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WorksheetsMy Magnum Opus
Total questions: 174
Worksheet time: 29hrs 29mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Select the option that will transmit (average) forces through the hip arranged smallest to largest
a)
Standing, Standing on one limb, walking, walking up stairs, running
b)
Walking, walking up stairs, standing, standing on one limb, running
c)
Standing, Walking, Standing on one limb, walking up stairs, RUnning
d)
Standing, Walking, Walking up Stairs, Standing on one limb, Running
2.
The area of the femur where there are no Trabeculae, causing a weak spot prone to fractures
a)
Ward's Triangle
b)
Inferior Notch
c)
Arcuate's Triangle
d)
Ischial Cleft
e)
Tinashe's Zone
3.
Select all options paired with their correct angle of inclination
a)
Normal 120-135
b)
Coxa Valga: Greater than 135
c)
Coxa Vara: Less than 120
d)
Coxa Vara: Greater than 135
e)
Coxa Valga: Less than 120
4.
Select all options related to Coxa Valga:
a)
Can Lead to hip dislocation
b)
Can be caused by elimination of weight bearing in childhood
c)
Shortened Hip Abductors
d)
Ipsilateral Elevated Iliac Crest
e)
Contralateral Gluteus Medius Weakness
5.
Select all appropriate interventions for Coxa Valga
a)
Strengthen Abductors in a lengthened position
b)
Stretch Hip Extensors
c)
Stretch Adductors
d)
Strengthen Hip Flexors
e)
Strengthen Abductors in a shortened position
6.
Select all options related to Coxa Vara
a)
Shortened Adductors
b)
Ipsilateral Lower Iliac Crest
c)
Increased moment arm for hip abductors
d)
Lengthened Adductors
e)
Lower Back Pain
7.
Select all options paired with the correct ranges
a)
Normal Anteversion: 8-15
b)
Excessive Anteversion: Greater than 15
c)
Excessive Anteversion: Greater than 20
d)
Excessive Retroversion: Less than 8
e)
Excessive Retroversion: Less than 0
8.
Select all options that are a presentation of Femoral Neck Anteversion:
a)
Toe in gait
b)
Toe out gait
c)
Increased Hip IR Rom
d)
Pronated feet
e)
Frog Eye Patella
9.
Select all appropriate treatment options for your patient presenting with Craig's test: 23 degrees and lower back pain
a)
Grade IV Posterior Femoral Glide
b)
Grade III Anterior Femoral Glide
c)
Supine Glute Stretch
d)
Clams
e)
Abdominal Bracing
10.
Select all options that are a possible presentation of Femoral Neck Retroversion
a)
Craig's Test 7 degrees
b)
Pronated Feet
c)
Toe Out Gait
d)
Shortened ER Muscles
e)
Frog Eyed Patella
11.
Select all appropriate treatment options for a patient presenting with Craig's test: 5 degrees:
a)
Clams
b)
Hip IR with Band
c)
Supine Glute Stretch
d)
Hip ER with Band
e)
Supine Hamstring Stretch
12.
Legg Calve Perthes Disease is:
a)
Avascular Necrosis of the femoral head
b)
Malformation of the femoral head that leads to chronic sublexation of the femur
c)
A congenital chronic slipping of the femoral head
d)
A Perthe that occurs in the Legg and Calve
13.
Closed Packed Position for the hip:
a)
Full Extension
b)
IR
c)
Abduction
d)
30 Degrees Flexion
e)
Slight ER
14.
Open Packed Position for the hip:
a)
Full Extension
b)
IR
c)
Abduction
d)
30 Degrees Flexion
e)
Slight ER
15.
Structures implicated in Avascular Necrosis of the hip:
a)
Ligamentum Teres
b)
Obtruator Artery
c)
Femoral Circumflex Artery
d)
Femoral Artery
e)
Saphenous Artery
16.
Select all hip flexors active at 120 degrees flexion:
a)
Rectus Femoris
b)
Iliopsoas
c)
Sartorius
d)
Anterior Gluteus Medius
17.
Select all muscles active while flexing hip from 10 degrees of extension to 0:
a)
Rectus Femoris
b)
Iliopsoas
c)
Adductor Longus
d)
Adductor Magnus
18.
Your Patient is presenting with symptoms resembling sciatic nerve impingement, and suspect the Piriformis. What should you do to attempt to treat?
a)
Stretch the Piriformis
b)
Strengthen the Piriformis at end range
c)
Strengthen the Piriformis in early ranges
d)
Sacrifice the blood of a goat to an alter of Dr. K and the old gods.
19.
