Worksheets2021 Final Exam Review
Total questions: 250
Worksheet time: 2hrs 5mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The composition of Earth’s interior affects
a)
the speed and direction of seismic waves.
b)
how long an earthquake will last.
c)
the location of an earthquake’s focus.
d)
the strength of an earthquake.
2.
What are the fastest body waves?
a)
P waves
b)
T waves
c)
S waves
d)
Q waves
3.
On the modified Mercalli scale, how is intensity XII described?
a)
causes total destruction
b)
causes damage to ordinary buildings
c)
felt by only a few people indoors
d)
causes light to moderate damage
4.
Which scale more accurately measures the magnitude of large earthquakes?
a)
moment magnitude scale
b)
Mohs scale
c)
modified Mercalli scale
d)
Richter scale
5.
What are food, water, flashlights, and a portable radio needed for?
a)
preparing for earthquakes
b)
measuring surface waves
c)
finding shadow zones
d)
predicting earthquakes
6.
Which of the following is true of earthquake prediction?
a)
It is unreliable.
b)
It is impossible.
c)
Scientists do not attempt it.
d)
It is not important.
7.
Which method is NOT used to forecast earthquakes?
a)
assessing building damage
b)
recording foreshocks
c)
detecting changes in rock
d)
monitoring natural gas seepage
8.
Which of the following is NOT a cause of tsunamis?
a)
tornado
b)
volcanic eruption
c)
undersea landslide
d)
undersea earthquake
9.
A foreshock is
a)
a small earthquake.
b)
a major earthquake.
c)
another name for seismic gap.
d)
a precursor to a tsunami.
10.
How does the structure of Earth’s interior affect seismic waves?
a)
It can affect the speed and direction of seismic waves.
b)
It can increase the power of seismic waves exponentially.
c)
It can send seismic waves into shadow zones and seismic gaps.
d)
It can change seismic waves into dangerous earthquakes.
11.
Why do earthquakes usually occur at plate boundaries?
a)
Rock in environments near tectonic plate boundaries experience great stress.
b)
The boundaries between tectonic plates have been seismically active for millions of years.
c)
Rock in environments near tectonic plate boundaries experience little stress.
d)
The rock on the edges of tectonic plates is soft and gives in easily to various pressures.
12.
Which of the following can affect how a building responds to seismic waves?
a)
the type of ground beneath the building
b)
the type of electrical system the building has
c)
the type of windows the building has
d)
the type of roof the building has
13.
When seismologists record arrival times of P waves and S waves at several seismograph stations, they are looking for the earthquake’s
a)
epicenter.
b)
focus.
c)
magnitude.
d)
intensity.
14.
S waves are also known as
a)
shear waves.
b)
Love waves.
c)
Rayleigh waves.
d)
compression waves.
15.
What causes tsunamis?
a)
undersea earthquakes, landslides, volcanic eruptions
b)
magnetic pole shifts, seismic gaps, extreme tides during winter
c)
tornadoes, volcanic eruptions, landslides
d)
changes in Earth’s ozone layer, world climate changes, glaciers
16.
Through what type of materials do P waves travel fastest?
a)
very rigid, not easily compressed materials
b)
very rigid, brittle materials
c)
hot lava
d)
liquids and gases
17.
What effect does Earth’s interior have on P waves and S waves?
a)
It can affect the speed and direction of the waves.
b)
It can send them into seismic gaps.
c)
It can absorb P waves, but not S waves.
d)
It has virtually no effect, especially on P waves.
18.
Fault zones form at plate boundaries because
a)
intense stress occurs there when the plates separate, collide, subduct, or slide past each other.
b)
seismic gaps and shadow zones form there.
c)
very little rock stress and strain occur there.
d)
they have a long geologic history of occurring in the same places.
19.
Where does the first motion of an earthquake occur?
a)
focus
b)
fault
c)
epicenter
d)
locus
20.
If the temperature of rock rises above the melting point of the minerals the rock is composed of
a)
the rock will melt.
b)
the minerals will evaporate.
c)
the melting point of rock decreases.
d)
the melting point of rock increases.
21.
Which of the following areas is both a major earthquake zone and a major volcanic zone?
a)
Pacific Ring of Fire
b)
Pacific Ring of Volcanoes
c)
Oceanic Ring of Fire
d)
Pacific Island Arc
22.
When an underwater volcano erupts, the magma cools quickly, forming
a)
pillow lava.
b)
fissures.
c)
island arcs.
d)
vents.
23.
What forms on the ocean floor in a subduction zone?
a)
trench
b)
lithosphere
c)
hot spot
d)
mantle plume
24.
Pyroclastic material less than 0.25 mm in diameter is called
a)
volcanic dust.
b)
a volcanic bomb.
c)
a volcanic block.
d)
volcanic ash.
25.
Volcanic ash, dust, blocks, bombs, and lapilli are all
a)
pyroclastic materials.
b)
felsic lava.
c)
mafic lava.
d)
pahoehoe.
26.
Which of the following is NOT a major type of volcanic cone?
a)
mantle plume
b)
shield
c)
cinder cone
d)
composite
27.
The eruption of Mount St. Helens was
a)
an explosive eruption.
b)
an oceanic volcano.
c)
a stratovolcano.
d)
a quiet eruption.
28.
When oceanic lithosphere subducts beneath oceanic lithosphere,
a)
an island arc forms.
b)
a fissure will form.
c)
more lithosphere is produced.
d)
aa lava is produced.
29.
