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Biology STAAR EOC Practice

Total questions: 237

Worksheet time: 59hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Eight components present in nucleic acids are listed in the box. Which components bond with adenine in a section of double-stranded DNA?

a)

1, 3, 5, and 6 only

b)

3 and 5 only

c)

2 and 4 only

d)

3, 4, 7, and 8 only

2.

A segments of a DNA strand is shown.


3' AGGTCAGGT 5'


Which of these is the correct complementary DNA strand for the segment shown?

a)

5' AGGTCAGGT 3'

b)

5' ACCUGAGGU 3'

c)

5' TGGACTGGA 3'

d)

5' TCCAGTCCA 3'

3.

Students are given data from an investigation that identified some of the chemical elements present in four different samples. Which sample was most likely DNA?

a)

Sample 1

b)

Sample 2

c)

Sample 3

d)

Sample 4

4.

Which part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism?

a)

The number of hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of DNA together.

b)

The number of carbons in the DNA molecule.

c)

The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule.

d)

The sequence of phosphates along each DNA strand.

5.

Differences in traits such as hair texture are determined by differences in -

a)

the location of sugar groups in DNA

b)

the sequence of nucleotides in DNA

c)

the number of nitrogenous bases in DNA

d)

the molecules attached to the phosphate in DNA

6.

A student used poster board to construct this model of a section of DNA. Which statement describes this model of DNA?

a)

The model is inaccurate because the base pairs are incorrect.

b)

The model is accurate because it contains correctly paired bases.

c)

The model is accurate because is shows each base splitting to form a double helix.

d)

The model is inaccurate because some typical bases in DNA are missing.

7.

Nitrogenous bases are located on both strands of the DNA double helix. What is the significance of the nitrogenous base?

a)

The number of adenines and cytosines determines the type of RNA that will be produced.

b)

The order of nitrogenous bases determines the order of amino acids in the proteins synthesized.

c)

The amount of thymine and guanine in the DNA molecules determines the length of the genes.

d)

The type of hydrogen bonding between the nitrogenous bases determines which amino acid will be added to the peptide chain.

8.

How is information for a specific protein carried on a DNA molecule?

a)

As a sequence of nucleotides

b)

In the double-helix shape of the concensed chromosome

c)

In the ration of adenines to thymines

d)

As a pattern of phosphates and sugars.

9.

The sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA varies widely. The sequence of the bases in DNA is most important for which of the following?

a)

Providing the instructions for the traits of an organism.

b)

Preventing mutations from occurring during DNA replication

c)

Allowing the DNA to have the shape necessary for replication

d)

Helping form the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA molecules

10.

A model of a DNA molecule is shown below. The arrow indicates -

a)

the bond between adjacent phosphate and deoxyribose molecules

b)

the junction of introns and exons in the sense strand of DNA

c)

the hydrogen bond between complementary nucleotides

d)

the junction of a codon and a DNA triplet

11.

Characteristics such as a widow's peak or attached earlobes are determined by the genetic code. Which components of DNA are referred to as the genetic code?

a)

Phosphate groups

b)

Nitrogenous bases

c)

Deoxyribose sugars

d)

Hydrogen bonds

12.

How does DNA in cells determine an organism's traits?

a)

DNA contains codes for proteins, which are necessary for the growth and functioning of an organism.

b)

DNA separates into long single strands that make up each part of an organism.

c)

DNA produces the energy an organism needs in order to grow.

d)

DNA folds into the nucleus of each of the cells of an organism.

13.

Which of these components are found in the cells of all living organisms?

a)

Estrogen and testosterone

b)

Hemoglobin and lymphocytes

c)

Cytosine and guanine

d)

Cellulose and chlorophyll

14.

Scientists use zebra fish to study human genetic diseases because zebra fish and humans share many of the same genetic diseases. Which statement describes why zebra fish experience similar genetic diseases as humans?

a)

Zebra fish have an omnivorous diet similar to that of humans.

b)

Zebra fish have nucleotide sequences similar to those of humans.

c)

Zebra fish go through embryonic stages similar to those of humans.

d)

Zebra fish produce gametes through a process that is similar to that of humans.

15.

In the early 1980s scientists were able to produce two biomolecules by splicing a human gene into the bacterium E. coli to make recombinant human insulin and growth hormone. Which statement best explains why this experiment was successful?

a)

Human cells are eukaryotic, and E. coli cells are prokaryotic

b)

All living organisms share the same genome

c)

The genes for all organisms are composed of the same building blocks

d)

The human body contains many types of bacteria, including E. Coli

16.

Organisms can be classified based on homology, which is shared characteristics inherited from a common ancestor. In the past, homologies were based on studies of anatomical structures and patterns of embryonic development. In more recent years, the use of molecular biology techniques has allowed homologies to be compared at the level of nucleotide sequences. Nucleotide sequence comparisons are possible because all organisms share which of the following?

a)

DNA bases

b)

Cellular organelles

c)

Division of the nuclear chromosomes

d)

Types of proteins needed for cellular functions

17.

Four different types of cells are shown below. Which characteristic is shared by all four cells?

a)

A mechanism for transforming sunlight into energy

b)

Self-locomotion

c)

Membrane-bound organelles that transport substances

d)

Genetic material composed of DNA

18.

The fact that a strain of yeast with a certain defective gene can use the human version of the gene to repair itself is evidence that yeast and humans -

a)

depend on the same food supply

b)

share a genetic code

c)

both have eukaryotic cells

d)

have identical genomes

19.

Students are modeling mRNA during the process of protein synthesis. Which answer choice correctly describes the model of the mRNA strand being transcribed?

a)

The mRNA strand is complementary to the DNA template strand; however, uracil instead of adenine is paired with thymine.

b)

The mRNA strand is complementary to the DNA template strand; however, uracil instead of thymine is paired with adenine.

c)

The mRNA strand is an exact copy of the DNA template strand; however, uracil instead of adenine is paired with thymine.

d)

The mRNA strand is an exact copy of the DNA template strand; however, uracil instead of thymine is paired with adenine.

20.

A sequence of a DNA template strand is shown. Which of these is the correct amino acid chain produced from the DNA template strand?

a)

Arginine - Leucine - Proline - Asparagine - Lysine - Arginine

b)

Tryptophan - Phenylalanine - Leucine - Glycine - Asparagine - Phenylalanine

c)

Serine - Leucine - Proline - Asparagine - Lysine - Arginine

d)

Tryptophan - Phenylalanine - Leucine - Glycine - Asparagine - Serine

21.

A model of a biological process is shown. What is the purpose of this process?

a)

To replicate the DNA of an organism before cell division.

b)

To assemble nucleotides in an mRNA chain along a DNA template.

c)

To synthesize amino acids used to unzip strands of DNA and copy the genetic code.

d)

To translate the genetic code into a specific sequence of amino acids.

22.

The initial steps in gene expression are modeled below. Double-stranded DNA first unwinds into two strands. Which process and product are represented in Diagram 2?

a)

Process: transcription; product: mRNA

b)

Process: translation; product: protein

c)

Process: replication; product: tRNA

d)

Process: recombination; product: polymerase

23.

Which of the following polypeptides is coded for by the mRNA sequence 5' AUGGUUAAACGACAAUCC 3'

a)

Val, Lys, Phe, Gly, Ser

b)

Met, Asp, Phe, Ala, Arg

c)

Met, Val, Lys, Arg, Gln, Ser

d)

Ile, Gln, Lys, Asp, Gly, Leu, Ser

24.

The Himalayan rabbit's habitat has cold, snowy winters and mild summers. The body is typically covered in white fur except for the nose, feet, tail, and ears, which are covered in black fur.


A scientist shaved an area of white fur on the back of a Himalayan rabbit and placed an ice pack over the shaved area. The shaved area grew black fur.


Which of these best explains why the hair that grew back where the ice pack was placed was black and not white?

a)

The genes for black hair were activated by specific temperatures

b)

The white hair mutated to black hair as the rabbit's body temperature decreased

c)

The coat color changed from white to black with the age of the rabbit

d)

White hair only grows during certain times of the year

25.

The arctic fox inhabits northern areas of North America. The same arctic fox is shown in the drawing at different times of the year. What causes this change in fur color?

a)

The alleles for fur color change as the arctic fox grows older.

b)

Gene expression for fur color is regulated by latitude.

c)

The arctic fox has two traits for fur color that are determined at birth.

d)

Gene expression for fur color is regulated by temperature.

26.

Human bone, muscle, and nerve cells all contain the same number of chromosomes with the same complement of genes. What enables these cells to perform specialized activities?

a)

The ability of some cells to remove unnecessary DNA seequences.

b)

The regulation of gene expression within each cell type.

c)

The mutation of genes within each cell type.

d)

The use of different methods of cell division.

27.

Mice have two unlinked allele pairs that affect fur color. The table shows how allele pairs affect fur color. The term "agouti" describes fur with pigmentation that changes in each hair from the shaft to the tip, giving the fur a banded appearance. Mice with the aa allele pair are albino, regardless of the second allele-pair combination.


What is the probability of albinism in the offspring of a cross between two mice with AaBb alleles?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

28.

The inheritance pattern for an autosomal dominant trait is shown in the pedigree. Shaded symbols represent individuals that express the dominant trait.


