s dream.

a)

psychoanalytic; manifest

b)

psychoanalytic; latent

c)

activation-synthesis; regressive

d)

learning; dissociate

16.

Although Manuel was sitting right next to his parents, he smelled a skunk minutes before they did. Apparently, Manuel has a lower ___________ for skunk odor than his

parents have.

a)

accommodation level

b)

tolerance level

c)

absolute threshold

d)

saturation level

e)

difference threshold

17.

An exhausted forest ranger may notice the faintest scent of a forest fire, whereas much stronger but less important odors fail to catch her attention. This fact would be of

greatest relevance to

a)

Weber’s theory.

b)

subliminal theory.

c)

absolute threshold theory.

d)

signal detection theory.

e)

sensory adaptation theory.

18.

The effect of past experience and current expectations on perception best illustrates the importance of

a)

accommodation.

b)

transduction.

c)

sensory thresholds.

d)

top-down processing.

e)

bottom-up processing.

19.

Participants in one experiment felt more positively about people if their photographs had been associated with scenes of kittens rather than with scenes of werewolves. This study best illustrated

a)

the idea that signal detection depend on experience.

b)

a diminishing sensitivity to unchanging and familiar information.

c)

that information can be processed outside of conscious awareness.

d)

the pervasive impact of sensory interaction.

20.

If Jill carefully watches Eduard as he runs directly toward her, she will experience a(n)

a)

increase in retinal disparity and an increase in convergence.

b)

decrease in retinal disparity and a decrease in convergence.

c)

increase in retinal disparity and a decrease in convergence.

d)

decrease in retinal disparity and an increase in convergence.

21.

John B. Watson emphasized that

a)

learning depends on how predictably rather than how frequently events are associated.

b)

unlike lower animals, humans learn through a process of cognition.

c)

both humans and lower animals learn to expect that a CS will be followed by a US.

d)

learning should be explained without any reference to mental processes.

22.

Research on the role of cognitive processes in learning indicates that the strength of a conditioned response depends primarily on the ______ of the CS-US association.

a)

frequency

b)

consistency

c)

distinctiveness

d)

duration

e)

predictability

23.

Evidence that organisms are biologically predisposed to learn the associations that most readily aid their survival has been provided by

a)

Watson and Rayner’s study of fear conditioning in Little Albert.

b)

Rescorla and Wagner’s study of the role of expectancy in conditioning.

c)

Pavlov’s study of salivary conditioning in dogs.

d)

Garcia and Koelling’s study of taste aversion in rats.

24.

The more often Scott is scolded following a temper tantrum, the more frequently he loses his temper. In this case, the scolding serves as a ________ for Scott’s temper tantrums.

a)

negative reinforcer

b)

conditioned stimulus

c)

positive reinforcer

d)

positive punisher

e)

negative punisher

25.

A trainer wants to train a chicken to peck a key to obtain food. If she wants the chicken to learn this trick quickly and the behavior to be resistant to extinction, she should use __________ reinforcement until the response is mastered and then follow with a period of __________ reinforcement.

a)

positive; negative

b)

negative; positive

c)

continuous; partial

d)

partial; continuous

26.

Implicit memory is to explicit memory as ___________ is to ____________.

a)

hippocampus; brainstem

b)

short-term memory; long-term memory

c)

effortful processing; automatic processing

d)

skill memory; fact memory

27.

The discovery that words heard underwater are later better recalled underwater than on land best illustrates the value of

a)

the method of loci.

b)

echoic memory.

c)

the spacing effect.

d)

context effects.

28.

When recalling a pleasant conversation, we may visually recall our own facial expressions during the course of the conversation. Since we were unable to see these expressions at the time of the event, our recollection illustrates

a)

flashbulb memory.

b)

memory construction.

c)

implicit memory.

d)

explicit memory.

e)

the next-in-line effect.

29.

Because Ken is 6’6”, people often mistakenly assume that he must be a member of his college’s basketball team. This mistaken judgement best illustrates the impact of

a)

the representativeness heuristic.

b)

the availability heuristic.

c)

confirmation bias.

d)

the framing effect.

e)

the belief perseverance phenomenon.

30.

Ojinska sold many more raffle tickets when she told potential buyers they had a 10 percent chance of winning a prize than when she told them they had a 90 percent chance of not winning. This best illustrates

a)

the representativeness heuristic.

b)

the availability heuristic.

c)

the belief perseverance phenomenon.

d)

confirmation bias.

e)

the framing effect.

31.

Which of the following was cited by Whorf as evidence in support of the linguistic determinism hypothesis?

a)

The generic pronoun “he” is just as likely to trigger images of women as of men.

b)

People with no words for colors can still perceive color differences.

c)

Hopi Indians cannot readily think about the past because their language has no past tense for verbs.

d)

Chimpanzees can use signs and gestures to communicate with other members of their own species.