Pillow lava forms
a)
on a mid-ocean ridge.
b)
along a tectonic plate.
c)
below a caldera.
d)
on a cinder cone.
30.
Which of the following island is cut into two parts by a fissure?
a)
Iceland
b)
Japan
c)
Grand Cayman
d)
Hawaii
31.
Any activity that includes the movement of magna to Earth’s surface is called
a)
volcanism.
b)
a vent.
c)
lava.
d)
a volcano.
32.
Three events that might signal a volcanic eruption include a change in earthquake activity, the formation of bulges on or near the volcano, and
a)
a change in gases emitted.
b)
the formation of heavy thunder clouds.
c)
the appearance of vents.
d)
a sulfuric odor.
33.
When lava cools rapidly, a crust forms on the surface of the flow. If the flow continues, the crusted-over surface wrinkles and forms volcanic rock known as
a)
pahoehoe.
b)
aa.
c)
blocky lava.
d)
lapilli.
34.
An area of volcanic activity far from a tectonic plate boundary is called a(n)
a)
hot spot.
b)
island arc.
c)
cone.
d)
mantle plume.
35.
Large plutons that can cover an area as large as 100 km2 are called
a)
batholiths.
b)
dikes.
c)
igneous.
d)
necks.
36.
Lichens and mosses produce weathering agents called
a)
organic acids.
b)
exfoliation.
c)
sulfuric acids.
d)
organic activities.
37.
Snow that weathers buildings in a city is an example of
a)
acid precipitation.
b)
oxidation.
c)
mechanical weathering.
d)
carbonation.
38.
Abrasion is caused by all of the following agents EXCEPT
a)
ice wedging.
b)
wind.
c)
gravity.
d)
running water.
39.
How does the amount of a rock’s surface area affect weathering?
a)
The larger the area, the higher the rate of weathering.
b)
The larger the area, the lower the rate of weathering.
c)
The smaller the area, the higher the rate of weathering
d)
The rate of weathering is unaffected by the surface area.
40.
Sedimentary rocks that weather most quickly contain
a)
calcite.
b)
clay.
c)
quartz.
d)
crystal.
41.
Topography with high mountains and steep slopes are especially vulnerable to what type of weathering?
a)
mechanical
b)
chemical
c)
chemical and mechanical
d)
none
42.
Tropical climates generally form soils in which the B horizon is covered by a thin layer of
a)
humus.
b)
sand.
c)
clay.
d)
rock.
43.
Residual soil generally consists of all of the following layers EXCEPT
a)
lava.
b)
partially weathered bedrock.
c)
topsoil.
d)
subsoil.
44.
Arctic and desert climates generally form soil that is thin and contains mostly
a)
regolith.
b)
humus.
c)
pedocal.
d)
laterites.
45.
In which of the following erosion processes is gravity NOT a major factor?
a)
dust storms
b)
creep
c)
slump
d)
mudflows
46.
Which of the following is NOT an agent of erosion?
a)
sun
b)
wind
c)
glaciers
d)
gravity
47.
Parent rock that contains large amounts of quartz, such as granite, will weather to form
a)
sandy soil.
b)
organic material.
c)
clay-filled soil.
d)
iron-rich soil.
48.
Which of the following is NOT a farming method that conserves topsoil?
a)
gullying
b)
strip-cropping
c)
crop rotation
d)
terracing
49.
All of the following are layers of mature residual soils EXCEPT
a)
humus.
b)
subsoil.
c)
topsoil.
d)
weathered bedrock.
50.
Areas with low, rolling hills formed from mountains are
a)
peneplains.
b)
plains.
c)
plateaus.
d)
mountains.
51.
In which of the following climates will you likely find thick soil containing iron and aluminum minerals that do not easily dissolve?
a)
tropical climates
b)
temperate dry climates
c)
arctic climates
d)
desert climates
52.
Which of the following describes a climate where you would expect to find thin soil consisting primarily of regolith with little evidence of humus?
a)
arctic
b)
temperate wet
c)
temperate dry
d)
tropical
53.
When overlaying rocks are removed from granite that formed deep beneath Earth’s surface, pressure decreases, and the granite cracks into large, curved sheets through a process called
a)
joints.
b)
exfoliation.
c)
gullies.
d)
valleys.
54.
A soil conservation method of farming that uses alternating bands of crops is called
a)
strip-cropping.
b)
contour plowing.
c)
terracing.
d)
crop rotation.
55.
Which of the following is NOT a minor landform?
a)
plain
b)
hill
c)
valley
d)
dune
56.
What are two ways that fresh water supplies can be maintained?
a)
conservation and alternative methods of obtaining fresh water
b)
conservation and evapotranspiration
c)
conservation and condensation
d)
conversation and declassification
57.
What is a condition necessary for a river system to form?
a)
Precipitation exceeds evapotranspiration.
b)
Flooding exceeds condensation.
c)
Evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation.
d)
Condensation exceeds evaporation.
58.
Braided streams
a)
are composed of multiple channels divided by sediment bars.
b)
form an oxbow lake.
c)
have trees on the banks.
d)
twist around bends.
59.
When the soil in an area soaks up as much water as it can, and water begins to run off,
a)
a river can form.
b)
a floodplain can form.
c)
a mud hole can form.
d)
a deposition can form.
60.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of living on a floodplain?
a)
good drainage
b)
convenient river access
c)
good farming
d)
rich soil
61.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of living in a floodplain?
a)
property damage
b)
poor river access
c)
cool temperatures
d)
drought
62.