Based on this pedigree, what are the most likely genotypes of individuals I-1 and I-2?

a)

I-1: aa

I-2: Aa

b)

I-1: AA

I-2: Aa

c)

I-1: Aa

I-2: aa

d)

I-1: aa

I-2: AA

29.

In humans blood type is determined by the A, B, and O alleles. The A and B alleles are codominant to each other and dominant over the O allele. An individual with the AO genotype and an individual with the BO genotype can produce offspring with which of the following phenotypes?

a)

O only

b)

A or B only

c)

A, B, or O only

d)

A, B, AB, or O

30.

In cattle the allele for cloven hooves (H) is dominant over the allele for mule-foot hooves (h). The phenotype for each trait is shown in the picture.


What is the probability of cloven hooves in the offspring of parents that are heterozygous for the trait?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

31.

Albinism is an autosomal recessive condition. Which circle graph shows the genotype probability when an albino female mates with a male that is heterozygous for the albinism trait?

a)
b)
c)
d)
32.

The four butterflies in the illustrations represent the offspring in the F1 generation.


Which statement is best supported by the phenotypes of these offspring?

a)

The F1 generation is composed only of males

b)

Two of the offspring in the F1 generation will not be able to reproduce

c)

The F1 generation is the result of a dihybrid cross

d)

Two of the offspring in the F1 generation will experience a spontaneous mutation

33.

Chickens can have different types of feathers. Frizzled feathers curl toward a chicken's head. Assume that feather type is determined by a single gene and that the allele for frizzled feathers is dominant over the allele for straight feathers. In a cross between two chickens with straight feathers, what percentage of the offspring can be expected to have frizzled feathers?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

34.

Facial dimples and free earlobes are both considered dominant human traits. What are the expected phenotypes of the offspring of a female with dimples and free earlobes (DDFf) and a male with dimples and attached earlobes (ddff)?

a)

50% with dimples and free earlobes and 50% with dimples and attached earlobes.

b)

50% with dimples and free earlobes and 50% with no dimples and attached earlobes.

c)

75% with dimples and free earlobes and 25% with no dimples and attached earlobes.

d)

75% with dimples and attached earlobes and 25% with no dimples and free earlobes.

35.

Normal fruit flies have brownish-yellow bodies, and this body color is dominant. A mutation in the gene for body color can produce flies with an ebony body color. A homozygous normal fruit fly (e+e+) is crossed with a homozygous ebony fruit fly (ee). What is the predicted outcome of this genetic cross?

a)

All the offspring with have ebony bodies.

b)

Of the offspring, 75% will have brownish-yellow bodies, and 25% will have ebony bodies.

c)

All the offspring will have brownish-yellow bodies.

d)

Of the offspring, 75% will have ebony bodies, and 25% will have brownish-yellow bodies.

36.

In the 1860s Gregor Mendel performed numerous dihybrid crosses between pea plants. Dihybrid crosses involve the study of the inheritance patterns related to two different traits. In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur (B) is dominant over the allele for brown fur (b), and the allele for short fur (F) is dominant over the allele for long fur (f). What percentage of the offspring from a BbFf x bbff cross would be expected to be heterozygous for both traits?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

37.

Tomato plants usually have hairy stems. Hairless stems are present in tomato plants that are homozygous recessive for this trait. If the stem characteristics are determined be a single gene, what is the expected outcome of crossing two tomato plants that are heterozygous for hairy stems?

a)

75% hairy: 25% hairless

b)

100% hairy

c)

100% hairless

d)

50% hairy: 50% hairless

38.

If several pea plants with the genotype TTYy are crossed with the pea plants with the genotype Ttyy, what percentage of the offspring will be expected to have the TTYy allele combination?

a)

25%

b)

40%

c)

50%

d)

75%

39.

Gametes produced by an organism contain a combination of genes from that organism. In every gamete, this combination is -

a)

the same because it is created from the same DNA

b)

the same because chromosomes are copied prior to meiosis

c)

different due to DNA replication prior to mitosis

d)

different due to independent assortment during meiosis

40.

What are the three main parts of a nucleotide?

a)

carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

b)

phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base

c)

phosphate, sulfate, and nitrate

d)

adenine, thymine, and uracil

41.

Use the chart to find to amino acid that corresponds to the codon GGA:

a)

Alanine

b)

Glutamic Acid

c)

Lysine

d)

Glycine

42.

What is the process shown in the diagram?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

mutation

d)

transformation

43.

In cocker spaniels the allele for a black coat color (B) is dominant over the allele for a brown coat color (b). If a brown cocker spaniel is crossed with a heterozygous black cocker spaniel, which of the following genotypic ratios can be expected?

a)

0 BB: 2 Bb: 2 bb

b)

1 BB: 2 Bb: 1bb

c)

2 BB: 0 Bb: 2 bb

d)

2 BB: 1 Bb: 0 bb

44.

In 1952 Rosalind Franklin took the x-ray photograph shown below, which gave the world its first look at DNA.

By studying this photograph, scientists gained knowledge about the -

a)

role of DNA in protein synthesis

b)

mutation of nucleotide sequences in DNA

c)

sequence of DNA that makes up the human genome

d)

double-helix structure of DNA

45.

A segment of DNA is represented in the illustration.

How is information for a specific protein carried on the DNA molecule?

a)

As a sequence of nucleotides

b)

In the double-helix shape of the condensed chromosome

c)

In the ratio of adenines to thymines

d)

As a pattern of phosphates and sugars

46.

What are the offspring's possible phenotypes?

Brown fur is dominant. White fur is recessive.

One parent is homozygous for brown fur as the other is heterozygous.

a)

100% White fur

b)

50% Brown fur 50% White fur

c)

100% Brown fur

d)

75% Brow fur 25% White fur

47.

Cross Two Homozygous plants

(RRYY x rryy)

R = round seeds, r = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds

What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

48.

What process is occurring in the diagram?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Protein synthesis

49.

Which role of protists has the most positive effect on maintaining the plant population in an ecosystem?

a)

Protists are a major food source for animals

b)

Protists produce approximately 75% of the oxygen on Earth

c)

Protists decompose dead materials, returning nutrients to the soil

d)

Protists found in the gut of animals assist in digestion

50.

Saprophytes are fungi that feed on dead and decomposing organisms. They secrete enzymes that digest components of cell walls, such as cellulose and lignin.


Which statement explains why these fungi are an important part of the biogeochemical cycle?

a)

Saprophytes perform gas exchange that assists the cellular activities of autotrophs.

b)

Saprophytes extract minerals from living tissue to recycle them back into the soil.

c)

Saprophytes transport nutrients through the xylem and phloem in autotrophs.

d)

Saprophytes return organic material to the soil for use by living organisms.

51.

A student researching bacteria concluded a report with the claim in the box.


Which statement correctly addresses the validity of the claim?

a)

The claim is valid because many studies and experiments have shown that bacteria disrupt homeostasis.

b)

The claim is invalid because there are many types of bacteria that help organisms maintain homeostasis.

c)

The claim is invalid because only microorganisms such as viruses disrupt the health of organisms.

d)

The claim is valid because bacteria cause disease.

52.

Health professionals sometimes recommend nutritional supplements that contain a variety of species of bacteria to promote good digestive health. The product label for one of these supplements is shown.


Why does this type of bacteria-filled supplement benefit human health instead of causing illness?

a)

Stomach acids and digestive enzymes kill the bacteria in this type of supplement, protecting the person against future infections by live organisms.

b)

The human digestive system contains billions of beneficial bacteria that enhance digestion and nutrient absorption, synthesize vitamins, and help limit the growth of harmful bacteria.

c)

These species of bacteria remove all the other species of microorganisms living in the human digestive system and ensure that no microorganisms survive to contaminate the body.

d)

These bacteria are able to deactivate viruses that may inhabit the human digestive system and are used to protect against further viral infections.

53.

Some fungi secrete substances that are toxic to bacteria that compete with them for food. Scientists have used their knowledge of this ability of fungi in order to produce which of the following substances?

a)

Yogurt

b)

Fertilizers

c)

Plastic

d)

Antibiotics

54.

During secondary succession, which of these best describes why decomposing pioneer plants give way to larger, more complex plant species, such as hardwood trees?

a)

Increased amounts of sunlight are able to reach the ground while the pioneer species are decomposing

b)

Increased soil temperatures from decomposing pioneer species help tree seeds germinate more quickly

c)

Increased amounts of decomposing pioneer species remove nutrients that tree seedlings need to grow and mature

d)

Increased amounts of soil from decomposing pioneer species allow plants with more extensive root systems to become established

55.

Grassland ecosystems in Texas have evolved to depend on periodic fires to return nutrients to the soil and encourage plant reproduction. Humans have prevented fires in many of these grassland areas, resulting in plant and animal communities with little diversity. Wildlife biologists often recommend purposefully starting fires called prescribed burns, which are monitored and controlled, in grassland ecosystems every 3 to 4 years. These biologists observe greater diversity in plant and animal life in the years following a prescribed burn. What natural processes are the biologists attempting to imitate?

a)

Biomagnification

b)

Succession

c)

Population bottleneck

d)

Species extinction

56.

A small town in the piney woods of East Texas has a soccer field composed of native grasses. The soccer field is mowed once a week. What effect does continual mowing have on the ecology of the field?

a)

Mowing increases the likelihood of nonnative species displacing native species.

b)

Mowing increases the number of species found in the field.

c)

Mowing causes different types of communities to form across the field.

d)

Mowing maintains a low species diversity by inhibiting further succession

57.

