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NAVAL SCIENCE 2 - 2ND SEM - EOC REVIEW

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 60secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the portion of the ship called that lies above water from the waterline to the gunwales?

a)

buoyancy

b)

buoyant force

c)

center of gravity

d)

freeboard

2.

Which identifies that area on a ship below the freeboard and above where water is displaced?

a)

a ship’s center of gravity

b)

a ship’s forecastle

c)

a ship’s quarterdeck

d)

a ship’s waterline

3.

Which BEST describes why a 20,000 ton ship does NOT sink?

a)

The ship’s apparent weight alone determines whether or not it sinks

b)

The buoyant force from the body of water counteracts the weight of the ship, thereby preventing it from sinking

c)

The ship’s density and speed of motion are two factors that contribute to its seaworthiness and prevent it from sinking.

d)

The ship’s superstructure is positioned such that its center of gravity prevents it from sinking

4.

What term is used to describe an object’s weight in air minus the buoyant force supporting it?

a)

apparent weight

b)

buoyant force

c)

density

d)

freeboard

5.

What is the scientific term used to describe how much material is present per unit of volume?

a)

apparent weight

b)

density

c)

gravity

d)

waterline

6.

When a ship is moving on the ocean, around which portion of the ship does it seem to move?

a)

ballast

b)

center of gravity

c)

center of weight

d)

waterline

7.

What is the effect of adding excessive weight on the top of the mast of a ship?

a)

decreased ballasting

b)

decreased stability

c)

increased buoyancy

d)

increased stability

8.

What component on a submarine is absolutely essential to allow it to submerge?

a)

ballast tanks

b)

bow planes

c)

propellers

d)

stern planes

9.

Which factors MOST significantly affect ship stability?

a)

center of gravity and center of buoyancy

b)

ship height and ship width

c)

waterline and freeboard

d)

weight of the ship in air and weight of the ship in water

10.

What law or principle is represented by the following statement: “An object immersed in a fluid feels an upward force equal to the weight of the fluid being displaced by the object”?

a)

Archimedes’ principle

b)

Bernoulli’s principle

c)

Einstein’s law of motion

d)

Einstein’s law of relativity

11.

What term is used to describe the geometric center of the portion of the ship’s hull that is underwater?

a)

center of buoyancy

b)

center of density

c)

center of gravity

d)

center of mass

12.

What is the term used to describe additional water placed low in the ship to improve stability?

a)

ballast

b)

density

c)

gravity

d)

waterline

13.

The Captain of the USS Nassau is getting ready to get underway and receives a forecast of poor weather in his immediate operational area. Prior to departing port what should he ensure is well below the waterline?

a)

center of buoyancy

b)

center of gravity

c)

center of rotation

d)

center of torque

14.

What is the name of the force that tends to right a ship as it rolls?

a)

ballast

b)

buoyancy

c)

density

d)

torque

15.

The Captain of USS Shreveport is underway and receives a forecast of increasingly poor weather in his area of operations. What should be done to make the ship more stable?

a)

add ballast near the keel

b)

add ballast topside

c)

decrease ballast near the keel

d)

decrease ballast topside

16.

In addition to liquids, what other type of materials exert upward buoyant forces?

a)

gases

b)

minerals

c)

newtons

d)

solids

17.

How does adding weight near the keel impact the ship's center of gravity?

a)

The center of gravity is lowered

b)

The center of gravity is moved aft

c)

The center of gravity is moved forward

d)

The center of gravity is raised

18.

When an object less dense than water is placed in water, how will it interact?

a)

It will achieve negative buoyancy

b)

It will achieve neutral buoyancy

c)

It will achieve positive buoyancy

d)

It will achieve variable buoyancy

19.

What type of buoyancy are submarines NOT subject to?

a)

negative buoyancy

b)

neutral buoyancy

c)

positive buoyancy

d)

variable buoyancy

20.

In order for a submarine to submerge, what substance does it place in its ballast tanks?

a)

diesel fuel

b)

oxygen

c)

sand

d)

sea water

21.

Which statement BEST describes the relationship of the “righting arm” to ship stability?

a)

Increased ship stability is achieved by minimizing the righting arm by lowering the center of gravity

b)

Increased ship stability is achieved by maximizing the righting arm by lowering the center of gravity

c)

Increased ship stability is achieved by minimizing the righting arm by raising the center of gravity

d)

Increased ship stability is achieved by maximizing the righting arm by raising the center of gravity

22.

Assuming the weight of one cubic meter of water is 9,800 newtons, what is the apparent weight of a one cubic meter rock that weighs 10,000 newtons in air when submerged in water?

a)

200 newtons

b)

9,800 newtons

c)

10,000 newtons

d)

19,800 newtons

23.