What is an artificial levee?
a)
a human-built structure used to control flooding
b)
a raised river bank formed by sediment
c)
a dam that creates a lake
d)
a raised river bank built of wood
63.
Which of the following is true of lakes?
a)
Most are short-lived in geologic terms.
b)
Most are located at low altitudes.
c)
Most are extremely old in geologic terms.
d)
Most last a long time in geologic terms.
64.
What is a tributary?
a)
a stream that feeds another stream or lake
b)
a lake that feeds into a stream
c)
a stream that dries out
d)
the area drained by a river system
65.
A divide
a)
separates watersheds.
b)
separates floodplains.
c)
separates braided streams.
d)
separates continents.
66.
An artificial levee is a form of
a)
flood control.
b)
ecology.
c)
pollution control.
d)
evapotranspiration.
67.
When water changes state from a gas to a liquid, the process is called
a)
condensation.
b)
precipitation.
c)
runoff.
d)
evapotranspiration.
68.
About 90% of the water used by cities and industry is returned to rivers or to the oceans as
a)
wastewater.
b)
runoff.
c)
saltwater.
d)
precipitation.
69.
Which of the following factors widen and deepen a river channel?
a)
load, discharge, gradient
b)
meanders, watersheds, divides
c)
acidity, sediment, erosion
d)
fish, organic sediment, soil
70.
River channels lengthen and branch out at their upper ends in what process?
a)
headward erosion
b)
channel erosion
c)
headward expansion
d)
headlong expansion
71.
Which of the following is NOT a way to ensure the water supply for the future?
a)
increase industrial wastewater
b)
enforce conservation laws
c)
enforce antipollution laws
d)
limit use by individuals
72.
In the process of stream piracy, a stream in a watershed with a
a)
higher rate of erosion captures a stream from another watershed, and the captured stream then drains into its new watershed.
b)
higher rate of erosion captures a stream from another watershed, and the captured stream then drains into its old watershed.
c)
lower rate of erosion captures a stream from another watershed, and the captured stream then drains into its new watershed.
d)
lower rate of erosion captures a stream from another watershed, and the captured stream then drains into its old watershed.
73.
Which of the following factors need to increase to widen and deepen a river channel?
a)
load, discharge, and gradient
b)
meanders, white water, and pollution
c)
distance from the ocean and salinity of the water
d)
suspended load, acidity, and gradient
74.
The layer of an aquifer in which the pore space is completely filled with water is called the zone of
a)
saturation.
b)
aeration.
c)
capillaries.
d)
porosity.
75.
A second water table that sits above the first water table is called a(n)
a)
perched water table.
b)
capillary fringe.
c)
gradient.
d)
aquifer.
76.
A natural flow of groundwater to Earth’s surface is called a(n)
a)
spring.
b)
well.
c)
caprock.
d)
cone of depression.
77.
A sloping layer of permeable rock sandwiched between two layers of impermeable rock and exposed at the surface is called a(n)
a)
artesian formation.
b)
hot spring.
c)
caprock.
d)
geyser.
78.
One land feature formed by hot water is called a(n)
a)
geyser.
b)
recharge zone.
c)
artesian well.
d)
caprock.
79.
Carbonic acid breaks down minerals in rock in a process called
a)
chemical weathering.
b)
saturation.
c)
sorting.
d)
capillary action.
80.
Which of the following minerals makes rocks especially vulnerable to chemical weathering?
a)
calcite
b)
phosphorus
c)
zinc
d)
copper
81.
The amount of uniformity in the size of rock or sediment particles is called
a)
sorting.
b)
packing.
c)
permeability.
d)
cracking.
82.
Karst topography forms in
a)
both dry and wet areas.
b)
only dry areas.
c)
only the Northern Hemisphere.
d)
only wet areas.
83.
Which of the following does NOT affect the depth of the water table below the ground?
a)
pollution
b)
surface topography
c)
rainfall
d)
permeability of the aquifer
84.
The area where water from the surface can move through permeable rock to reach an aquifer is called a
a)
recharge zone.
b)
water table.
c)
well.
d)
hot spring.
85.
Two land features formed by hot groundwater are
a)
geysers and hot springs.
b)
aquifers and geysers.
c)
hot springs and wells.
d)
wells and aquifers.
86.
How are wells, springs, and artesian formations similar?
a)
They all bring groundwater to Earth’s surface.
b)
They all are formed by magma-heated water.
c)
They all are located in rugged terrain.
d)
They all are permeable rock formations.
87.
Open spaces in rock must be connected in order for the rock to be
a)
permeable.
b)
fractured.
c)
packed.
d)
porous.
88.
Water that contains relatively low concentrations of dissolved minerals is called
a)
soft water.
b)
hard water.
c)
groundwater.
d)
perched water.
89.
Uncollapsed rock between sinkholes can form arches called
a)
natural bridges.
b)
columns.
c)
subsistence sinkholes.
d)
recharge zones.
90.
Which of the following forms around the edges of a hot spring after the water has cooled?
a)
travertine
b)
stalagmite
c)
geyser
d)
cavity
91.
When new snow is added to a glacier faster than ice and snow melt, the glacier
a)
gets larger.
b)
gets smaller.
c)
stays the same size.
d)
gets larger, then smaller.
92.
What is the grainy ice that forms when snow melts and refreezes called?
a)
firn
b)
erratic
c)
till
d)
moraine
93.
An iceberg is a large block of ice that breaks away from a(n)
a)
ice shelf.
b)
ice pack.
c)
landmass.
d)
ice block.