Enchanted Rock State Natural Area is located in Central Texas. Enchanted Rock is a dome of granite. The area contains four easily identifiable communities. The table describes characteristics of each type of community in the area.


A student studying primary succession should focus on which of these communities?

a)

Open oak woodland

b)

Mesquite grassland

c)

Floodplain

d)

Granite rock

58.

An estuary collects sediments from teh ocean and rivers that feed into it. The sediments swirl around and then settle to form a medflat. Eel grass is then established on the mudflat. The ecosystem changes over time and ultimately develops into a salt marsh that contains mangrove trees. Which of the following is likely NOT involved in this example of ecological succession?

a)

The rotting remains of plants add to the fertility of the soil

b)

The soul becomes so fertile that eel grass is replaced by other plant species

c)

The roots from plants help stabilize the sediment, keeping it in place

d)

The concentration of salt becomes so high that all plant life is destroyed

59.

The rocky material left behind by a retreating glacier forms what is called a moraine. When primary succession occurs on a moraine, which life-forms will help create the soil by breaking down bare rock?

a)

Insects

b)

Lichens

c)

Grasses

d)

Deciduous trees

60.

During ecological succession, how does the growth of young hardwoods affect the organisms living in an ecosystem?

a)

Grasses and low shrubs are unable to obtain the amount of light they need to survive, so there are small numbers of them

b)

The trees provide shelter and food for a variety of mammals, insects, and birds

c)

In Autumn, falling leaves provide a source of energy for decomposers such as fungi

d)

All of these answer choices are correct

61.

Which statement describes the differences in species diversity between an ecosystem beginning the process of primary succession and one beginning the process of secondary succession?

a)

Species diversity is much greater in the ecosystems undergoing primary succession because that ecosystem is experiencing a longer period with a lack of competition for space

b)

No differences in species diversity exist because both ecosystems initially lack living organisms

c)

Species diversity is much greater in the ecosystem undergoing primary succession because the lack of soil provides a greater area for organisms to claim niches

d)

Species diversity is greater in the ecosystem undergoing secondary succession because the soil already contains seeds and spores of various species

62.

As ecosystems move through the stages of succession, the populations of organisms in them change. Which of the following describes the stage of succession likely to have the most species diversity?

a)

A newly formed volcanic island

b)

An agricultural field that has not been plowed for one year

c)

A temperate forest that has never been cleared by logging

d)

A field that is regularly mowed

63.

How do an increase in the organic matter in soil and an increase in soil depth affect the population of plants in an area?

a)

Larger plants become the dominant species

b)

Mosses replace flowering plants

c)

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria kill young trees.

d)

Grasses become diseased

64.

The graph shows the changes in the number of species in an ecosystem. Which event was most likely the cause of the changes in species diversity in this ecosystem?

a)

A large volcanic eruption

b)

A flash flood

c)

A small tornado

d)

A migration of locusts

65.

Surtsey is an island located south of Iceland. The island was formed by a volcanic eruption and first appeared in 1963. The table contains descriptions of changes in the population and diversity of species on Surtsey. Which of these lists the descriptions in the correct order of ecological succession on Surtsey?

a)

I, II, IV, III

b)

III, I, II, IV

c)

IV, III, I, II

d)

II, IV, I, III

66.

The graph shows the basic changes in a forest community after a disturbance occurred. The information shown in the graph suggests that the changes in the forest community were caused by -

a)

tree-leaf replacement after a storm

b)

succession after a fire

c)

repeated habitat destruction

d)

decreased species diversity

67.

The ocean sunfish is a large, flat fish that spends most if its time in deep water feeding mainly on jellyfish. Sunfish often have many species of copepods, small crustaceans, that bury their heads into the soft tissue of the sunfish. Sunfish will swim to the surface of the water and lie sideways, allowing seabirds to eat the copepods from their skin. Which list describes the types of relationships the sunfish has with other marine organisms?

a)

Seabirds: mutualism

Jellyfish: predation

Copepods: parasitism

b)

Seabirds: parasitism

Jellyfish: commensalism

Copepods: predation

c)

Seabirds: predation

Jellyfish: mutualism

Copepods: commensalism

d)

Seabirds: commensalism

Jellyfish: parasitism

Copepods: mutualism

68.

Which of these best demonstrates mutualism between certain types of bacteria and humans?

a)

Intestinal bacteria obtain nutrients from the gut and produce vitamin K used by humans

b)

Bacteria become resistant to antibacterial medication that humans use for treatment

c)

invasive bacteria at an area of injury produce toxins that damage healthy tissues of the human body

d)

Bacteria in improperly prepared food is consumed by humans, causing food poisoning

69.

In North American forests, two species of birds, nuthatchers and brown creepers, forage on the same trees for insects. Brown creepers feed on insects found near the bottom of the tree trunk, while nuthatchers feed on insects in the top part of the tree. The difference in foraging behavior most likely affects the nuthatchers and brown creepers by -

a)

allowing the birds to avoid many types of predators

b)

reducing competition between the birds for resources

c)

preventing the birds from interbreeding with each other

d)

establishing dominance between the birds for nesting sites

70.

A partial Texas food web is shown. The populations of which organisms will most likely increase as a result of a disease that suddenly reduced the population of Texas horned lizards?

a)

Grasses and ants

b)

Ants and grasshoppers

c)

Grasshoppers and Texas cottonmouths

d)

Texas cottonmouths and red-shouldered hawks

71.

A biomass pyramid of an ecosystem is shown. Which statement provides the best explanation for the difference in biomass of organisms found at each trophic level?

a)

Organisms at higher trophic levels have less energy available to them than organisms at lower trophic levels

b)

Organisms are higher trophic levels require smaller habitats than organisms at lower trophic levels

c)

Organisms at lower trophic levels provide less energy than organisms at higher trophic levels

d)

Organisms at lower trophic levels outcompete organisms at higher trophic levels

72.

The table lists some organisms found in a swamp ecosystem and their sources of energy. When constructing an energy pyramid of the swamp ecosystem, which of these would be placed at the top of the pyramid?

a)

Grass carp

b)

American alligator

c)

Eastern mud turtle

d)

Great blue heron

73.

A partial meadow food web is shown. Based on this food web, which organisms are direct sources of energy for secondary consumers?

a)

Aphid

Bird

Rabbit

b)

Ladybug

Fox

Dragonfly

c)

Frog

Butterfly

Berries

d)

Mouse

Snake

Hawk

74.

The energy pyramid below shows the energy made available by producers. Based on the energy flow between trophic levels in an energy pyramid, how much energy would be expected to be found at the secondary consumer level in this pyramid?

a)

100 joules

b)

500 joules

c)

1000 joules

d)

50 joules

75.

The Texas blind salamander lives in the Edwards Aquifer region around San Marcos. The table lists some of the organisms that live with the salamander in this environment and their food sources. In an energy pyramid for these aquifer cave dwellers, which of the following would be placed at the bottom?

a)

Snails

b)

Blind shrimp

c)

Protozoa

d)

Texas blind salamanders

76.

What would be the most likely effect of a wildfire that burned a large area of a forest?

a)

More sugars and starches would be available for animals in the area.

b)

The availability of fossil fuels for use by industries in the area would be reduced.

c)

Less carbon dioxide would be removed from the atmosphere in the area by plants.

d)

An increase in animal respiration would increase the release of carbon dioxide in the area.

77.

Which of the following is most likely to cause the greatest disruption to an ecosystem?

a)

Emptying an aquarium containing non-native species into a local waterway

b)

Cutting down a small cedar tree to make holiday decorations

c)

Cleaning the windshield of a car with an alcohol-based glass cleaner

d)

Mowing the lawn in a city park

78.

The diagram shows molecules that a mitochondrion uses and produces during a cellular process.


Which other molecule is a product of this process?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

C6H12O6

d)

ATP

79.

In a study of physical endurance, researchers observed significant increases in the heart rates and breathing rates of participants immediately after they engaged in strenuous exercise.


Which statement best explains the increase in the heart rate and the breathing rate during exercise?

a)

The water concentration in the blood increases.

b)

Body cells require increased oxygen as energy is expanded.

c)

Muscle cells increase in temperature and require fluid to reduce the temperature.

d)

An increase in muscle activity causes increases in glucose levels in red blood cells.

80.

When mammals get an infection, their internal body temperature often rises 2 to 3 degrees Celsius. The body gets the energy it needs to react to an infection by -

a)

increasing the rate of cellular division

b)

decreasing the rate of glucose movement into the cell

c)

increasing the rate of cellular respiration in mitochondria

d)

decreasing the rate at which carbon dioxide is removed from the cell

81.

Which molecule synthesized by plants is a major source of energy for cellular processes in both plants and animals?

a)

Wax

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Glucose

d)

Chlorophyll

82.

Cells can generate as many as 36 to 38 molecules of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from the metabolism of one molecule of glucose. Which cellular process results in this amount of ATP production?

a)

Anaerobic cellular respiration

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Aerobic cellular respiration

d)

Photosynthesis

83.

