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Worksheets

THE STAAR TEST

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What does this quote mean?
"He is a sweet man with a honey tongue."
a)
He likes sweets.
b)
He likes only honey on his tongue.
c)
He is a really nice man who knows how to make people feel good about themselves when he talks to them.
d)
He can convince people to buy anything from him because he knows just the right things to say to convince them they need the product even if they don't need it.
2.
My father says my logical side is most like him, and the dreamy sidemost like my mother, which isn’t entirely fair, I don’t think. My father likes to think of himself as a logical man, but he is the one who pores over picturesof exotic lands and says things like “We should go on a safari!” and “Weshould zip through the air in a hot-air balloon!” 3 And although my mother is a weaver and spins silky cloths and wearsflowing dresses, she is the one who gives me sailing textbooks and makes me study water safety and weather prediction and says things like “Yes,Sophie, I taught you to sail, but that doesn’t mean I like the idea of you being out there alone on the water. I want you to stay home. Here. With me. Safe.”
This description of the main character shows us she is:
a)
a determined person who feels she can go sailing for a month with her uncles and cousins.
b)
shows her mother's reasons for allowing her to go on a one month sailing trip with her uncles and cousins.
c)
frustration with her parents' reaction to her desire to sail with her uncles and counsins for a month.
d)
difficulty in making a decision about going on a sailing trip with her uncles and cousins.
3.
There are two other reasons my mother has not tied me to my bed and refused to let me go. The first is that Uncle Dock gave her an extensive list of the safety provisions aboard the boat, which include a satellite navigator,the Global Positioning System (GPS).
What definition is used for the word extensive, which is based on a Latin root, in the 2 sentences above?
a)
providing a feeling of comfort
b)
hindering the ability to judge
c)
causing an unplanned response
d)
containg many elements.
4.
The main character's mother isn’t worried (although maybe she should be) about the influenceof my cousin Brian—quiet, studious, serious Brian—
The qualities that is used to describe Brian is most closely related to those associated with the-
a)
logical side of the main character's mother.
b)
the dreamy side of the main character's father.
c)
the hardheaded side of the main character.
d)
the good side of her cousin's dad, Uncle Dock.
5.
Why would the author use this figurative language in this sentence:
"There are two other reasons my mother has not tied me to my bed and reufsed to let me go."
a)
to emphasize how unfair the main character's mother tends to be.
b)
to show how much the main character will be missed by her mother.
c)
to establish how important safety is to the main character's mother.
d)
to exaggerate how protective the main character's mother is of her.
6.
My father says my logical side is most like him, and the dreamy side most like my mother, which isn’t entirely fair, I don’t think. My father likes to think of himself as a logical man, but he is the one who pores over pictures of exotic lands and says things like “We should go on a safari!” and “We should zip through the air in a hot-air balloon!”
 3 And although my mother is a weaver and spins silky cloths and wears flowing dresses, she is the one who gives me sailing textbooks and makes me study water safety and weather prediction and says things like “Yes, Sophie, I taught you to sail, but that doesn’t mean I like the idea of you being out there alone on the water. I want you to stay home. Here. With me. Safe.”
How does the author show that Sophie’s parents also have complicated personalities?
a)
By describing their relationship with Sophie’s uncles
b)
By presenting contrasting descriptions of the two characters
c)
By revealing the things that Sophie likes most about them
d)
By showing their similar reactions to her month long sailing trip with her uncles and cousins.
7.
My father says he doesn’t know who my hardheaded mule side resembles. He says mules don’t run in the family.
What does the character's father mean about her having a hardheaded side to her.  
a)
She looks like a mule.
b)
She acts stubborn like mules.
c)
She resembles a mule.
d)
She has a hard head like a mule.
8.
The first reason mother is willing to allow the main character to go sailing with her uncles for a month is that Uncle Dock gave her an extensive list of the safety provisions aboard the boat, which include a satellite navigator, the Global Positioning System (GPS).
a)
the action of providing or supplying safety devices on the sailboat.
b)
food and water to eat and drink during the trip.
9.