Which of Newton’s laws BEST describe a boat floating on the surface of the water?

a)

Newton’s first law

b)

Newton’s second law

c)

Newton’s third law

d)

Newton’s fourth law

24.

Consider a block of wood floating on water. If you push down on the top of the block until it’s completely submerged, what happens to the buoyant force acting on it?

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Remains the same

d)

Depends on how far beneath the water surface it is pushed

25.

What law is represented by the statement “A body in motion tends to remain in motion in a straight line unless acted on by outside forces”?

a)

Aristotle’s Second Law

b)

Galileo’s Second Law

c)

Murphy’s First Law

d)

Newton’s First Law

26.

Which formula represents Newton’s Second Law?

a)

A = fm

b)

F = ma

c)

F = m/a

d)

M = fa

27.

What term is defined as the change in velocity per unit of time?

a)

acceleration

b)

distance

c)

speed

d)

time

28.

What term describes the quantity of material contained in a body?

a)

friction

b)

mass

c)

pounds

d)

weight

29.

What term describes the downward force applied against a body?

a)

aerodynamic force

b)

energy

c)

friction

d)

gravity

30.

What is the English unit for measuring power?

a)

foot-pounds

b)

horsepower

c)

joules

d)

newtons

31.

How fast is a body travelling at Mach 1?

a)

at the speed of light

b)

at the speed of sound

c)

at 300 MPH

d)

at 600 MPH

32.

What determines the path of a body in flight?

a)

Einstein’s laws of motion

b)

Einstein’s law of relativity

c)

Newton’s laws of motion

d)

Newton’s law of relativity

33.

What law or principle states “The total energy in any isolated system remains constant”?

a)

Archimedes Principle

b)

Bernoulli’s Principle

c)

Einstein’s law of motion

d)

Einstein’s law of relativity

34.

Which of Newton’s Laws states that the acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the force acting on it?

a)

first

b)

second

c)

third

d)

fourth

35.

Which is sometimes called the law of inertia?

a)

Newton’s First Law of Motion

b)

Newton’s Second Law of Motion

c)

Newton’s Third Law of Motion

d)

Newton’s Theory of Relativity

36.

Which of Newton’s laws or theories states “For every action there is an equal but opposite reaction”?

a)

Newton’s First Law of Motion

b)

Newton’s Second Law of Motion

c)

Newton’s Third Law of Motion

d)

Newton’s Theory of Relativity

37.

What is the result when a force acts through a distance?

a)

acceleration

b)

mass

c)

velocity

d)

work

38.

What term describes the rate of motion in a given direction?

a)

acceleration

b)

force

c)

Newtonian motion

d)

velocity

39.

Which of the following is NOT an aerodynamic force on a body in flight?

a)

drag

b)

lift

c)

magnitude

d)

thrust

40.

What term describes the amount of the force of gravity on a body at a given location?

a)

friction

b)

mass

c)

volume

d)

weight

41.

What term describes the rate at which work is done or energy is gained or expended?

a)

acceleration

b)

mass

c)

power

d)

volume

42.

What is the acceleration of freely falling bodies on earth?

a)

32 feet per second

b)

64 feet per second

c)

32 feet per second per second

d)

64 feet per second per second

43.

What is a major result of friction?

a)

evaporation

b)

heat

c)

light

d)

loss of mass

44.

In aerodynamics, which term is used to describe acceleration and is often measured in terms of the standard acceleration of gravity?

a)

F forces

b)

G forces

c)

F quotient

d)

G quotient

45.

What is the speed of light?

a)

186,000 feet per second

b)

186,000 meters per second

c)

186,000 miles per second

d)

186,000 miles per hour

46.

What is another term for one newton-meter?

a)

Gram

b)

Joule

c)

Pound

d)

Watt

47.

How many watts are in one horsepower?

a)

446

b)

476

c)

746

d)

776

48.

If the sum of all forces acting on a moving object is zero, what will the object do?

a)

accelerate uniformly

b)

change the direction of its motion

c)

continue moving with constant velocity

d)

slow down and stop

49.

If an object starting at 10 ft/sec reaches a velocity of 34 ft/sec after 6 secs, what is its acceleration in feet per second squared?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

50.

Which aerodynamic force is created by air resistance?

a)

Drag

b)

Lift

c)

Thrust

d)

Weight

51.

Why do you feel more tired when you run up two flights of stairs instead of walking up them?

a)

you do more work when you run than when you walk

b)

a running person has more inertia than a walking person

c)

your power output is greater when you run than when you walk

d)

the gravitational acceleration is greater on a running person than on a walking person

52.

What percent of the earth’s diameter is the moon?

a)

10

b)

19

c)

27

d)

33

53.