Parrotfish are herbivores that are found in coral reefs. To escape predation, a parrotfish will graze with a rabbitfish, which has venomous spines at the end of its pelvic fins. The rabbitfish does not benefit from this relationship. Which type of relationship do the parrotfish and the rabbitfish have in the coral-reef environment?

a)

commensal

b)

mutualistic

c)

predator-prey

d)

parasitic

84.

A segment of DNA produces methionine, threonine, histidine, aspartate, and glycine when translated. A substitution mutation occurs and causes the synthesis of the segment as shown. Which is the new peptide chain when the new DNA segment is translated?

a)

Methionine, leucine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

b)

Methionine, phenylalanine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

c)

Methionine, proline, histidine, aspartate, glycine

d)

Methionine, serine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

85.

Frogs and toads belong to the order Anura. The smallest organism in this order is about 7 millimeters long, while the largest is about 30 centimeters long. Which of these lists best describes this order?

a)
b)
c)
d)
86.

On March 24, 1989, an oil tanker ran aground on Bligh Reef in Prince William Sound, Alaska, and spilled millions of liters of crude oil. The graph shows pink salmon populations in Prince William Sound from 1970 to 1999. What do these data suggest about the effect the oil spill had on pink salmon?

a)

Pink salmon were nearly eliminated after the oil spill.

b)

Pink salmon populations steadily declined in the 10 years following the spill.

c)

Pink salmon populations declined and never fully recovered.

d)

Pink salmon populations seemed to be minimally affected.

87.

Cells typically respond to DNA damage in three ways: by ceasing to grow and divide until the damage is repaired, by permanently ceasing to grow and divide, or by dying. In 2010 a group of scientists reported that a certain kind of immune reaction can cause DNA damage that leads to a fourth response. DNA damage can turn off genes involved in cell-signaling pathways. Turning off these genes can cause less-mature cells to divide too rapidly, often leading to the development of

a)

tumors

b)

allergies

c)

hemophilia

d)

cardiovascular disease

88.

In recent years humans have interfered with the natural balance within deer populations in various ecosystems. The interference includes eliminating predators of the deer. Which of the following statements correctly describes the long-term outcome of this interference?

a)

The deer that are the fastest and most agile will survive and reproduce.

b)

The deer population will be too large to be supported by producers.

c)

Other browsing species will thrive and outcompete the deer.

d)

The producers will evolve into species that are less palatable to the deer.

89.

A student wants to use the Venn diagram to show the characteristics of two kingdoms of organisms. The characteristics that the two kingdoms share will be listed in the shaded area where the circles intersect. Which of these is a characteristic that the student should list in the shaded part of the diagram?

a)

heterotrophic

b)

mobile

c)

prokaryotic

d)

multicellular

90.

A student preparing for a hike wants to pack a snack that has biomolecules that provide quickly available energy but few excess calories. Which nutrition label lists the best combination of biomolecules that provide quickly available energy while providing the fewest calories from other types of biomolecules?

a)
b)
c)
d)
91.

An informational pamphlet in a health clinic describes an interaction between body systems. Which statement identifies the body systems that are directly involved in the interaction described and explains how they accomplish the interaction?

a)

The nervous system produces hormones that stimulate the ovum, and the circulatory system moves the ovum into the uterine tube.

b)

The circulatory system supplies the uterine wall with deoxygenated blood, and the immune system prevents damage to the ovum.

c)

The reproductive system produces the ovum, and the muscular system causes the migration of the ovum by peristaltic contractions.

d)

The excretory system expels the ovum from the ovary, and the nervous system causes the contractions of the smooth tissues of the uterine wall.

92.

Diatoms are one of the most common types of phytoplankton in marine habitats. Like plants, diatoms contain chlorophyll and produce glucose from which of the following?

a)

O2 and ATP

b)

CO2 and O2

c)

ATP and H2O

d)

CO2 and H2O

93.

A genome-wide association study involves searching the genomes of many people in order to find genetic variations associated with common diseases such as cancer, asthma, and diabetes. These studies are possible because of computer databases that allow researchers to compare the genomes of people who do not have a particular condition with the genomes of people who do have this condition. In order to do this type of testing, researchers need blood samples or cheek swabs from people. Obtaining these samples is necessary because blood and cheek cells contain

a)

plasma and platelets

b)

a complete set of DNA

c)

essential proteins and amino acids

d)

a large number of neutrophils

94.

When the level of carbon dioxide in the blood is too high, the excess carbon dioxide reacts with water and produces carbonic acid. The carbonic acid causes the blood pH to become more acidic. When the blood pH becomes too acidic, chemoreceptors in the brain instruct the body to react and maintain homeostasis in blood pH. Which of these responses by the body would eliminate the excess carbon dioxide and help maintain homeostasis in blood pH?

a)

Increasing the body temperature by shivering

b)

Increasing glucose levels in the blood

c)

Breathing more deeply and frequently

d)

Decreasing the heart rate

95.

Two populations of mice living in the same forest are separated by a large water-filled ditch. After a rainstorm, flooding brings several mice from one population to the other population. When the mice from the first population reproduce with members of the second population, which of the following will likely occur?

a)

All of the offspring will die as a result of reproductive mutations.

b)

The offspring will be forced to leave the second population.

c)

The offspring will be genetically identical to their parent from the first population.

d)

The offspring in the second population will have greater genetic variety.

96.

The model represents the change in DNA content of a cell during the cell cycle. Which part of the model represents the S phase?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

97.

Coradas garrulus is a blue bird with an orange-brown back. The offspring of this bird have an effective defense mechanism. The young birds vomit and cover themselves in a foul-smelling orange liquid when they sense a threat by predators. Which two systems alert the young bird to the danger and help produce the vomit it uses as a defense?

a)

Nervous and digestive systems

b)

Integumentary and muscular systems

c)

Immune and respiratory systems

d)

Excretory and reproductive systems

98.

Structures represented in the illustration below are found in the lower epidermis of a plant leaf. The illustration at right shows the response to a certain environmental condition. The response represented in the illustration would most likely be caused by

a)

a reduced supply of oxygen

b)

long periods of rainfall

c)

high concentrations of glucose

d)

little available water

99.

How is information for a specific protein carried on the DNA molecule?

a)

As a sequence of nucleotides

b)

In the double-helix shape of the condensed chromosome

c)

In the ratio of adenine to thymine

d)

As a pattern of phosphates and sugars

100.

The food web shows the flow of energy through a sagebrush-steppe ecosystem. Which of these organisms are in a trophic level that receives a larger percentage of the energy captured by the producers than the percentage received at the bats’ trophic level?

a)

mountain lions

b)

snakes

c)

hawks

d)

ground squirrels

101.

Fireflies emit light. The production of light by an organism is called bioluminescence. To generate visible light, cells in a firefly’s tail produce thousands of luciferase enzymes. Luciferase binds to a chemical called luceferin. Once bound, the luciferase enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction that combines an oxygen molecule and luciferin to produce oxyluceferin. This reaction requires energy and releases light. Which of the following best describes how the luciferase enzyme speeds up the chemical reaction?

a)

Luciferase increases the amount of time the light is visible.

b)

Luciferase decreases the amount of energy required for the reaction to start.

c)

Luciferase increases the number of sites on luciferin that must bind to oxygen.

d)

Luciferase decreases the temperature of the environment inside the body of the firefly.

102.

An analysis of DNA and RNA sequences can be used to classify organisms. A dendrogram, such as the one shown, is based on molecular data. It can be used to represent evolutionary relationships within a group of organisms that are hypothesized to have descended from a common ancestor. Which statement is best supported by the information in this dendrogram?

a)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to raccoons.

b)

Brown bears are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to sun bears.

c)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to raccoons than they are to giant pandas.

d)

The bear species are all more genetically similar to dogs than they are to giant pandas.

103.

Adult mountain lions (Puma concolor) are almost 2 meters long. They have a black spot over each eye. The common names used throughout the United States for this species are listed. Why is it best for scientists to use the name from the standardized taxonomic system?

a)

The standardized name differentiates mountain lions and pumas.

b)

The standardized name is less descriptive of the animal that has been observed.

c)

Communication with other scientists about mountain lions will be reduced.

d)

All scientists will be using one name for mountain lions.

104.

The internal transport of water and minerals in plants requires that two systems work together. Which diagram correctly describes how the two systems accomplish this?

a)
b)
c)
d)
105.

At birth, Himalayan rabbits are usually white over their entire bodies. But when parts of their bodies reach temperatures below 35°C, a pigment that causes these parts to turn black is produced. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this phenomenon?

a)

Poor blood circulation

b)

Infection caused by cold temperatures

c)

Gene expression that is regulated by temperature

d)

A trait that is both sex-linked and hormone-dependent

106.

All the animals to the right of the hagfish would have the common characteristic of

a)

fur

b)

claws or nails

c)

jaws

d)

lungs

107.

The differences between two molecules include the type of sugar that forms a section of the molecules and the identity of one of the four nitrogenous bases that make up another section of the molecules. These two molecules are

a)

nucleic acids

b)

complex carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

lipids

108.

Plants have developed many methods of seed dispersal. The table below shows seeds to two different species. How has the seed dispersal method developed by these plants given them a reproductive advantage?

a)

The method ensures that offspring will be dispersed and reduces competition for resources.

b)

The method reduces the chance that herbivores will consume the seeds.

c)

The method lengthens the life cycle of each of these plants.

d)

The method reduces the plants’ need for water and other nutrients.