32.

A school curriculum built on Howard Gardner's theory of intelligence would provide

a)

neuromuscular training because such skills underlie general intelligence.

b)

training in logic, rhetoric, philosophy and math to strengthen the general factor in intelligence.

c)

emphasis on creative, artistic abilities rather than the traditional emphasis on cognitive abilities.

d)

a diverse curriculum with education in skills not traditionally associated with IQ.

e)

standards based upon spatial and verbal intelligence.

33.

When a person of limited intelligence shows exceptional abilities in art, music, mental arithmetic, or calendar calculations, it is called

a)

genius.

b)

giftedness.

c)

discalcula.

d)

savant syndrome.

e)

autism.

34.

The correlation of intelligence test scores between identical twins is

a)

higher when they are raised together than when they are raised apart.

b)

higher than that for fraternal twins raised apart.

c)

lower than that for fraternal twins raised together.

d)

the same as that for any other blood relatives.

e)

the same whether they are reared together or apart.

35.

Which of the following is another word for reliability?

a)

dependence

b)

consistency

c)

relevance

d)

validity

e)

uniform

36.

According to Jean Piaget, what is the earliest stage at which a child is capable of using simple logic to think about objects and events?

a)

sensorimotor

b)

preoperational

c)

symbolic

d)

concrete operations

e)

formal operations

37.

What is the response pattern of securely attached children in the Strange Situation when their mothers return?

a)

They tend to ignore their mothers because they are secure about her care.

b)

Sometimes they run over to their mothers and sometimes they do not; there's no consistent pattern in their responses.

c)

They tend to run over to their mothers and beg them not to leave again.

d)

They tend to go to their mothers for comfort.

e)

They hit their mothers.

38.

According to social learning theory, gender identity is a process which occurs when

I. young children unconsciously identify with the same-sex parent.

II. a result of being positively reinforced for acting in ways that conform to male and female roles.

III. learned through observing and imitating role models like their parents.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II, and III

39.

Which of the following theories best exemplifies the continuity theory of development?

a)

Erikson's psychosocial theory

b)

Vygotsky's sociocultural theory

c)

Piaget's cognitive development theory

d)

Kohlberg's theory of moral development

e)

Gilligan's theory of moral development

40.

In Erikson's theory, individuals generally focus on developing ________ during adolescence and then ________ during young adulthood.

a)

identity; basic trust

b)

intimacy; identity

c)

identity; intimacy

d)

basic trust; identity

e)

role confusion; isolation

41.

While Walter is out riding, his horse suddenly rears up when a small animal scurries across the path. Based on the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions, Walter should report

a)

"I feel terrified because my heart is racing."

b)

"My heart is racing because I am terrified."

c)

"My racing heart must mean I'm terrified because this situation is dangerous."

d)

"The rearing of the horse makes my heart race and it makes me feel terrified."

42.

According to Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion

a)

the experience of emotion depends on autonomic arousal and your cognitive interpretation of that arousal

b)

different patterns of autonomic activation lead to the experience of different emotions

c)

emotion occurs when the thalamus sends signals simultaneously to the cortex and to the autonomic nervous system

d)

emotions develop because of their adaptive value

43.

"General bodily arousal contributes to emotion, but one's interpretation of what is happening gives the specific emotion" is a proposition that would be made by

a)

Ivan Pavlov

b)

William James

c)

Walter Cannon

d)

Stanley Schachter

e)

Richard Lazarus

44.

The subjective feeling of hunger is influenced by:

a)

the amount of glucose in the bloodstream

b)

secretion of insulin by the pancreas

c)

external cues, including odor and appearance of food

d)

all of the options

45.

What is the principle difference between how achievement motivation theory and arousal theory explain human motivation?

a)

Achievement motivation is a specific example of arousal motivation

b)

Arousal theory describes the optimum level of general arousal an individual seeks, while achievement motivation describes what goals the individual is motivated to achieve.

c)

Arousal theory describes motivation by referring to stages in our responses to stress (the general adaptation syndrome). Achievement motivation is not used to describe motivation due to stress

d)

A person with a low optimum level of arousal according to arousal theory would have a high achievement motivation.

e)

Arousal theory is an older, outdated precursor to achievement motivation theory.

46.

In order to determine a client's personality, Carl Rogers used a Q-sort to measure the difference between

a)

self-esteem and self-efficacy

b)

ideal self and real self

c)

locus of control and self-actualization

d)

conditions of worth and locus of control

e)

ego strength and need for approval

47.

Behavioral theories of personality are often criticized for their

a)

inability to test or verify concepts.

b)

limited recognition of temperament, emotion, and subjective factors.

c)

ability to explain behavior after the fact only.

d)

emphasis on the conditions under which behaviors occur.

e)

none of the options

48.