94.
A massive sheet of ice that may cover millions of square kilometers is a(n)
a)
continental glacier.
b)
land mass.
c)
alpine glacier.
d)
ice slick.
95.
A lake basin can form when a continental glacier leaves depressions
a)
in bedrock.
b)
in eskers.
c)
in the ice mass.
d)
in roches moutonnées.
96.
Glacial lakes can form in the uneven surface of
a)
ground moraines.
b)
mountains.
c)
the continental glacier.
d)
valleys.
97.
Which of the following explains the principle behind the Milankovitch theory?
a)
Cyclical changes in Earth’s orbit and in the tilt of its axis cause climatic changes.
b)
Earth receives a constant amount of solar radiation despite changes in its orbit.
c)
The amount of solar radiation the sun emits varies.
d)
The amount of solar radiation the sun emits is constant.
98.
The Milankovitch theory attempts to explain
a)
causes of ice ages.
b)
patterns of weather.
c)
global warming.
d)
how the Great Lakes formed.
99.
According to the Milankovitch theory, which of the following factors affect the amount of solar energy that reaches Earth’s surface?
a)
eccentricity, tilt, and precession
b)
clouds, ice, and glaciers
c)
tilt, angle, and slope
d)
eccentricity, erratics, and precession
100.
Finger lakes form where
a)
moraines block existing streams.
b)
erosion causes deep holes.
c)
glaciers melt by evaporation.
d)
deposition overcomes erosion.
101.
What happened to sea levels during the last ice age?
a)
They were lower than today.
b)
They were the same as today.
c)
They were higher, then lower than today.
d)
They were higher than today.
102.
How do glacial periods and interglacial periods differ?
a)
In glacial periods, glaciers advance; in interglacial periods they retreat.
b)
In glacial periods, glaciers flow; in interglacial periods they advance.
c)
In glacial periods, glaciers retreat; in interglacial periods they advance.
d)
In glacial periods, glaciers retreat; in interglacial periods they slip.
103.
A continental glacier is
a)
a mass of ice that is not confined by local topography.
b)
a mass of ice that forms in the mountains, confined by local topography.
c)
a mass of ice driven by continental drift.
d)
a massive ice sheet that forms in the mountains.
104.
Which of the following are all formed by glacial deposition?
a)
erratic, till, glacial drift, moraine, and drumlin
b)
till, erratic, cirque, kettle, eccentric, and arête
c)
glacial lake, arête, moraine, cirque, and kettle
d)
horn, cirque, moraine, kettle, and esker
105.
Which of the following is one theory that explains the cause of ice ages?
a)
Ice ages may be caused by volcanic dust that blocks sunlight.
b)
Ice ages may be caused by pollution.
c)
Ice ages may be caused by changes in Earth’s movement relative to the moon.
d)
Ice ages may be caused by cold air from the poles.
106.
Which of the following explanations is the cause of ice ages according to the Milankovitch theory?
a)
cyclical changes in Earth’s movement relative to the sun
b)
non-cyclical changes in the sun’s movement relative to Earth
c)
non-cyclical changes in Earth’s movement
d)
cyclical changes in the sun’s movement
107.
What is the name of large rocks transported from a distant source by a glacier?
a)
erratics
b)
horns
c)
moraines
d)
arêtes
108.
What is the name of the long, winding ridge of gravel and sand that is sometimes left by a receding glacier?
a)
esker
b)
horn
c)
erratic
d)
kettle
109.
Mounds of wind-deposited sand are called
a)
dunes.
b)
ventifacts.
c)
loess.
d)
saltation.
110.
The movement of dunes is called
a)
dune migration.
b)
dune saltation.
c)
dune immigration.
d)
dune deflation.
111.
Ventifacts can be used to tell the
a)
direction of prevailing wind.
b)
season of most erosion.
c)
location of sedimentary rocks.
d)
location of desert pavement.
112.
Longitudinal sand dunes are ridge-shaped dunes that form
a)
parallel to wind direction.
b)
east to west.
c)
north to south.
d)
opposite of wind direction.
113.
A sand ridge that connects an offshore island to the mainland is called a
a)
tombolo.
b)
spit.
c)
longshore current.
d)
bay.
114.
Saltating sand grains move
a)
in the same direction as the wind.
b)
in a zig-zag motion.
c)
at right angles to wind.
d)
in opposition to bays and headlands.
115.
The composition of beach material depends on the
a)
source rock.
b)
longshore current.
c)
season.
d)
prevailing wind.
116.
A hole cut into fractured, weak rock along a cliff base is called a
a)
sea cave.
b)
sea arch.
c)
sea stack.
d)
terrace.
117.
When land or features near the coast change,
a)
relative sea level changes.
b)
fiords form.
c)
absolute sea level changes.
d)
estuaries form.
118.
Substances in air and water react with rock during
a)
chemical weathering.
b)
mechanical weathering.
c)
barrier island formation.
d)
beach formation.
119.
The formation created by the collapse of wave-eroded, overhanging rock is called a
a)
sea cliff.
b)
sea arch.
c)
sea stack.
d)
sea cave.
120.
A gentle slope that forms a smooth coastal plain with long, wide beaches is a feature of a(n)
a)
barrier island.
b)
submergent coastline.
c)
emergent coastline.
d)
longshore current.
121.
Most sand grains are made of
a)
quartz.
b)
coral.
c)
dust.
d)
loess.
122.