109.

The table lists the types of white blood cells found in humans, indicates how abundant they are, and describes their functions. The two most abundant types of white blood cells may both be involved in a response to which of these?

a)

injury

b)

heat

c)

allergens

d)

bacterial infection

110.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve a way the shells of three eggs and used these eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutions to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

111.

Animal body systems often coordinate their actions to carry out specific functions for the whole animal. Which of these correctly describes the interaction of two biological systems for a specific purpose in the human body?

a)
b)
c)
d)
112.

A student is asked to draw a food web in which the same organism is a primary consumer as well as a secondary consumer. How should the organism be represented in the food web?

a)

The organism must have an arrow pointing from it to a tertiary consumer and another arrow pointing from it to a decomposer.

b)

The organism must have an arrow pointing from it to a secondary consumer and another arrow pointing to it from the top predator.

c)

The organism must have an arrow pointing to it from a producer and another arrow pointing to it from a primary consumer.

d)

The organism must have an arrow pointing from it to a primary consumer and another arrow pointing away from it to a decomposer.

113.

Which of these models of a DNA strand (below) shows bases that are complementary to the ones on the student’s DNA model (above)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
114.

Three species of lizards of the genus Gallotia are found on the Canary Islands, a chain of seven volcanic islands off the west coast of Africa. The easternmost island, Lanzarote, is the oldest, while the westernmost island, El Hierro, is the youngest. The distribution of lizard species is shown on the map below. Which statement about the ancestry of the lizards from the genus Gallotia is best supported by this information?

a)

The common ancestor of the lizards first colonized the island of El Hierro.

b)

The ancestors of each species came from different continents at different times.

c)

The common ancestor of the lizards probably came from Africa.

d)

The ancestors of each species evolved in Spain and were brought to the islands at the same time.

115.

In the European roe deer (Capreolus capreolus), implantation of embryos after breeding is delayed. The deer breed in July or August but do not give birth until the following May or June. From summer to late December, the embryo rests in a state of dormancy as a 30-cell blastocyst. In late December or early January, the embryo sends a signal that causes the female to release hormones, allowing the embryo to continue to develop normally. Why is delayed implantation an advantageous adaptation for the European roe deer?

a)

Delayed implantation allows the mother to continue to breed with other males.

b)

Without delayed implantation, the females would not be able to carry a pregnancy to full term.

c)

Delayed implantation enables the female to give birth to more fawns each year.

d)

Without delayed implantation, the fawns would be born in the winter when food is scarce and the weather is harsh.

116.

This diagram of the fossil record represents changes in mollusks over millions of years. How can the pattern of change in the fossil record best be explained?

a)

The mollusks were well adapted to their stable environment. A large, sudden change occurred in their environment. After the change the mollusks with the bigger shells were better adapted for the new environment.

b)

The mollusks were well adapted to their stable environment. The mollusks hybridized with a smaller species of mollusk. A new species of mollusk with a bigger shell resulted.

c)

The mollusks were not well adapted to their environment. The length of the mollusks’ shells changed gradually over time. The mollusks in the original population that had small shells died over a period of many years.

d)

The mollusks were well adapted to their environment. Humans introduced a new species of mollusk that was not adapted to this environment. The introduced mollusk outcompeted the native mollusk species.

117.

Human body cells each have 46 chromosomes in their nuclei. Meiosis is necessary in order to ensure that each gamete produced in the human body has —

a)

12 chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

46 chromosomes

d)

92 chromosomes

118.

In the 1960s the molecular biologist George Streisinger developed the strand-slippage hypothesis. Streisinger noticed that mutations occurred in areas of DNA that contained many repeated sequences. When a strand-slippage error occurs, an insertion mutation can result. How does the insertion mutation affect the DNA?

a)

Nitrogenous bases are added.

b)

Nitrogenous bases are exchanged.

c)

Nitrogenous bases are damaged.

d)

Nitrogenous bases are deleted.

119.

The technique known as chromosome painting is the result of scientific research. Scientists use chromosome painting to mark the locations of genes on human chromosomes with fluorescent tags. It is also possible to apply this technique to the chromosomes of many different species. Chromosome painting allows for which of the following?

a)

A comparison of the genomes of different species

b)

The sequencing of proteins from many species

c)

An increase in mutations in many species

d)

The extraction of amino acids from different species

120.

Which of these statements best explains the process of energy conversion that takes place in the mitochondria?

a)

Energy is required for carbon dioxide molecules to form six-carbon sugar molecules.

b)

Water molecules and radiant energy are necessary for anaerobic respiration to take place.

c)

Oxygen molecules release energy in the form of heat during combustion reactions.

d)

The energy in the bonds of glucose molecules is transferred to the phosphate bonds in ATP.

121.

Some organisms have genes that improve their ability to survive and reproduce. If the genes also help their offspring survive and reproduce, then which of the following will most likely increase?

a)

The frequency of the genes in one individual

b)

The frequency of the genes in the population

c)

The number of genes in one chromosome

d)

The number of genes in the species

122.

Enzymes are proteins that help increase the rate of chemical reactions inside cells. These proteins are composed of many simpler molecules called amino acids. Which of the following suggests that the shape of an enzyme determines the enzyme’s function?

a)

Enzymes are specific to a substrate.

b)

Enzymes can operate in a wide range of conditions.

c)

Enzymes are activated by neighboring molecules

d)

Enzymes can be found in all life-forms.

123.

A photomicrograph of onion root tip cells during mitosis is shown below. Which phase of mitosis is occurring in the cell indicated by the arrow?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

124.

Which of these must occur during S phase of the cell cycle so that two daughter cells can be produced during M phase?

a)

The DNA must be replicated.

b)

The chromosomes must be joined.

c)

The cytoplasm must be separated

d)

The cell membrane must be expanded.

125.

Cell differentiation is critical during embryonic development. The process of cell differentiation results in the production of many types of cells, including germ, somatic, and stem cells. Cell differentiation is most directly regulated by —

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

lipids

d)

sugars

126.

The limbs of several organisms are shown in the illustrations below. Scientists sometimes compare the limbs of these organisms to look for evidence of common ancestry. These limbs provide evidence of common ancestry because they —

a)

have the same basic structure

b)

perform the same function

c)

are the same size

d)

are parts of mammals

127.

How does an enzyme speed up chemical reactions?

a)

lower activation energy

b)

increase activation energy

c)

increase pH of the solution

d)

they slow down reactions

128.

Which of the following correctly describes a viral reproductive cycle?

a)

lytic - symptoms take a long time to occur

b)

lysogenic - flu is an example of a lysogenic virus

c)

lysogenic - remains dormant in the host cell

d)

lytic - HIV is an example of a lytic virus

129.

Diffusion is the movement of ______ from ________.

a)

water; low to high

b)

particles; low to high

c)

water; high to low

d)

particles; high to low

130.

Which of the following does a plant need in order to make glucose?

a)

water, oxygen

b)

water, light, carbon dioxide

c)

light, oxygen, ATP

d)

sugar, oxygen, carbon dioxide

131.

What is the ability for an organism to survive and reproduce?

a)

natural selection

b)

genetic drift

c)

gene flow

d)

gene shuffling

132.

Evidence of evolution shows that all organisms

a)

do not go through genetic drift

b)

cannot reproduce

c)

share a common ancestor

d)

all of the above

133.

Bat wings and bird wings have similar structure. What type of evidence is this?

a)

vestigial structure

b)

analagous structure

c)

homologous structure

d)

molecular evidence

134.

Who is most related to the hamster?

a)

salmon

b)

salamander

c)

lizard

d)

chimp

135.

The 1918 influenza epidemic killed between 50 million and 100 million people worldwide. THis epidemic happened near the end of World War I. More people died from the influenza epidemic than were killed in the war. Which of the following explains why this virus was so deadly worldwide?

a)

Infected soldiers returning from the war spread the virus when they coughed.

b)

Food was scarce because of the war, so people were undernourished, and their immune systems were weakened.

c)

Medical personnel often became ill as a result of exposure to airborne virus particles.

d)

All of the above

136.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited. Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

137.

During the final stages of human gestation, receptors for the hormone oxytocin increase on the smooth muscle cells of the uterus. The release of oxytocin during labor stimulates the smooth muscle tissue in the wall of the uterus. The vigorous contraction of the uterine smooth muscle helps push the baby through the birth canal so that delivery can occur. This process involves the interaction of which organ systems?

a)

Endocrine and muscular only

b)

Endocrine and reproductive only

c)

Endocrine, muscular, and reproductive

d)

Endocrine, reproductive, and excretory

138.

In the early 1900s a scientist hypothesized a link between DNA and the production of protein in the cytoplasm. However, the fact that DNA could not be found outside the nucleus led scientists to believe that another substance was also involved in the synthesis of protein in the cytoplasm. In the 1940s scientists performed an experiment that ultimately identified the site of protein synthesis. They also identified the molecule responsible for transporting information from the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis. What was the newly identified molecule?

a)

a gene

b)

mRNA

c)

ATP

d)

thymine

139.

Which statement best describes the relationship between the products of photosynthesis and the reactants in cellular respiration?

a)

The products of photosynthesis serve as the reactants in cellular respiration to provide chemical energy.

b)

The products of photosynthesis combine with the reactants in cellular respiration to remove ATP from cells.

c)

The products of photosynthesis inhibit the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

d)

The products of photosynthesis change the structure of the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

140.