How do you show strategies with the test questions?

a)

Underline or highlight everything

b)

I don't need to show strategies.

c)

Underline or highlight the question words.

d)

Underline or highlight key words and box in the sentence or sentences referred to.

10.

How do you show strategies on the multiple-choice answers?

a)

Cross out the ones that are wrong.

b)

Circle my answer and move on to the next question.

c)

Cross out the ones that are wrong, circle my answer, and tell why the answer choices are right or wrong.

d)

Write yes and no next to the answer choices.

11.

When should you bubble your answers?

a)

At the end of the test.

b)

As I answer each question.

c)

Whenever I want to.

d)

At the end of each passage.

12.

What does the acronym FANBOYS stand for?

a)

for, and, nor, but, yet, so

b)

for, and, no, both, or, yet, such

c)

from, as, nor, but, only, yep, so

d)

for, and, nor, but, or, yet, so

13.

Where will you begin your writing STAAR test?

a)

Wherever I want.

b)

I will start with the writing section.

c)

I will start with the revision and editing section.

d)

I'll bubble my answers.

14.

A good breakfast is important

a)

No way, I hate breakfast.

b)

Maybe, if the cafeteria has something good.

c)

Sure , I hope Connor Wilson Shares his beef jerky with me.

d)

Yes I will get a good breakfast at home so I wont be hungry during the test.

15.

Do I have to finish the test in 4 hours?

a)

Yes

b)

No

16.

True or False: I have to raise my hand to get a new pencil.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

True or False: I have to raise my hand to use a dictionary.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

True or False: I have to raise my hand to get a tissue.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

What happens if I talk to someone while tests are out or even after the test is over?

a)

I can get my test taken away from me.

b)

Big Fat ZERO on the front cover.

c)

I will make my parents and teacher so sad.

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

20.

Do not double check your answers.

a)

true

b)

false

21.

Never leave an answer blank/ Never leave an answer un-bubbled

a)

true

b)

false

22.

You may talk once your have completed your STAAR test

a)

true

b)

false

23.

Should you be afraid of the STAAR math test?

a)

Most definitely!

b)

Without a doubt, bro!

c)

Yes, be very afraid.

d)

No way, just relax, think clearly, take your time, and give it your best.

24.
To perform your best, how many hours of sleep do you need the night before the test?
a)
Three
b)
Eight
c)
Twelve
d)
Eighteen
25.
The night before the test, you should not...
a)
Play video games.
b)
Go to bed at 9 P.M.
c)
Read your favorite book.
d)
Study Intensely
26.
On the day of the test you should pack the following items in your backpack.
a)
Pencils.
b)
Notebook.
c)
Pencils and Notebook.
d)
Don't bring your backpack.
27.
TRUE OR FALSE? It is a good idea to skip breakfast.
a)
False
b)
True
28.
Should you eat this on the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
29.
Should you eat this the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
30.
Should you eat this the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
31.
Should you eat this the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
32.
Should you eat this the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
33.
Should you eat this the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
34.
Should you eat this the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
35.
Should you eat this the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
36.
Should you eat this the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
37.
Should you eat this the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
38.
Should you eat this the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
39.
Should you eat this the day of the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
40.
Should you do this the day before the test?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
41.

You get sleepy while testing. What is the best decision to make?

a)

Proceed by taking a nap

b)

Push through the test

c)

Rest eyes for a few seconds by staring at the ceiling and blinking 5 or 6 times.

d)

Go to another part of the test

42.

The night before the STAAR Test, I am in the bed and asleep by-

a)

2AM

b)

10PM

c)

Midnight

d)

10:30PM

43.

When I begin my test and pick my first passage, I will...

a)

... read the questions carefully

b)

...Underline any unknown words

c)

...highlight the title and predict what the passage is about

d)

...take a bathroom break

44.