In what direction does a longshore current move?
a)
parallel to the shoreline
b)
the same direction that waves strike the shore
c)
toward the barrier island
d)
at right angles to the shoreline
123.
The ridges of a transverse dune form
a)
at right angles to wind direction.
b)
parallel to shoreline.
c)
parallel to wind direction.
d)
parallel to barrier islands.
124.
Which of the following is NOT formed by wave erosion?
a)
loess
b)
sea stack
c)
sea cave
d)
sea arch
125.
One harmful effect of temperature inversions is
a)
smog.
b)
hydrocarbons.
c)
the greenhouse effect.
d)
global warming.
126.
Energy from the sun travels to Earth as
a)
radiation.
b)
ultraviolet rays.
c)
visible light.
d)
infrared rays.
127.
The solar radiation least absorbed by the layers of the atmosphere before reaching Earth is
a)
visible light.
b)
X rays.
c)
radio waves.
d)
ultraviolet rays.
128.
After Earth absorbs infrared rays that heat the ground, what kind of energy does the atmosphere absorb from the ground?
a)
thermal
b)
albedo
c)
solar
d)
mirage
129.
Average temperatures are lower near the poles because sunlight strikes the ground at an angle
a)
smaller than 90º.
b)
greater than 90º.
c)
of 90º.
d)
of 180º.
130.
Winds that blow at speeds of less than 50 km/h are
a)
breezes.
b)
light air.
c)
gales.
d)
storms.
131.
The trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres meet at the equator in a narrow zone of weak variable winds called
a)
the doldrums.
b)
subtropical jet streams.
c)
the wind belt.
d)
prevailing winds.
132.
What kind of wind blows cool air from land to water?
a)
land breeze
b)
sea breeze
c)
valley breeze
d)
mountain breeze
133.
Narrow bands of high-speed winds that blow in the upper troposphere and lower stratosphere are called
a)
jet streams.
b)
trade winds.
c)
convection cells.
d)
doldrums.
134.
Solar radiation that is not reflected back into the atmosphere
a)
is absorbed by surface materials.
b)
is destroyed by ozone.
c)
is changed to radio waves.
d)
becomes visible.
135.
Albedo is the fraction of solar radiation reaching Earth that is
a)
reflected.
b)
refracted.
c)
absorbed.
d)
destroyed.
136.
Which of the following do NOT make up a global wind belt?
a)
fronts
b)
polar easterlies
c)
trade winds
d)
westerlies
137.
Local wind patterns are affected by local conditions and
a)
temperatures.
b)
westerlies.
c)
jet streams.
d)
rainfall.
138.
All of the following are particulates in the atmosphere EXCEPT
a)
gases.
b)
pollen.
c)
dust.
d)
salt.
139.
Temperature inversions can intensify the effect of smog when cool, polluted ground air is trapped by
a)
warm air.
b)
a front.
c)
mountains.
d)
the ocean.
140.
Which processes remove water vapor from the air?
a)
condensation and precipitation
b)
evaporation and transpiration
c)
precipitation and evaporation
d)
transpiration and condensation
141.
Which of the following is NOT a common source of particulates?
a)
chlorofluorocarbons
b)
volcanic dust
c)
pollen
d)
salt particles
142.
Radiation whose wavelengths are among the shortest are
a)
X rays.
b)
infrared waves.
c)
visible light.
d)
radio waves.
143.
In general, the Coriolis effect is noticeable only on objects that move very fast or travel
a)
long distances.
b)
from north to south.
c)
during daylight hours.
d)
along a wind belt.
144.
From where does most evaporation come?
a)
equatorial oceans
b)
plants
c)
lakes
d)
burning fuels
145.
Where do middle clouds form?
a)
between 2,000 and 6,000 m
b)
between 1,000 and 2,000 m
c)
between 6,000 and 8,000 m
d)
between 8,000 and 10,000 m
146.
The process by which the temperature of an air mass decreases as the air mass moves over a cold surface is
a)
advective cooling.
b)
lifting.
c)
adiabatic cooling.
d)
mixing.
147.
The diameter of a normal raindrop is
a)
between 0.5 and 5 mm.
b)
smaller than 0.5 mm.
c)
between 5 mm and 10 mm.
d)
larger than 10 mm.
148.
What can form if rain falls through a layer of freezing air near the ground?
a)
sleet
b)
snow
c)
big raindrops
d)
hail
149.
The most common form of solid precipitation is
a)
snow.
b)
glaze ice.
c)
sleet.
d)
hail.
150.
What might happen if enough energy is absorbed by liquid water?
a)
The water will change to a gas.
b)
Condensation will occur.
c)
The water will never change.
d)
The water will change to ice.
151.
Compared to the rate for clear air, the adiabatic lapse rate for cloudy air is
a)
slower.
b)
larger.
c)
faster.
d)
the same.
152.
Some clouds form when a body of moist air combines with another body of moist air with a different temperature is a process called
a)
mixing.
b)
adiabatic cooling.
c)
lifting.
d)
advective cooling.
153.
The mass of water vapor in a unit of air relative to the mass of the dry air is called the
a)
mixing ratio.
b)
adiabatic lapse rate.
c)
absolute humidity.
d)
relative humidity.
154.
A drop of liquid precipitation that is 2 mm in diameter is
a)
rain.
b)
drizzle.
c)
sleet.
d)
hail.
155.
Clouds that often bring thunderstorms are
a)
cumulonimbus.
b)
altocumulus.
c)
nimbostratus.
d)
stratocumulus.
156.