In the early 1980s scientists were able to produce two biomolecules by splicing a human gene into the bacterium E. coli to make recombinant human insulin and growth hormone. Which statement best explains why this experiment was successful?

a)

Human cells are eukaryotic, and E. coli cells are prokaryotic.

b)

All living organisms share the same genome.

c)

The genes for all organisms are composed of the same building blocks.

d)

The human body contains many types of bacteria, including E. coli.

141.

Kidneys are part of the excretory system in a human body. They purify the impure blood and send it back to the rest of the body. Which system is mainly responsible for the transport of plasma to the kidneys?

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Circulatory system

c)

Muscular system

d)

Nervous system

142.

Several structures work together to allow flowering plants to reproduce. The diagram shows a typical flower. Which table correctly identifies the function of each structure or group of structures in the reproduction of the plant?

a)
b)
c)
d)
143.

The complex carbohydrates pictured below are made by linking molecules of glucose. In all three complex carbohydrates, the subunits of glucose are bonded together differently. Because they have different structures, they most likely —

a)

contain different chemical elements

b)

form different proteins

c)

carry different nucleotides

d)

perform different functions

144.
What happens to a prey population if the predator population decreases?
a)
The prey population will decrease.
b)
The prey population will increase.
c)
The prey population will not change.
d)
The prey population will not be impacted.
145.

Some organisms have genes that improve their ability to survive and reproduce. If the genes also help their offspring survive and reproduce, then which of the following will most likely increase?

a)

the frequency of genes in one individual

b)

the frequency of genes in the population

c)

the number of genes in one chromosome

d)

the number of genes in the species

146.

What term matches the following? ( pg 34)


Geese survive by flying north for the summer and south for the winter. This way they can find abundant food year round.

a)

Migration

b)

Natural selection

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Anatomical adaptation

147.
Cattle egrets forage (feed) in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to flying insects stirred up by the cattle, and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
148.

Which organisms can be found at the first, or lowest, trophic level?

a)

herbivores

b)

carnivores

c)

heterotrophs

d)

autotrophs

149.
What type of symbiosis?  Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers.  The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
150.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
151.
According to the diagram, when did the common ancestor of giant pandas and spectacled bears exist? 
a)
5-10 mya
b)
10-15 mya
c)
15-20 mya
d)
20-25 mya
152.

A scientist observes a single-celled organism with several long, whip-like tails. Which function do the whip-like tails most likely perform for the organism?

a)

defense against predators

b)

movement through an environment

c)

detection of the location of a light source

d)

measurement of atmospheric temperature changes

153.

Which process best describes the assembly of proteins from amino acids?

a)

Atoms are linked to form a compound.

b)

Monomers are linked to form a polymer.

c)

Atoms are added to a monomer until it becomes a polymer.

d)

Molecules are added to a compound until it becomes a monomer.

154.

Which biological molecules are most likely represented by molecules 1 and 2?

a)

molecule 1: lipid

molecule 2: nucleic acid

b)

molecule 1: lipid

molecule 2: protein

c)

molecule 1: carbohydrate

molecule 2: nucleic acid

d)

molecule 1: carbohydrate

molecule 2: protein

155.

Which statement best describes a relationship between enzymes and a simple biological reaction?

a)

Enzymes will increase the amount of substrate formed during a biological reaction.

b)

Enzymes will decrease the amount of substrate formed during a biological reaction.

c)

A reaction rate can be increased when the specific enzyme for a biological reaction is present.

d)

A reaction rate can be decreased when multiple enzymes for a biological reaction are present.

156.

Which of the following is most involved in providing structure for a plasma membrane?

a)

the number of protein channels embedded in the membrane

b)

the types of carbohydrates attached to proteins on the surface

c)

the types of proteins that are attached to the surface of the membrane

d)

the arrangement of the hydrophobic and hydrophilic ends of the phospholipids

157.

During strenuous exercise, body temperature increases. The body responds to the increase in temperature by sweating, which helps to reduce the body temperature.

Which is demonstrated in this situation?

a)

excretion

b)

metabolism

c)

homeostasis

d)

synthesis

158.

Which statement best describes the relationship that exists among proteins, DNA, and cells?

a)

Proteins combine to produce cells, which produce DNA.

b)

Proteins are made up of DNA, which determines the cells that are produced.

c)

DNA is made up of proteins, which tell a cell how to function.

d)

Cells contain DNA, which controls the production of proteins.

159.

A freshwater plant is placed in a container of saltwater. What will most likely happen to the cells of the plant?

a)

They will swell because water will move into them.

b)

They will swell because salt will move into them.

c)

They will shrink because water will move out of them.

d)

They will shrink because salt will move out of them.

160.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
161.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
162.
If a somatic cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
163.
How would the DNA in a horse muscle cell compare with the DNA in a horse sperm cell?
a)
The sperm cell would have twice the DNA as the muscle cell.
b)
The sperm cell would have half as much DNA as the muscle cell.
c)
The sperm cell and muscle cell would contain the same amount of DNA.
d)
The muscle cell would have four times the DNA as the sperm cell.. 
164.
_____ are made of chains of ____ that can be used to make the proteins that the body needs to maintain muscles, bones, & other body organs. 
a)
nucleic acids, DNA & RNA
b)
proteins, amino acids
c)
lipids, fats
d)
carbohydrates, sugars
165.
Enzymes are capable of increasing the rate of a chemical reaction within a living cell.  Enzymes accomplish this through which of the following means?
a)
reducing the number of products   
b)
reducing the activation energy
c)
increasing the temperature of the cell
d)
increasing the concentration of reactants 
166.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
167.
A single-celled organism that lacks a membrane-bound nucleus, mitochondria, or any other membrane -bound organelle .
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
Nucleus
d)
Single-celled organism
168.
The diagram shows the process of cell specialization from a single stem cell. Which of the following statements is true about the process of specialization.
a)
Specilized cells (blood, skin, nervous etc) cannot be produced from a single stem cell
b)
Specilized cells are produced immediately following fertilization
c)
Even though all the cells in an organism come from one single cell, they can specialize into different cell types
d)
Sincce all the cells in an organism come from one single cell, they must all have the same structure and function
169.
How do stem cells know what type of cells to differentiate into?
a)
The nucleus has instructions to turn some genes on and some genes off
b)
Signals from chemicals in the organism or from the environment determine which genes will be turned on and off
c)
Genes turn on and off randomly
d)
The cell has unique DNA that determines what the cell will become.
170.
Simple, prokaryotic organisms have been on Earth for over 3 billion years and have been able to grow and evolve into many different and successful prokaryotic organisms. Which structure evolved in cells approximately one billion years ago that allowed for the forming of more complex, multicellular organisms?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Plasma Membrane
d)
Golgi apparatus
171.
According to Darwin's theory of evolution, which organisms are BEST able to survive in nature?
a)
organisms that possess overall characteristics best suited to their environment
b)
those with the best camouflage and coloration
c)
organisms that possess the greatest number of mutations
d)
those that possess characteristics acquired during their lifetime
172.
Matthew has discovered a new species of fish. During the summer months, the male fish separate themselves from the female fish and swim to cooler waters. During one summer, a volcano erupts and the molten rock forms a barrier preventing the male and female fish from reuniting. Matthew has discovered a new species of fish. During the summer months, the male fish separate themselves from the female fish and swim to cooler waters. During one summer, a volcano erupts and the molten rock forms a barrier preventing the male and female fish from reuniting.
a)
The fish would become extinct as they would not be able to reproduce.
b)
The species would not be affected by the barrier.
c)
The male fish would begin to produce eggs and sperm.
d)
The fish would develop legs and walk across the barrier.
173.
A mountain seperates a population of mice into two distinct eastern and western populations. The eastern area is inhabited by owls, which hunt at night. No owls live in the western area. Over time, the eastern population of mice will MOST LIKELY
a)
change over time and become less active at night
b)
become more active at night
c)
remain identical with the western population
d)
grow stronger claws and teeth to better fight the owls
174.
All of the scenarios are examples of evolution, with the EXCEPTION of the
a)
change of a caterpillar into an adult butterfly
b)
loss of hind limbs by whales
c)
gradual loss of toes on the feet of horses
d)
change of bones in ostriches, from hollow to solid
175.
The process of ___________________leads to the formation of new species by ___________________.
a)
natural selection, evolution
b)
extinction, speciation
c)
speciation, use and disuse
d)
divergent evolution, natural selection
176.
A wildlife biologist does a DNA gel to determine how closely related four species of trout are to one another. These are the results of the gel electrophoresis. Which two species of trout are MOST closley related?
a)
Brown and Rainbow
b)
Brown and Golden
c)
Golden and Brook
d)
Rainbow and Golden
177.
The genetic information in human and chimpanzee DNA shows a high degree of similarity, as humans share about 96-99% of their DNA code with chimpanzees. What is an explanation for this similarity?
a)
They evolved from a common ancestor.
b)
They evolved from each other.
c)
They evolved at the same time.
d)
Their evolution is nearly complete.
178.
The bone structure of the baleen whale and the hummingbird pictured above suggests that they share
a)
a common ancestor
b)
the same diet
c)
a similar environment
d)
similar mating rituals
179.
Some mutations always occur from generation to generation. But most mutations do not persist over time in the gene pool. Which mutation is MOST likely to become established and persist in a species?
a)
a mutation that helps a rabbit conceal itself from predators
b)
a mutation that changes the color of a fruit fly’s eyes
c)
a mutation that makes it harder for a frog to catch food
d)
a mutation that causes a leopard attack humans more frequently
180.
The dots represent a bacterial infection. Sal was very sick with this bacterial infection. The infection was treated with antibiotics. Sal seemed to get well, but in a few weeks, she was sick again. How can this be explained using natural selection?
a)
The stronger, more resistant bacteria survived the antibiotics and reproduced.
b)
The antibiotics were ineffective to this strain of bacteria.
c)
The antibiotics did not kill the bacteria; it only forced them to be dormant.
d)
Antibiotics will only kill a portion of the bacteria, no matter how much medicine Sal takes.
181.
A (n) _______________ is an injection of weakened or dead viruses or bacteria, or pieces of proteins from weakened or dead viruses or bacteria. It is given to help the immune system of people "learn" how to defeat the real virus or bacteria.
a)
vaccine
b)
antibiotic
c)
antibody
d)
pathogen
182.
What is another name for natural selection?
a)
Survival of the fittest
b)
Survival of the fastest
c)
Survival of the smartest
d)
Survival of the biggest
183.
What is a change in the species that allows for it to survive in its environment?
a)
Adaptation
b)
Homologous
c)
Variation
d)
Vestigial
184.
Two different populations of birds live in the same area and eat the same types of food. Which most likely describes the relationship between these two populations of birds? 
a)
competition
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predator-prey
185.
The use of pesticides on crops has been a common farming practice for decades. What has been the greatest effect of natural selection through the use of pesticides on certain insect populations? 
a)
Natural selection has been altered because the insects and their predators are killed. 
b)
The rate of selection is increased because the pesticides do not kill the insects that are naturally resistant to it. 
c)
The rate of selection has decreased because the pesticides kill only young insects. 
d)
The pesticides have altered natural selection by causing the insect DNA to spontaneously mutate.
186.
The following diagram shows a mutation that occurs in the hemoglobin gene to produce a recessive genetic disorder called sickle cell anemia.
Which of the following statements best describes why the change in only one DNA base of the hemoglobin gene results in a different protein product of the gene?
a)
the change prevents mRNA from being made
b)
the change alters the amino acid sequence of the protein
c)
the change causes the blood cells to divide in an uncontrolled way
d)
the change creates a second strand of mRNA for each RNA molecule
187.
Which suspect is linked to the crime scene by this DNA analysis
a)
Suspect A
b)
Suspect C
c)
Suspect D
d)
Suspect B
188.
If both cells originally came from the same embryonic stem cell, which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells?
a)
A mutation occurs during the development of muscle cells but not in blood cells
b)
Different genes are activated in muscle cells than in blood cells 
c)
Muscle cells experience different environmental influences than blood cells 
d)
Muscle cells are produced by the brain, but blood cells are produced by the heart
189.
Based on the results shown in the diagram, which two samples represent organisms that are most closely related? 
a)
3 and 4
b)
1 and 7
c)
1 and 5
d)
2 and 7
190.

