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Laboratory Procedures: Part II

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Bacterial endospores are:

a)

resistant to heat and desiccation

b)

a form of asexual reproduction

c)

a consequence of mating

d)

highly susceptible to antiseptics

2.

Which parasite only uses the cat as its definitive host?

a)

toxplasma gondii

b)

giardia lamblia

c)

isospora rivolta

d)

balantidium coli

3.

With which of the following is the humoral immune system involved?

a)

Monocytes

b)

B cells

c)

T cells

d)

Erythrocytes

4.

Which of the following is not a method of culturing animal viruses?

a)

laboratory animal inoculation

b)

cell culture

c)

agar plate inoculation

d)

embryonated egg inoculation

5.

Blood levels of total bilirubin are used primarily to evaluate the function of the:

a)

kidneys

b)

liver

c)

pancreas

d)

bile ducts

6.

A decrease in albumin may occur in cases experiencing:

a)

chronic liver failure

b)

a carnivorous diet

c)

gastroenteritis

d)

a vegetarian diet

7.

To what color does "icteric serum" refer to?

a)

yellow

b)

red

c)

brown

d)

green

8.

What color are blood collection tubes that contain heparin?

a)

purple

b)

green

c)

blue

d)

gray

9.

A test that can be performed to help diagnose hyperthyroidism is:

a)

LH

b)

Cortisol

c)

Bile Acids

d)

T4

10.

When performing a urinalysis testing, the sample should be analyzed within ____ minute, or refrigeration is required.

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

11.

Urinary pH is not affected by the:

a)

patient's diet

b)

presence of bacteria in the urine

c)

patient's acid-base status

d)

presence of crystals in the urine

12.

A fecal sample can be stained for fat. An increased amount of fat is indicative of:

a)

dyschezia

b)

dysentery

c)

steatorrhea

d)

tenesmus

13.

Total protein levels are _______ in a dehydrated animal.

a)

unaffected

b)

decreased

c)

increased

d)

variable

14.

In which of the following species is rouleaux formation common?

a)

rats

b)

dogs

c)

horses

d)

pigs

15.

Which of the following crystals is most likely found in the urine of an animal with ethylene glycol toxicity?

a)

ammonium biurate

b)

tyrosine

c)

triple phosphate

d)

calcium oxalate

16.

When considering hematology tests, clots in an EDTA sample are:

a)

acceptable if they are microscopic

b)

acceptable if they are detected on a wooden stick only

c)

acceptable if they are run through an automatic analyzer

d)

never acceptable

17.

Which if least likely to be a clinical sign of a patient experiencing allergies?

a)

face rubbing

b)

ear problems

c)

loss of appetite

d)

skin rashes

18.

Which of the red blood cell indices indicates cell size?

a)

MCH

b)

MCHC

c)

MCV

d)

MPV

19.

Monocytes typically have:

a)

segmented nuclei

b)

band-shaped nuclei

c)

lobular nuclei

d)

no nuclei

20.

Serology tests can detect heartworms in a dog's blood:

a)

immediately after becoming infected

b)

several days after becoming infected

c)

several weeks after becoming infected

d)

several months after becoming infected

21.

Which of the following test results are not determined by a urine dipstick?

a)

glucose

b)

blood

c)

total protein

d)

BUN

22.

Casts that are seen in urine sediment are:

a)

mucous threads filled with amorphous sediment

b)

always significant

c)

formed in the renal tubules

d)

artifacts

23.

Stress and epinephrine release in cats might cause an increase in:

a)

BUN

b)

total protein

c)

ALT

d)

glucose

24.

Fibrinogen is produced in the:

a)

pancreas

b)

bone marrow

c)

liver

d)

spleen

25.

Arterial blood is commonly used to analyze:

a)

hematology

b)

blood gases

c)

blood chemistry

d)

organ function tests

26.

What laboratory test evaluates primary hemostasis?

a)

activated clotting time

b)

activated partial thromboplastin time

c)

buccal mucosal bleeding time

d)

one-step prothrombin time

27.

The best urine collection method to assess the patency of the urethra is:

a)

catheterization

b)

manual expression

c)

free catch

d)

cystocentesis

28.

Sadie, a 17-year-old spayed female DSH, is in the final stages of chronic renal failure. On presentation, you anticipate that her urine specific gravity will probably be:

a)

1.012

b)

1.030

c)

1.040

d)

1.060

29.

What gland is the most active producer of corticosteroids?

a)

thyroid gland

b)

pancreas

c)

pituitary gland

d)

adrenal glands

30.

A glucose test is used to help diagnose:

a)

Cushing's disease

b)

Hypothyroidism

c)

Addison's disease

d)

Diabetes mellitus

31.

The mucin clot test is performed on:

a)

synovial fluid

b)

plasma

c)

serum

d)

urine

32.

Which of the following would be considered an abnormal finding on healthy canine external ear canal cytology?

a)

cerumen

b)

epithelial cells

c)

malassezia

d)

debris

33.

A skin scrape will diagnose which parasite?

a)

bovicola

b)

notoedres

c)

otodectes

d)

ctenocephalides

34.

What is the function of a megakaryocyte?

a)

phagocytosis

b)

produces granulocytes

c)

produces thrombocytes

d)

produces plasma cells

35.

What test is used to diagnosed autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

a)

Red cell fragility test

b)

modified Knott

c)

Coombs

d)

Coggins

36.

Which urolith is becoming quite common in cats?

a)

Oxalate

b)

Silica

c)

Urate

d)

Cystine

37.

Which fluid sample is the major vehicle for the transporting of toxicants within the body?

a)

blood/plasma

b)

feces

c)

hair

d)

urine

38.

Which of the following is not considered an electrolyte?

a)

calcium

b)

sodium

c)

potassium

d)

chloride

39.

A false positive test result is one in which the:

a)

animal is affected and the test is negative

b)

animal is not affected and the test is positive

c)

animal is not affected and the test is negative

d)

animal is affected and the test is positive

40.

What organ has both lymphatic and hematologic functions?

a)

spleen

b)

pancreas

c)

tonsil

d)

liver

41.

For proper calibration, what solution should be used to calibrate a refractometer?

a)

tap water

b)

distilled water

c)

plasma

d)

urine

42.

Eosinophilia is commonly seen with a:

a)

bacterial infection

b)

parasitic infection

c)

viral infection

d)

hormonal disorder

43.

Which of the following stimulates antibody production?

a)

Immunoglobulin

b)

Antigen

c)

T cell

d)

Plasma cell

44.

What sample is recommended for hemoglobin testing?

a)

serum

b)

plasma

c)

whole blood

d)

blood smear

45.

Haemobartonella felis is seen most commonly in the erythrocytes of:

a)

cats

b)

cattle

c)

dogs

d)

horses

46.

Which statement concerning ELISA testing is true?

a)

the test specificity is very low

b)

washing is a critical step in the methodology

c)

it may be used to detect only antibodies in the serum

d)

it is not available in kit form

47.

A positive catalase test will be indicated by the presence of:

a)

a color change

b)

gel formation

c)

bubbles

d)

fibrin

48.

Oliguria is:

a)

excessive eating

b)

green urine

c)

excessive bilirubin in the urine

d)

decreased urine output

49.

What is fructosamine?

a)

another term for blood glucose

b)

a type of insulin

c)

a carbohydrate molecule which binds with glucose

d)

a protein to which glucose binds

50.

To avoid serum lipemia, animals should be fasted for:

a)

2 hours

b)

4 hours

c)

8 hours

d)

12 hours