The concept of traits is used to account for personal characteristics that are

a)

biologically determined.

b)

relatively permanent and enduring.

c)

situation specific.

d)

shared by a group.

e)

the result of multiple different hereditary and environmental influences.

49.

The __________ begins with puberty and ends with a mature capacity for love and the realization of full adult sexuality.

a)

latency period

b)

Oedipal and Electra conflicts

c)

genital stage

d)

phallic stage

e)

oral stage

50.

Mary has an argument with her boss, but remains calm while at work. When she gets home that evening, she yells at her spouse and children. Which defense mechanism is Mary displaying?

a)

Rationalization

b)

Denial

c)

Reaction Formation

d)

Displacement

e)

Sublimation

51.

Multiple personality or dissociative identity disorder often begins

a)

as a result of combat exhaustion.

b)

in adulthood as a response to unremitting phobias.

c)

as a consequence of post-traumatic stress disorders.

d)

in childhood as a result of unbearable experiences.

52.

Because there is considerable overlap among the types of schizophrenia, with the new DSM-5 the disorder is now classified as

a)

Undifferentiated Schizophrenia

b)

Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorder

c)

mixed symptoms schizophrenia

d)

psychotic disorder

e)

catatonic Schizophrenia

53.

A person who has an extreme lack of self-confidence and who allows others to run his or her life is said to have a(n) __________ personality.

a)

dependent

b)

narcissistic

c)

paranoid

d)

antisocial

e)

histrionic

54.

Which of the following is one reason given that more women than men are treated for psychological problems?

a)

Women are subject to greater stress than men.

b)

As a result of cultural norms, women may be more willing to admit distress.

c)

Some forms of mental disorders are sex-linked recessive.

d)

Developmental tasks required of women are far more difficult than those required of men.

e)

Women tend to be more aware of mental distress than men.

55.

Irrational and very specific fears that persist even when there is no real danger to a person are called

a)

anxieties

b)

disassociations

c)

phobias

d)

obsessions

56.

Which of the following disorders is most likely to be treated with electroconvulsive therapy as a last resort?

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

obsessive-compulsive disorder

c)

dissociative identity disorder

d)

clinical depression

e)

antisocial personality disorder

57.

Tommy came to Dr. Chambers seeking help with his fear of heights. First, Dr. Chambers asked Tommy to list all of the situations concerning heights that led to his fear response. After they had ordered them from least fear-provoking to most fear-provoking, Dr. Chambers had Tommy listen to soothing music and slowly relaxed him as he imagined each step. Which of the following best describes Dr. Chambers's treatment?

a)

the exposure technique of flooding

b)

systematic desensitization

c)

rational emotive therapy

d)

aversive conditioning

58.

Vic is encouraged to take charge of the therapy session and his therapist uses an active listening approach to mirror back the feelings he hears from him. Which therapy is most likely being described?

a)

client-centered therapy

b)

cognitive therapy

c)

psychodynamic therapy

d)

existential therapy

59.

The antidepressants Prozac, Paxel, and Zoloft work to

a)

block dopamine receptors

b)

decrease the level of acetylcholine in the bloodstream

c)

break down the MAO enzymes

d)

decrease the amount of GABA at the postsynaptic neuron

e)

block the reuptake of serotonin

60.

Andre suffers from mood swings, alternating from wild episodes of euphoria and spending sprees to motionless staring and hopelessness. A drug to treat his condition is

a)

Lithium carbonate

b)

Haldol

c)

Xanax

d)

Thorazine

e)

Ritalin

61.

When we perform well, we typically attribute our success to __________.

a)

internal characteristics

b)

our group of colleagues

c)

external circumstances

d)

our personality type

e)

our upbringing

62.

According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, attitudes are changed because

a)

emotionally persuasive arguments unfreeze beliefs.

b)

logical arguments alter the belief component of an attitude.

c)

clashing thoughts cause discomfort.

d)

acting contrary to one's beliefs for a large reward causes dissonance.

63.

Which theory holds that a relationship must be profitable to endure?

a)

complementary need theory

b)

social exchange theory

c)

gain-loss theory

d)

social comparison theory

64.

Subjects in Milgram's experiment who gave large shocks rationalized that they were NOT personally responsible for their actions. This raises questions about our willingness to commit inhumane acts as a result of

a)

coercive power.

b)

obedience to a legitimate authority.

c)

expert power.

d)

conformity to group pressure.

65.

The real danger of "groupthink" is that it

a)

is contagious.

b)

occurs in cohesive groups.

c)

disrupts coordinated efforts at group problem solving.

d)

leads to a suspension of critical thinking.

e)

often leads to an incorrect assessment of a situation.