A student is looking for evidence that spindle fibers are separating the chromosomes to ensure that each new nucleus has one copy of each chromosome. Which diagram is the student looking for?

a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

c)

Cell 3

d)

Cell 4

191.

The photograph shows a laboratory investigator examining samples of DNA in a procedure called PCR, or polymerase chain reaction. Using PCR, the investigator can create thousands or even millions of copies of a fragment of DNA for closer investigation. In which of these situations would PCR be most useful?

a)

When only a small amount of DNA is available, such as at a crime scene

b)

When the DNA of identical twins is being mapped

c)

When the genome of a population is being analyzed for preventable diseases

d)

When the blood type of a DNA donor is known

192.

Which statement about enzyme activity is best supported by this graph?

a)

An enzyme must be composed of multiple polypeptides, or subunits, to be active.

b)

An enzyme’s rate of activity increases with time until it becomes inactive.

c)

An enzyme functions best under specific temperature conditions.

d)

An enzyme works equally well in bacteria that are adapted to high temperatures and in eukaryotic cells such as human cells.

193.

Which table correctly identifies the four most-abundant elements in biomolecules?

a)
b)
c)
d)
194.

What is the purpose of this process this process?

a)

To replicate the DNA of an organism before cell division

b)

To assemble nucleotides in an mRNA chain along a DNA template

c)

To synthesize amino acids used to unzip strands of DNA and copy the genetic code

d)

To translate the genetic code into a specific sequence of amino acids

195.

The graph models core body temperature during a rapid change in environmental conditions. Which statement explains the pattern in the graph?

a)

Body temperature varies in a predictable pattern during the day.

b)

Body temperature is controlled by an internal feedback mechanism.

c)

Vasodilation and vasoconstriction are dependent on the time of day.

d)

Vasodilation and vasoconstriction trigger an immediate increase in body temperature.

196.

The table shows some observations made by four students during a field trip to a nature area. Which student made observations of a community of organisms?

a)

Student 1

b)

Student 2

c)

Student 3

d)

Student 4

197.

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tumor cell. Some tumor cells are benign, while others are malignant. How does the presence of an oncogene lead to the formation of a tumor?

a)

ATP production is inhibited.

b)

Cell division is unregulated.

c)

Somatic cell growth is inhibited.

d)

Antibody activity is unregulated.

198.

Scientists estimate that there are more than 20,000 species of ants. The species range in size from 1 mm long to 38 mm long and live in most environments. The diets of ants range from flowers and seeds to fluids from their own larvae. Ants have been able to successfully inhabit so many different environments because their populations have been able to --

a)

hybridize with other species of insects

b)

adapt to a variety of habitats and food sources

c)

fill niches usually occupied by mammals

d)

occupy habitats that have no other life-forms

199.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve away the shells of three eggs and used the eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. (View Image)


Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

200.

Viruses can be transmitted through air, water, food, insect bites, and direct skin contact. Once a virus gains entry to the body, it invades a host cell in order to --

a)

deactivate the host cell's defenses

b)

synthesize antibodies for defense

c)

metabolize host proteins and grow

d)

take over cellular processes for its own replication

201.
Which organic macromolecules are composed of chains of amino acids that join to form the structural components of organisms?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
proteins
d)
lipids
202.
What is one way that a lysogenic infection differs from a lytic infection?
a)
A lysogenic virus does not act on bacteria as a lytic virus does.
b)
A lysogenic virus can remain in the host DNA for a longer period without becoming active.
c)
A lysogenic virus contains RNA instead of DNA.
d)
A lysogenic virus directs the production of new viruses right away.
203.
What is the capsid of a virus?
a)
the disease it causes
b)
the receptors to which it binds
c)
the genetic material
d)
its protein coat
204.
This diagram shows the cell cycle.

Which of the following activities occur in the S phase?
a)
Replication of the DNA
b)
Growth of the cell
c)
Formation of the mitotic spindle
d)
Breakdown of the nuclear membrane
205.
The white feathers of a snowy owl allow it to blend in with its environment during the winter months (snow). This is an example of ________________
a)
Species
b)
Environmental Change
c)
Adaptation
d)
Variation
206.
What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?
a)
To look different from other species.
b)
To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.
c)
To protect itself against predators.
d)
To protect itself against prey.
207.

What is the role of mRNA in expressing specialized structures?

a)

Making energy available for cellular activities

b)

Creating bonds to form biomolecules

c)

Producing sugars that assist with replication

d)

Providing information to form proteins

208.

From a single fertilized ovum undergoing a series of rapid cell divisions, a human infant develops. The embryonic cells become specialized for a variety of functions. Which of these statements best describes how different cell types develop?

a)

Each cell contains only the active parts of the DNA needed for that cell type

b)

Each cell type has only one chromosome containing the DNA needed for that cell type

c)

Each cell has an identical copy of DNA with enzymes controlling the expression of specific genes, leading to a variety of cells

d)

Each cell has multiple copies of DNA that are affected in different ways by the environment to change the function of the cell at regular intervals