Which characteristic of the moon results in the lack of gradual daily temperature changes and the absence of sound?

a)

the moon’s lack of an atmosphere

b)

the moon’s proximity to the sun

c)

the moon's rotation

d)

the moon’s size

54.

Why are lunar mountain ranges so rugged?

a)

they are covered with regolith

b)

they are frequently impacted by asteroids

c)

they are frequently sprayed by breccia

d)

they are not eroded by wind, water or ice

55.

What is the name given to smooth plains on the moon's surface which were created when old craters were filled with magma or volcanic ash?

a)

lake beds

b)

mascons

c)

maria

d)

tektites

56.

Which is a characteristic of moonquakes?

a)

They are nonexistent

b)

They are a new phenomena

c)

They cause the moon to vibrate for extended periods of time

d)

They have severe tremors lasting only a few seconds

57.

Which answer below BEST describes the physical relationship of the earth, moon and sun during a lunar eclipse?

a)

earth passes through the conical shadow of the moon

b)

moon gets between the sun and the earth

c)

moon passes through the conical shadow of the earth

d)

sun gets between the earth and the moon

58.

On average, the moon is about how far from the earth?

a)

149,000 miles

b)

200,000 miles

c)

239,000 miles

d)

350,000 miles

59.

What physical features can be observed on the surface of the moon?

a)

oceans, rivers and plains

b)

volcanoes, rivers and craters

c)

deserts, oceans and mountain ranges

d)

craters, mountain ranges and plains

60.

The MOST conspicuous crater on the moon is located in it's southern hemisphere. What is this crater's name?

a)

The Sea of Tranquility

b)

Copernicus

c)

Bailly

d)

Tycho

61.

One cause of erosion on the moon is from crashing meteorites. These crashing meteorites spray the surface of the moon with broken rocks. What are these rocks called?

a)

breccia

b)

mare

c)

mascons

d)

tektites

62.

The moon’s surface is covered with many cracks which are similar to shallow flat-bottomed river-beds on earth. What are these features called?

a)

breccia

b)

macons

c)

regolith

d)

rilles

63.

What term is used to describe the phenomena when the visible moon appears to get smaller after the full moon?

a)

phase

b)

shrink

c)

wane

d)

wax

64.

A day or so after a new moon, the moon is seen as a thin bow-shaped figure. What is this figure called?

a)

crescent

b)

eclipsed

c)

gibbous

d)

waxing

65.

At new moon what is the alignment of the earth, moon and sun?

a)

the earth is between the sun and the moon

b)

the moon is between the earth and the sun

c)

the moon is closest to the earth

d)

the sun is between the earth and the moon

66.

What term is used to describe the moon between its first and last quarters, when more than half of surface moon is visible?

a)

crescent moon

b)

full moon

c)

gibbous moon

d)

new moon

67.

Where did the Apollo 11 astronauts set up a moonquake detector?

a)

Bailly

b)

Copernicus

c)

The Sea of Tranquility

d)

Tycho

68.

Which of the following is NOT a practical reason to explore our moon?

a)

it would be an ideal place to set up astronomical observatories and radiotelescopes

b)

it would be an ideal place to launch expeditions to Mars or an asteroid

c)

we would someday be able to mine its mineral wealth

d)

we would someday be able to tap into its vast supply of water ice

69.

What is the temperature range on the moon?

a)

100 to 0 K

b)

270 to -240 C

c)

270 to -240 F

d)

750 to -750 F

70.

In which direction and at what speed is the moon’s orbit moving in comparison to the earth?

a)

away at the rate of 3 centimeters per year

b)

away at the rate of 3 feet per year

c)

closer at the rate of 3 centimeters per year

d)

closer at the rate of 3 feet per year

71.

During which space exploration was the backside of the moon photographed?

a)

Apollo missions

b)

International Space Station missions

c)

Mercury missions

d)

Pioneer expeditions

72.

What term is used to describe the phenomena when the visible moon appears to get larger after the new moon?

a)

phase

b)

shrink

c)

wane

d)

wax

73.

How long does it take the moon to circle the earth?

a)

27 and a third days

b)

28 days

c)

29 days

d)

29 and a half days

74.

What is a blue moon?

a)

when the moon appears blue in the winter

b)

when the moon is full and in the perigee of its orbit

c)

when a second full moon appears during the same calendar month

d)

when you look up at the new moon and can still see its shadow in the night sky

75.

What is the phenomenon called when a new moon is faintly visible during the day because its dark side is illuminated by light reflecting off the earth?

a)

blue moon

b)

eclipse

c)

planetshine

d)

supermoon

76.

Which region of the moon has the youngest rocks?

a)

Poles

b)

Maria

c)

Equator

d)

Highlands

77.

How old is the sun?

a)

4.6 million years

b)

14.6 million years

c)

4.6 billion years

d)

14.6 billion years

78.