Sometimes, a solid will change directly into a gas in a process called
a)
sublimation.
b)
evaporation.
c)
adiabatic cooling.
d)
coalescence.
157.
Which of the following cloud types occurs at the highest altitudes?
a)
cirrus
b)
stratus
c)
cumulus
d)
nimbus
158.
Technology that can save lives by warning people of an approaching storm is
a)
Doppler radar.
b)
a rain gauge.
c)
radiosonde.
d)
a psychrometer.
159.
As lower layers of air are warmed,
a)
the air rises.
b)
the air dries.
c)
winds form.
d)
the air sinks.
160.
A large body of air throughout which temperature and moisture content are similar is a(n)
a)
air mass.
b)
storm.
c)
wind belt.
d)
air pressure.
161.
A weather event in which the air sinks and flows outward from a center of high pressure, and that brings dry weather is a(n)
a)
anticyclone.
b)
heat storm.
c)
cyclone.
d)
front.
162.
What tool do meteorologists use to solve mathematical equations and store data?
a)
computer
b)
satellite
c)
weather center
d)
thermistor
163.
Which of the following measurements indicates a southerly wind?
a)
180°
b)
90°
c)
270°
d)
0°
164.
Marine weather conditions can be monitored by
a)
weather satellites.
b)
ocean-based weather stations.
c)
anometers.
d)
barometers.
165.
Weather map symbols H and L indicate
a)
air pressure centers.
b)
precipitation.
c)
temperature range.
d)
wind velocity.
166.
When air moves slowly, it takes on the temperature and humidity of its source location, becoming a(n)
a)
air mass.
b)
occluded front.
c)
storm surge.
d)
hurricane.
167.
When a bend forms in a cold front, it begins the process of creating an area of low pressure with rotating wind that moves toward the rising air of the central low-pressure region—a storm known as a(n)
a)
midlatitude cyclone.
b)
anticyclone.
c)
occluded front.
d)
stationary front.
168.
Meteorologists use supercomputers for all of the following purposes EXCEPT
a)
controlling weather.
b)
storing weather data.
c)
solving mathematical equations.
d)
storing records for quick retrieval.
169.
Which of the following does NOT measure lower-atmospheric weather conditions?
a)
radar
b)
thermometer
c)
barometer
d)
wind vane
170.
Storms along a cold front are usually short-lived and sometimes violent, while storms along a warm front
a)
produce precipitation over a large area, and are sometimes violent.
b)
are short-lived and weak.
c)
are narrow, producing little rain and are always violent.
d)
are long-lived, but always weak.
171.
Lines that connect points of equal temperature on a weather map are called
a)
isotherms.
b)
air masses.
c)
isobars.
d)
thermometers.
172.
Which of the following conditions is issued when severe weather has been spotted in a given area?
a)
warning
b)
watch
c)
forecast
d)
front
173.
A front that forms when a cold air mass overtakes a warm air mass and lifts the warm air mass off the ground and over another air mass is called a(n)
a)
occluded front.
b)
stationary front.
c)
warm front.
d)
cold front.
174.
An air mass that originates in the Pacific or Atlantic Ocean and brings cold, moist air is called
a)
maritime polar.
b)
continental polar.
c)
maritime tropical.
d)
continental tropical.
175.
What continues to absorb solar energy and increase in temperature as long as the sun’s rays hit it?
a)
land
b)
air
c)
ocean
d)
vegetation
176.
Which of the following affects the angle at which the sun’s rays hit Earth?
a)
latitude
b)
weather
c)
wind
d)
sea level
177.
What weather effect results when a moving air mass hits a mountain, rises, cools, and loses most of its moisture through precipitation?
a)
rain shadow
b)
monsoon
c)
foehn
d)
chinook
178.
Which of the following weather conditions is LEAST affected by wind?
a)
drought
b)
temperature
c)
precipitation
d)
cloud cover
179.
Two major factors used to identify climate are
a)
temperature and precipitation.
b)
longitude and latitude.
c)
latitude and temperature.
d)
precipitation and longitude.
180.
Which of these climates has treeless plains and nine months of temperatures below freezing?
a)
tundra
b)
subarctic
c)
mediterranean
d)
polar icecap
181.
Which of the following moderates temperature and increases rainfall?
a)
ocean
b)
mountain
c)
desert
d)
iceberg
182.
Thin tree rings indicate which of the following?
a)
cool weather, less rainfall
b)
warm weather, less rainfall
c)
cool weather, more rainfall
d)
warm weather, more rainfall
183.
Which of the following will NOT help reduce CO2 levels in the atmosphere?
a)
burning more fossil fuels
b)
using public transportation
c)
recycling
d)
driving a hybrid car
184.
Which of the following is NOT a factor that could cause climate change according to the Milankovitch theory?
a)
the movement of tectonic plates
b)
the wobble of Earth on its axis
c)
changes in the shape of Earth’s orbit
d)
changes in Earth’s tilt
185.
The weather conditions for an area over a long period of time is referred to as the area’s
a)
climate.
b)
specific heat.
c)
latitude.
d)
yearly temperature range.
186.
A warm, dry wind that flows down the slopes of the Alps is known as a(n)
a)
foehn.
b)
El Niño.
c)
monsoon.
d)
doldrum.
187.
Which of the following is NOT a potential result of climate change?
a)
orbital change
b)
sea-level change
c)
crop damage
d)
global warming
188.
A large variation in temperature and precipitation over short distances because of changes in elevation is characteristic of which climate?
a)
highland
b)
marine west coast
c)
humid continental
d)
steppe
189.