Which option below is one way to BEST read a passage that appears too long?

a)

Look up the vocabulary words

b)

Make a prediction based on the title so you will know what the text is about

c)

Break it up in readable parts and annotate for comprehension

d)

Read the context clues

45.

You are tempted to guess the next answer because you've gotten tired of reading. What is BEST way to move forward?

a)

start crying because you're not prepared

b)

remember my strategies and continue to use them

c)

take a bathroom break

d)

fail the test

46.

What item should you bring with you on the day of STAAR?

a)

backpack

b)

cell phone

c)

Pencil

d)

It is recommended that I not bring any of these items.

47.

I will pass the STAAR if I...

a)

...use strategies

b)

...take my time

c)

...have reading stamina

d)

...understand what I read

e)

I will pass if I do all of these

48.

How do you show strategies with the test questions?

a)

Underline or highlight everything

b)

I don't need to show strategies.

c)

Underline or highlight the question words.

d)

Underline or highlight key words and box in the sentence or sentences referred to.

49.

How do you show strategies on the multiple-choice answers?

a)

Cross out the ones that are wrong.

b)

Circle my answer and move on to the next question.

c)

Cross out the ones that are wrong, circle my answer, and tell why the answer choices are right or wrong.

d)

Write yes and no next to the answer choices.

50.

When should you bubble your answers?

a)

At the end of the test.

b)

As I answer each question.

c)

Whenever I want to.

d)

At the end of each passage.

51.

When should you bubble your answers?

a)

At the end of the test.

b)

As I answer each question.

c)

Whenever I want to.

d)

At the end of each passage.

52.

A good breakfast is important

a)

No way, I hate breakfast.

b)

Maybe, if the cafeteria has something good.

c)

Sure , I hope Connor Wilson Shares his beef jerky with me.

d)

Yes I will get a good breakfast at home so I wont be hungry during the test.

53.

I will dress in layers so that..

a)

I can adjust to the room.

b)

so I can show off all my cool clothes.

c)

so I can hide my cell phone, head phones and bag of Takis.

d)

I don't need to do that my rooms are always fine!

54.

How many hours do I have to finish the STAAR test?

a)

1 hour

b)

2 hours

c)

3 hours

d)

4 hours

55.

Do I have to finish the test in 4 hours?

a)

Yes

b)

No

56.

What happens if I finish my test in 4 hours, but I forget to bubble in my answers on my answer document?

a)

I won't get a good grade

b)

I will not have time after the 4 hours to go back and bubble

c)

The empty bubbles will count as wrong answers

d)

All of the above- it's just bad.

57.

True or False: I have to raise my hand to get a new pencil.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

True or False: I have to raise my hand to use a dictionary.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

True or False: I have to raise my hand to get a tissue.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

True or False: I can talk to my friends when I am done with my test.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

What happens if I talk to someone while tests are out or even after the test is over?

a)

I can get my test taken away from me.

b)

Big Fat ZERO on the front cover.

c)

I will make my parents and teacher so sad.

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

62.

What happens if I talk to someone while tests are out or even after the test is over?

a)

I can get my test taken away from me.

b)

Big Fat ZERO on the front cover.

c)

I will make my parents and teacher so sad.

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

63.

You may talk once your have completed your STAAR test

a)

true

b)

false

64.

It's perfectly okay to take short mental rest breaks during STAAR testing.

a)

No! you must work like a maniac!!

b)

Yeah, it's okay to fall asleep for a little while.

c)

Yes, a few minutes, here and there are okay...but not sleeping.

d)

I don't think so.

65.
Joseph and Caitlin were choosing the players for their teams. It was Caitlin's turn to choose, and only Jason was left. Caitlin said, "Jason."