What percentage of all the matter in our solar system is contained in the sun?

a)

50.52%

b)

68.65%

c)

75.58%

d)

99.86%

79.

What is the definition of an astronomical unit (AU)?

a)

The distance from the earth to the moon

b)

The distance from the earth to the sun

c)

The distance from the moon to the sun

d)

The distance from the sun to the next nearest star

80.

What element makes up 75% of the sun’s mass?

a)

Helium

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

81.

What is the earth’s average orbital radius from the sun?

a)

78 million miles

b)

85 million miles

c)

93 million miles

d)

105 million miles

82.

Which answer below BEST describes the physical relationship of the earth, moon and sun during a solar eclipse?

a)

Earth passes through the conical shadow of the moon

b)

Earth gets between the sun and the moon

c)

Moon passes through the conical shadow of the earth

d)

Sun gets between the earth and the moon

83.

How much stronger is the sun’s gravitational attraction to that of the earth’s?

a)

17.2 times

b)

27.9 times

c)

30.1 times

d)

33.5 times

84.

What is the name of the physical surface of the sun?

a)

Chromosphere

b)

Corona

c)

Heliosphere

d)

Photosphere

85.

Which statement about sunspots is true?

a)

Area of the photosphere that is darker than the surrounding areas because they are cooler.

b)

Area of the photosphere that is lighter than the surrounding areas because they are cooler.

c)

Area of the photosphere that is darker than the surrounding areas because they are hotter.

d)

Area of the photosphere that is lighter than the surrounding areas because they are hotter.

86.

What is the name of the outer layer of the sun’s atmosphere?

a)

Chromosphere

b)

Corona

c)

Heliopause

d)

Photosphere

87.

What is the definition of solar wind?

a)

A stream of charged particles released from the sun’s upper atmosphere consisting of mostly electrons and protons

b)

A stream of charged particles released from the sun’s upper atmosphere consisting of mostly neutrons and photons

c)

Wind generated on earth due to temperature differences caused by the heat of the sun

d)

Wind generated on the sun due to varying sunspot activity

88.

How much larger than the earth is the sun?

a)

52 times

b)

109 times

c)

148 times

d)

182 times

89.

What causes the Aurora in the extreme northern and southern latitudes?

a)

Heating of the earth’s atmosphere caused by radiation from the sun

b)

Interaction between the solar wind and the earth’s magnetic field

c)

Interaction between the solar wind and the earth’s atmosphere

d)

Interaction between ultraviolet light from the sun and the earth’s atmosphere

90.

What is a “Coronal Mass Ejection” also known as?

a)

Aurora

b)

Corona

c)

Solar flare

d)

Sunspot

91.

What type of energy found on earth is a direct result of the sun’s impact??

a)

Nuclear energy

b)

Tidal energy

c)

Volcanic energy

d)

Wind energy

92.

What percentage of the sun’s energy escapes in the form of visible light?

a)

40%

b)

50%

c)

60%

d)

70%

93.

Of the parts of the sun listed below, which is the hottest with temperatures reaching over a million degrees celsius?

a)

Corona

b)

Chromosphere

c)

Heliosphere

d)

Photosphere

94.

When the sun expends most of its energy in another 5 or 6 billion years, what will it become?

a)

A red dwarf

b)

A red giant

c)

A supernova

d)

White giant

95.

How long does it take light from the sun to reach the earth?

a)

2 minutes

b)

4 minutes

c)

6 Minutes

d)

8 minutes

96.

What is a light-year a measurement of?

a)

Brightness

b)

Distance

c)

Time

d)

Speed

97.

How far is the sun from the center of the Milky Way Galaxy?

a)

100 light years

b)

1500 light years

c)

18,000 light years

d)

25,000 light years

98.

How long does it take the sun to orbit the Milky Way Galaxy?

a)

125-150 thousand years

b)

225-250 thousand years

c)

125-150 million years

d)

225-250 million years

99.

What causes the polar auroras?

a)

Interaction between the solar wind and the earth’s ozone layer

b)

Interaction between the solar wind and the earth’s magnetic field

c)

Interaction between the sunlight and the earth’s ozone layer

d)

Interaction between sunlight and the earth’s magnetic field

100.

How far does the sun’s heliosphere extend into space?

a)

To Mercury

b)

To Earth

c)

To Jupiter

d)

To the edge of the solar system.

101.

Why is it important to learn skills that you were never taught to thrive, grow, or develop well in today’s society?

a)

To help control of yourself.

b)

So you do not have to do certain jobs like keeping your room clean, being home on time, doing your homework, or attending classes.

c)

No control for you do those things, even when there are other things you’d rather do.

d)

Inspire each cadet with preparation, and the will to reach their highest potential for development of a personal blueprint toward the path to new heights for life after graduation.