Which climate has little or no life, temperatures below freezing year-round, and high winds?
a)
polar icecap
b)
savanna
c)
subarctic
d)
tundra
190.
Tree rings have been used to measure
a)
hundreds to thousands of years.
b)
only a handful of years.
c)
billions of years.
d)
millions of years.
191.
Which of the following methods provides evidence that ice ages follow decreases in the global level of CO2?
a)
ice cores.
b)
sea-floor sediment.
c)
fossils.
d)
tree rings.
192.
Which of the following may decrease temperatures by reflecting sunlight back into space?
a)
volcanic activity
b)
orbital change
c)
sea-level change
d)
global warming
193.
When an air mass encounters a mountain range, the air mass
a)
rises and cools.
b)
reverses its direction.
c)
stops moving.
d)
slows and sinks.
194.
In the Milankovitch theory, eccentricity describes
a)
the shape of Earth’s orbit.
b)
the speed of Earth’s orbit.
c)
the wobble of Earth’s axis.
d)
the angle of tilt of earth’s axis.
195.
The tropical desert climate is like the polar icecap climate in that they both feature
a)
low annual precipitation.
b)
temperatures above freezing.
c)
alternating wet and dry periods.
d)
temperatures below freezing.
196.
In the Milankovitch theory, precession describes
a)
the wobble of Earth’s axis.
b)
the shape of Earth’s orbit.
c)
the speed of Earth’s orbit.
d)
the angle of tilt of Earth’s axis.
197.
Which of the following factors related to Earth’s orbit does NOT affect climate?
a)
rotation
b)
eccentricity
c)
tilt
d)
precession
198.
Which tropical climate has the least annual rainfall?
a)
desert
b)
savanna
c)
rain forest
d)
humid continental
199.
Which of these middle-latitude climates is most similar to humid continental?
a)
humid subtropical
b)
steppe
c)
mediterranean
d)
marine west coast
200.
In which region does the air sink, warm, and dry, resulting in little precipitation?
a)
subtropical high
b)
subpolar low
c)
equatorial
d)
doldrums
201.
Over the last 100 years, global temperatures have increased approximately
a)
1 °C
b)
12.5 °C
c)
10 °C
d)
5 °C
202.
Which is NOT part of our solar system?
a)
the Milky Way
b)
the sun
c)
Jupiter
d)
comets and asteroids
203.
A constellation’s change in position over several hours is caused by
a)
Earth’s revolution around the sun.
b)
Earth’s rotation on its axis.
c)
the tilt of Earth’s axis.
d)
the movement of stars.
204.
If it is Monday west of the International Date Line, what day is it east of the line?
a)
Sunday
b)
Tuesday
c)
Monday
d)
Wednesday
205.
A light-year equals
a)
9.4607 ´ 1012 km.
b)
150 million km.
c)
14 billion km.
d)
300 million m/s.
206.
The event which began the universe was the
a)
big bang.
b)
Milky Way.
c)
electromagnetic spectrum.
d)
black hole.
207.
A constellation’s changing position in the sky, at the same time of the evening, over a period of several weeks is evidence that
a)
Earth revolves around the sun.
b)
Earth rotates on its axis.
c)
Earth is round.
d)
Earth’s axis is tilted.
208.
The telescope that solved the problem of color separation was the
a)
reflecting telescope.
b)
Overwhelmingly Large Telescope.
c)
Hubble space telescope.
d)
refracting telescope.
209.
The period between successive full moons is
a)
29.5 days.
b)
24 hours.
c)
31 days.
d)
365 days.
210.
A benefit that 20th and 21st century space programs have brought to an area outside of astronomy is
a)
improved heart pumps.
b)
more accurate calendars.
c)
telescopes for invisible radiomagnetic waves.
d)
more efficient automobile fuel.
211.
One line of evidence of Earth’s revolution around the sun is
a)
the varying positions of a constellation over a period of weeks.
b)
the Coriolis effect.
c)
Foucault’s pendulum.
d)
the varying positions of a constellation over a period of hours.
212.
Our current calendar is most like that of the ancient
a)
Romans.
b)
Aztecs.
c)
Egyptians.
d)
Babylonians.
213.
When Earth is 147 million km from the sun, it is at its
a)
perihelion.
b)
ellipse.
c)
aphelion.
d)
astronomical unit.
214.
What milestone in human space exploration took place in 1969?
a)
the first human moon landing
b)
the first man was launched into space
c)
the first flight of the space shuttle
d)
the first woman was launched into space
215.
A region where daylight savings time is unnecessary is
a)
the equator.
b)
the United States.
c)
the South Pole.
d)
the Arctic circle.
216.
Which is NOT a benefit of space exploration to areas outside astronomy?
a)
more precise prediction of solstices and equinoxes
b)
more accurate weather forecasts
c)
smaller, lighter televisions
d)
automobile navigation systems
217.
The early oceans became salty when
a)
dissolved solids were carried from land into the oceans.
b)
sea creatures left salty deposits in their remains.
c)
salt dropped from the atmosphere into the oceans.
d)
the heavy atmosphere did not allow salt particles to dissipate.
218.
About 99% of all matter contained in the solar nebula now exists in
a)
the sun.
b)
asteroids.
c)
planets.
d)
space.
219.
Which of the following celestial bodies do scientists NOT consider a major planet?
a)
Pluto
b)
Saturn
c)
Neptune
d)
Mercury
220.