We can infer that…
a)
Jason was the best player.
b)
Caitlin wanted Jason on her team.
c)
Jason was not a very good player.
d)
Caitlin had a hard time choosing a team member.
66.
Many breeds of dogs are used for work. In many cultures dogs are used to herd sheep. The dogs keep the flock from being attacked by animals such as wolves. They also keep sheep from wandering off. Sheepdogs are known for their loyalty and gentleness. Based on your reading of the text, you can INFER that:
a)
Sheepdogs are not very smart dogs.
b)
Sheepdogs are gentle and loyal.
c)
There are many breeds of dogs.
d)
Wolves are afraid of sheepdogs.
67.
As I walked in the door, I was amazed at the beautiful colors and smells. I knew it would be hard to decide what I would buy with my $3. The chocolate truffles looked delicious, but they were expensive. The jelly beans were not only cheaper, but so colorful! With so much to choose from, I knew I would be here a long time. Where am I?
a)
Gas station
b)
Candy store
c)
Grocery store
d)
Shoe store
68.

What should you draw to order integers?

a)

circle

b)

number line

c)

Venn diagram

d)

coordinate graph

69.

What value of y makes the equation true?

a)

15

b)

35

c)

-15

d)

-35

70.

Find the equivalent mixed number of

a)

-5 2/5

b)

-6 2/5

c)

-5 2/9

d)

-6 2/9

71.

Which ordered pair describes a point that is located 3 units to the left of the origin and 2 units

above the x-axis?

a)

(3, 2)

b)

(-3, -2)

c)

(3, -2)

d)

(-3, 2)

72.

Which equation best represents the relationship between x and y?

a)

y = x + 15

b)

y = x - 15

c)

y = 15x

d)

y = 15/x

73.

Which equation best represents the relationship between x and y?

a)

y = x + 15

b)

y = x - 15

c)

y = 15x

d)

y = 15/x

74.

The annual median income for a computer support technician is $72,000. The annual median income for a librarian is $38,000. Over 10 years, how much more will a computer support technician earn than a librarian earn?

a)

$720, 000

b)

$50,200

c)

$340,000

d)

$150,200

75.
Choose the correct Sentence.
Jennifer please pass the potatoes.
a)
Jennifer, please pass the potatoes.
b)
Jennifer, please, pass the potatoes.
76.
How many dragons are green
a)
How many dragons are green!
b)
How many dragons are green?
77.
 I was born on July 30 1995.
a)
 I was born, on July 30, 1995.
b)
 I was born on July 30, 1995.
78.
Once he gets to the baseball game John is going to relax.
a)
Once he gets, to the baseball game, John is going to relax.
b)
Once he gets to the baseball game, John is going to relax.
79.
After going to work he will go to the market.
a)
After going to work, he will go to the market.
b)
After, going to work, he will go to the market.
80.
Yes I got a good grade on my test.
a)
Yes, I got a good grade on my test.
b)
Yes, I got a good grade, on my test.
81.

A partial grassland food web is shown.


Which of the following best describes a relationship in this grassland?

a)

Badgers are top predators because they eat upland sandpipers and beetles

b)

A producer-consumer relationship exists between lupines and ants

c)

A predator-prey relationship exists between beetles and ground squirrels

d)

Upland sandpipers are primary and secondary consumers because they eat grasses and grasshoppers

82.

Which statement about stars is correct?

a)

Star formation begins in a nebula

b)

White dwarfs become main-sequence stars when they gain mass

c)

Supergiants are stars that can absorb black holes

d)

Main-sequence stars are formed by comets

83.

Which statement describes the energy changes that occur when water in a tea kettle is heated on a stove that uses natural gas?

a)

Some of the chemical energy in the natural gas transforms into thermal energy, which heats the water. Then some of the thermal energy changes into sound energy when the water forms steam and the steam leaves the kettle.

b)

Some of the thermal energy in the natural gas transforms into sound energy when the water becomes hot. Then some of the sound energy changes into light energy when the kettle becomes warm.

c)

Some of the electrical energy in the natural gas transforms into thermal energy, which causes the water to form steam. Then some of the thermal energy changes into sound energy and light energy when the steam leaves the kettle.

d)

Some of the light energy in the natural gas transforms into chemical energy in the water. Then some of the chemical energy changes into kinetic energy when steam leaves the kettle and into sound energy when the water boils.