209.
The presence of a specific trait is genetically inherited. There are only two possible outcomes for this trait: an individual either inherits the trait or does not inherit the trait. Which statement best describes how parents influence this trait?
a)
Each parent contributes two genes for this trait.
b)
Each parent contributes one allele for this trait
c)
Each parent contributes two chromosomes for this trait.
d)
Each parent contributes one nitrogenous base for this trait.
210.
The graph represents the number of light brown and dark brown organisms living on the bottom of a clear, sandy lake 20 years ago. Over time, the lake bottom has become covered with dark sand and sediment. Which change has most likely occurred in the population?
a)
The number of light-brown individuals increased.
b)
 The number of dark-brown individuals increased.
c)
The number of light-brown and dark-brown individuals increased.
d)
The number of light-brown and dark-brown individuals became equal.
211.
The Isthmus of Panama is a narrow strip of land that lies between the Caribbean Sea and the Pacific Ocean. It forms a land bridge that links North and South America. The formation of this isthmus separated two bodies of water that had previously been connected. How did the formation of this land bridge most likely influence the development of distinct marine species on either side of the land bridge?
a)
by decreasing genetic drift
b)
 by causing a founder effect
c)
by increasing the rate of genetic mutation
d)
 by preventing related populations from interacting
212.
Which statement describes how a mutation would most likely affect a population?
a)
Genotypic variation will increase in the population.
b)
Genotypic variation will decrease in the population.
c)
The occurrence of a preexisting gene will increase in the population.
d)
The occurrence of a preexisting gene will decrease in the population.
213.
Strep throat is a common human illness often caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes. Which term best classifies the colonies of Streptococcus pyogenes in a person with strep throat?
a)
 a population
b)
an organelle
c)
a community
d)
an ecosystem
214.
A student reads this advertisement for a product containing a plant micronutrient that can be added to soil.
Based on this information, the student can conclude that boron is absorbed by plant roots from soil and then —
a)
transported to reproductive tissues by the plant’s shoot system
b)
stored in plant stems until the flowers are pollinated
c)
concentrated in the roots until the plant’s reproductive tissues mature
d)
transported by the phloem to the stomata in leaves, where it attracts pollinators
215.
 A student conducted an investigation to study phototropism in grasses. The only difference between the control group and the experimental group was light conditions. The control group was provided full light, while the experimental group was shaded on one side. The diagrams show the average heights and positions of blades of grass in the investigation.
Which statement best explains why the grass tips of the experimental group bent toward the light?
a)
Water evaporated faster on the side of the plant having full light
b)
Light sensors in the grass tips stimulated a hormone in the shoot system.
c)
The xylem in the root system absorbed more nutrients from the shaded side.
d)
The side facing the light has a greater chance of absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
216.
A student studying interactions between body systems constructs this table. The student plans to fill out the table with phrases that describe an interaction between each pair of systems. 
Which of these phrases could be placed in the position marked with an X? 
a)
Provides nutrients to kidney cells
b)
Provides nutrients to brain cells
c)
Provides nutrients to nerve cells
d)
Provides nutrients to muscle cells 
217.
 The surface of the stomach is lined with epithelial cells called surface mucous cells. These cells produce a thick mucus that coats the epithelium on the inside surface of the stomach. What is the purpose of the mucous coating?
a)
It allows the epithelium to aid in the process of digestion.
b)
It causes the epithelium to expand as food enters the stomach.
c)
It protects the epithelium from the acid content of the stomach.
d)
It traps nutrients inside the epithelium as food passes through the stomach
218.
The diagram above shows a model of species divergence among some primates. If this model is correct, the greatest genetic differences would be found in the DNA sequences of which two species?
a)
Tarsius bancanus and Cebus albifrons
b)
Macaca sylvanus and Macaca mulatta
c)
Hylobates lar and Pongo pygmaeus
d)
Pan troglodytes and Lemur catta
219.
Zoogeographic regions are characterized by the presence of specific groups of animals. These regions are determined by the taxonomic or phylogenetic relationships of animals. The map shows the zoogeographic regions proposed by the naturalist Alfred Russel Wallace in 1876.
The similarities of organisms in which two areas numbered above provide the best evidence for common ancestry between the organisms in both locations?
a)
1 and 2
b)
3 and 4
c)
5 and 6
d)
7 and 8
220.
The limbs of several organisms are shown in the illustrations below. Scientists sometimes compare the limbs of these organisms to look for evidence of common ancestry.

These limbs provide evidence of common ancestry because they —
a)
have the same basic structure
b)
perform the same function
c)
are the same size
d)
are parts of mammals
221.
The opossum, which is native to North America, and the kangaroo, which is native to Australia, are marsupials.

The fact that both these mammals incubate their immature offspring in a pouch provides evidence that they —
a)
belong to the same species
b)
must range great distances to eat
c)
have very similar skeletal structures
d)
are descended from a common ancestor
222.
Genome maps provide the DNA sequences of chromosomes. Some scientists have compared the genome maps of a hedgehog and a sloth. What do these genome maps allow the scientists to determine?
a)
The color patterns of the offspring of each species
b)
How much the size ranges of the two species differ
c)
The methods of protein synthesis that each species uses
d)
How closely related the two species are to each other
223.
Three species of lizards of the genus Gallotia are found on the Canary Islands, a chain of seven volcanic islands off the west coast of Africa. The easternmost island, Lanzarote, is the oldest, while the westernmost island, El Hierro, is the youngest. The distribution of lizard species is shown on the map below.

Which statement about the ancestry of the lizards from the genus Gallotia is best supported by this information?
a)
The common ancestor of the lizards first colonized the island of El Hierro
b)
The ancestors of each species came from different continents at different times
c)
The common ancestor of the lizards probably came from Africa
d)
The ancestors of each species evolved in Spain and were brought to the islands at the same time
224.
An analysis of DNA and RNA sequences can be used to classify organisms. A dendrogram, such as the one shown below, is based on molecular data. It can be used to represent evolutionary relationships within a group of organisms that are hypothesized to have descended from a common ancestor.

Which statement is best supported by the information in this dendrogram?
a)
Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to raccoons.
b)
Brown bears are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to sun bears.
c)
Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to raccoons than they are to giant pandas.
d)
The bear species are all more genetically similar to dogs than they are to giant pandas.
225.
A photograph of a virus is shown.  The projections on the surface of the virus allow the virus to -
a)
move inside a host cell
b)
attach to a host cell
c)
control the host cell's DNA
d)
signal other viruses to infect the host cell
226.
Leaves are part of a plant’s shoot system. The xylem tissue in leaves transports —
a)
the bacteria needed for nitrogen fixation in root nodules
b)
the wax required to coat the surface of actively growing tissue
c)
 the water and minerals that are absorbed by the roots
d)
the oxygen that regulates the rate of carbohydrate production
227.
Some organisms have genes that improve their ability to survive and reproduce. If the genes also help their offspring survive and reproduce, then which of the following will most likely increase?
a)
The frequency of the genes in one individual
b)
The frequency of the genes in the population
c)
The number of genes in one chromosome
d)
The number of genes in the species
228.
The overgrowth of algae poses a major problem for coral reefs. Intensive fishing is one factor that contributes to algae overgrowth because it does which of the following?
a)
Allows more sunlight to be available to algae
b)
 Inhibits the spread of pathogens in algae colonies
c)
 Reduces the number of organisms that feed on algae
d)
Increases the competition between different algae species
229.
The concept of gene flow is demonstrated when a cow is driven off from its herd, joins another herd, and reproduces. When the cow contributes to the gene pool of the new herd, which of these most likely increases?
a)
natural selection
b)
genetic variation
c)
environmental fitness
d)
reproductive mutations
230.
Arthropods are joint-legged animals. Spiders, crabs, pill bugs, centipedes, and millipedes are examples of the many types of arthropods. Which of these arthropods are most closely related?
a)
Arthropods of the same family
b)
Arthropods of the same class
c)
Arthropods of the same genus
d)
Arthropods of the same species
231.
Plant hormones serve as chemical messengers between cells and tissues. Auxin is a plant hormone that causes the cells on the shady side of a plant shoot to elongate. The response enabled by auxin is known as —
a)
geotropism
b)
thigmotropism
c)
phototropism
d)
photosynthesis
232.
A student is studying the ecology of a playa lake, which forms after a rainfall in a dry lake bed. The table lists the organisms that the student observed.
Which level of biological organization has the student described in the table?
a)
 Biosphere
b)
Organelle
c)
Ecosystem
d)
Community
233.

An illness caused by a certain virus includes fever, rash, joint pain, red eyes, and headache. The virus is transmitted to people by infected mosquitoes. Symptoms quickly occur within three to twelve days after contracting the virus. There is no vaccine for this virus.

Which description best explains the reproductive cycle of this virus?

a)

Lytic, because the virus is transmitted by mosquitoes

b)

Lysogenic, because there is no way to vaccinate against it

c)

Lytic, because of the quick incubation time

d)

Lysogenic, because the virus causes a fever

234.

A student produces a drawing of a virus for a presentation. The student states that the capsid has a function similar to the nuclear membrane found in animal cells.

Which of these describes the similar functions of capsids and nuclear membranes?

a)

Both transport proteins throughout the structures

b)

Both provide energy for activities in the structures

c)

Both protect genetic information for the structures

d)

Both code for the proteins needed for reproduction of the structures

235.

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) often infects and destroys CD4 T cells. These cells are one of many kinds of white blood cells that are an important part of the immune system.

The most common danger related tot eh destruction of CD4 T cells is -

a)

an increase in the risk of high blood pressure

b)

an increase int he threat of diseases caused by microorganisms and viruses

c)

a decrease in the flow of blood to vital organs

d)

a decrease in the amount of oxygen being transported to tissues

236.

Bacteriophages can infect bacteria such as E. coli. In what way are the bacteriophage and E. coli alike?

a)

They contain antibodies

b)

They reproduce by mitosis

c)

They have identical genomes

d)

They lack membrane-bound organelles

237.

A person infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may not have any symptoms for a period of time. During this period the virus affects the body by doing which of the following?

a)

The virus produces toxins that weaken immune cells and prevent them from reproducing

b)

The virus damages immune cells while using their machinery to produce copies of itself

c)

The virus uses nutrients meant for immune cells to fuel its own cellular respiration

d)

The virus changes the identity of the nucleotides of immune cells to prevent the immune system from functioning normally