Who believed that planets moved in epicycles as they revolved in larger circles around Earth?
a)
Ptolemy
b)
Aristotle
c)
Newton
d)
Copernicus
221.
Which of the following laws describes the speed at which objects travel at different points in their orbits?
a)
law of equal areas
b)
law of eccentricity
c)
law of ellipses
d)
law of periods
222.
Mars’s volcanoes are larger than those of Earth because Mars
a)
has no moving tectonic plates.
b)
has a thicker lava flow.
c)
is so close to the sun.
d)
is a much older planet.
223.
Impact craters are caused by
a)
collisions with objects in space.
b)
exploding volcanoes.
c)
solar bursts.
d)
atmospheric changes.
224.
Which of the following is NOT true of Pluto?
a)
It is a large planet.
b)
It is not a gas giant.
c)
It has methane icecaps.
d)
It orbits the sun in an ellipse.
225.
A region of the solar system that starts just beyond Neptune’s orbit, which contains dwarf planets and other small bodies made mostly of ice, is called
a)
the Kuiper Belt.
b)
the asteroid belt.
c)
the outer atmosphere.
d)
the TNO.
226.
Young Earth formed a core, mantle, and crust in a process called
a)
differentiation.
b)
layering.
c)
settling.
d)
dispersion.
227.
The two inner planets most alike in size, mass, and density are
a)
Venus and Earth.
b)
Mercury and Venus.
c)
Mars and Mercury.
d)
Earth and Mars.
228.
Which of the following planets has seasons like Earth’s because its axis tilts at an almost identical angle?
a)
Mars
b)
Uranus
c)
Mercury
d)
Venus
229.
Which of the following separates the outer planets from the inner planets?
a)
the asteroid belt
b)
the Kuiper Belt
c)
the Great Red Spot
d)
a large magnetic field
230.
The majority of Jupiter is made up of
a)
hydrogen and helium.
b)
nitrogen and oxygen.
c)
helium and oxygen.
d)
rock and water.
231.
Uranus’s axis
a)
is almost parallel to its plane of orbit.
b)
moves in a predictable manner.
c)
flips once per orbit around the sun.
d)
is perpendicular to its plane of orbit.
232.
Objects that circle stars other than Earth’s sun are called
a)
exoplanets.
b)
nebulas.
c)
moons.
d)
planetesimals.
233.
The asteroid belt is located between which two planets?
a)
Mars and Jupiter
b)
Earth and Mars
c)
Saturn and Uranus
d)
Jupiter and Saturn
234.
The inner, cone-shaped area of an eclipse’s shadow is called the
a)
umbra.
b)
diamond-ring effect.
c)
penumbra.
d)
deep shadow.
235.
The forces of gravity between Earth and the moon cause
a)
tides.
b)
eclipses.
c)
orbits.
d)
waning.
236.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Mars’s moons, Phobos and Deimos?
a)
smooth, unmarked surfaces
b)
orbit Mars relatively quickly
c)
very small in size
d)
irregular in shape
237.
The planet with the most complex set of rings is
a)
Saturn.
b)
Neptune.
c)
Jupiter.
d)
Uranus.
238.
An engineer examining photos discovered volcanoes on
a)
Io.
b)
Ganymede.
c)
Callisto.
d)
Europa.
239.
Many comets in the Kuiper Belt are the result of
a)
collisions between large objects.
b)
meteor showers.
c)
Saturn’s gravitational pull.
d)
inertia.
240.
A spherical region that surrounds the solar system and that contains billions of comets is the
a)
Oort cloud.
b)
Kuiper Belt.
c)
asteroid belt.
d)
Charon’s orbit.
241.
What are the second and third stages of the moon’s formation?
a)
differentiation and meteorite bombardment of the crust
b)
clumping of rocks ejected from Earth and differentiation
c)
cooling of the mantle and orbiting of rocks ejected from Earth
d)
differentiation and solidification of the core
242.
Characteristics of Ganymede and Callisto are, respectively,
a)
a magnetic field and craters.
b)
craters and ice sheets.
c)
ice sheets and volcanoes.
d)
volcanoes and a magnetic field.
243.
The Huygens probe landed on which moon in 2005?
a)
Titan
b)
Io
c)
Earth’s moon
d)
Iapetus
244.
The differential gravitational pull of the moon on Earth causes
a)
tides.
b)
lunar eclipses.
c)
solar eclipses.
d)
phases.
245.
What effect does the elliptical orbit of the moon around Earth have?
a)
The distance between Earth and the moon varies over a month’s time.
b)
The orbit is not predictable.
c)
The distance between Earth and the moon changes yearly.
d)
The orbit is affected by Earth’s change in seasons.
246.
Pluto’s largest moon is named
a)
Charon.
b)
Deimos.
c)
Titan.
d)
Iapetus.
247.
What are the names of the two tiny, irregularly shaped rocky moons of Mars that may be captured asteroids?
a)
Phobos and Deimos
b)
Pan and Atlas
c)
Helene and Dione
d)
Janus and Phoebe
248.
Which of the following is NOT a type of meteorite?
a)
icy
b)
stony
c)
stony-iron
d)
iron
249.
Meteors are most closely associated with meteoroids that
a)
burn up in Earth’s atmosphere.
b)
travel close to Earth.
c)
are older than the planets.
d)
are larger than 20 km.
250.
What is the name for an event where a large number of small meteoroids enter Earth’s atmosphere in a short period of time?
a)
meteor shower
b)
fireball
c)
apogee
d)
eclipse
100 %