84.

To fight a bacterial infection, a patient was given antibiotic to take for 10 days. After the patient finished taking the antibiotics as directed, almost all the bacteria were killed. After another 10 days, the patient was sick again with the same type of infection.


What most likely happened?

a)

A few bacteria survived the antibiotics and stopped reproducing

b)

The patient's high fever inactivated the antibiotic, allowing the surviving bacteria to grow rapidly

c)

The antibiotic slowed the life cycle of the bacteria

d)

Some of the bacteria were resistant to the antibiotic, and they reproduced

85.

The beginning of autumn in North America is in September, but the beginning of autumn in South America is in March. The diagram shows the positions of Earth, the moon, and the sun on one day in September and one day in March.


Why does autumn start in different months of the year in North America and South America?

a)

Earth's orbit around the sun is not a perfect circle

b)

North America has a larger landmass than South America

c)

The moon has a greater pull on South America than on North America

d)

Earth's axis has a 23.5 degrees tilt

86.

How many valence electrons are in an atom of each element in Group 15 in the periodic table?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

4

d)

1

87.

The photograph shows mountains in the Andes range in South America.


Which statement describes the geologic process that is most likely responsible for the formation of these mountains?

a)

They are along a transform plate boundary that is no longer active, so erosion is creating deep valleys

b)

They are along a transform plate boundary in which plates are currently moving side by side, causing earthquakes and faults

c)

They are along a plate boundary in which plates are currently converging, causing uplift and steep slopes

d)

They are along a plate boundary in which plates diverged in the distant past, allowing new rock to build up.

88.

The picture shows an aerialist walking on a tightrope and holding a balancing bar.


An action-reaction pair of forces exists between-

a)

the aerialist's feet and the rope

b)

the rope and the balancing bar

c)

the two ends of the rope

d)

the aerialist's arms and legs

89.
Which is not a strategy that you should use on your test?
a)
Underline key words
b)
Skim the text
c)
Find Text Evidence
d)
Briefly write the main ideas/events
90.
What is alliteration?
a)
rhyme
b)
repetition of middle sounds
c)
repetition of end sounds
d)
repetition of beginning sounds
91.
What is onomatopoeia?
a)
rhyme
b)
sound words
c)
an exaggeration
d)
repetition of beginning sounds
92.
The climax is...
a)
Right before you know the outcome of the conflict for the protagonist
b)
when the story wraps up
c)
when the conflict is figured out
d)
when the tension builds
93.
The falling action is...
a)
Right before you know the outcome of the conflict for the protagonist
b)
when the story wraps up
c)
when the conflict is figured out
d)
when the tension builds
94.
The denoument/resolution is...
a)
Right before you know the outcome of the conflict for the protagonist
b)
when the story wraps up
c)
when the conflict is figured out
d)
when the tension builds
95.
This is an example of what?
"Pizza is the best. "
a)
Fact
b)
Opinion
c)
Assertion
d)
Testimonial
96.
This is an example of what?
"I think that ice cream is disgusting "
a)
Fact
b)
Opinion
c)
Assertion
d)
Bandwagon
97.
What is a claim?
a)
one of the main ideas in a text
b)
The theme
c)
the overall position the author takes on a topic
d)
Counterargument
98.
When an author responds to the opposition (or those who disagree with him/her), he/she is providing a...
a)
Counterargument
b)
Claim
c)
Logical Fallacy
d)
Theme
99.
What should you take home to study?
a)
Pencil
b)
Dictionary
c)
STAAR Folder/IRWN
d)
stapler
100.

eat a duck

a)

ok

b)

ok

c)

ok

d)

ok

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