Your patient is a 34 year old woman who c/o hip pain. Presents with +FABER and reduced ABD ROM. Given what we know, what is likely the diagnosis?
a)
OA
b)
Pincer Impingement
c)
CAM Impingement
d)
Trochanteric Bursitis
e)
Acetbaular Labral Tear
20.
Your patient is a 24 year old male c/o hip pain. Presents with painat lateral hip with abduction, external rotation, knee flexion, and going up stairs. Lateral Hip joint is TTP. What is the most likely diagnosis given what we know?
a)
OA
b)
Pincer Impingement
c)
CAM Impingement
d)
Trochanteric Bursitis
e)
Acetbaular Labral Tear
21.
Your Patient is a 27 year old male who c/o hip pain. Presents with +FADDIR and decreased IR. Given what we know, what is most likely the diagnosis?
a)
OA
b)
Pincer Impingement
c)
CAM Impingement
d)
Trochanteric Bursitis
e)
Acetbaular Labral Tear
22.
Your patient is a 56 year old female who complains of hip pain, particularly in the morning that seems to get better as the day goes on. What is most likely the Diagnosis?
a)
OA
b)
Pincer Impingement
c)
CAM Impingement
d)
Trochanteric Bursitis
e)
Acetbaular Labral Tear
23.
Your patient is a 21 year old female c/o hip pain and an ocassional locking of her hip when she dances ballet. +FADDIR, no ROM deficits, however decreased postural stability. What is our most likely diagnosis?
a)
OA
b)
Pincer Impingement
c)
CAM Impingement
d)
Trochanteric Bursitis
e)
Acetbaular Labral Tear
24.
Your patient is a 44 year old female c/o intermitent hip pain and clicking in her hip. +FADDIR, decreased postural stability. Select all appropriate treatment options for her first day:
a)
Single Leg Stance
b)
Anterior Grade II Glides
c)
Hip IR With band
d)
Grade IV Posterior Femoral Glide
e)
Abdominal Bracing
25.
Your patient is a 56 year old female who complains of hip pain, particularly in the morning that seems to get better as the day goes on. Select all appropriate treatment options:
a)
Ultrasound
b)
Iontophoresis
c)
Weight loss program
d)
Sidelaying Hip Abduction with resistance
e)
Single Leg Stance Balance
26.
Your patient is a 24 year old male c/o hip pain. Presents with pain at lateral hip with abduction, external rotation, and going up stairs. Lateral Hip joint is TTP. Select Appropriate treatment options for his first day:
a)
Iontophoresis
b)
Clams with resistance
c)
Ultrasound
d)
Cryotherapy
e)
Heel insert under affected leg's heel
27.
Your patient is a 44 year old male who c/o hip pain in glute area radiating into hamstrings. Aggs: prolonged walking/sitting. Select appropriate treatment options for his first day:
a)
Ice
b)
Advice about chair padding for work
c)
Supine Hamstring Stretch
d)
Ultrasound
e)
A good thorough spanking 3 x 30 second sets
28.
Your patient is seeing you for a wellness checkup. They don't have one now, but they are very prone to quadriceps strains and are looking for ways to prevent them. Select all appropriate options:
a)
NSAIDS
b)
Concentric Long Arch Quads with band
c)
Front loaded squats
d)
Lunge Holds
e)
Box Jumps
29.
The odd facet is on the medial aspect of the Patella
a)
true
b)
false
30.
Highest joint pressure from the patella occurs at which range?
a)
30-60
b)
60-90
c)
90-135
d)
The mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell
31.
Knee joint capsule has insertions at which of these locations?
a)
Medial Meniscus
b)
Lateral Meniscus
c)
Above the femoral Condyles
d)
Popliteus Ligament
e)
Head of the fibula
32.
The two bursa implicated in a baker's cyst are:
a)
Gastroc
b)
Semimembranosus
c)
Pes Anserine
d)
Deep Inrapatellar
e)
Subcutaneous
33.
Of the two meniscus, The medial meniscus is more easily injured than the lateral.
a)
true
b)
false
34.
Of the two meniscus, the most commonly injured meniscus is the
a)
Medial
b)
Lateral
35.
Edema presenting 8-24 hours after injury is indicative of what?
a)
Well vascularized structure damage, such as the ACL
b)
Poor vascularized structure damage, such as the capsule creating a synovial effusion
c)
Delayed tissue healing caused by early immobilization
d)
Contractile tissue damage, due to inflammation of tissue inside the myofacia
36.
Select the Options that will increase Q angle if present
a)
Femoral anteversion
b)
Tibial Internal Rotation
c)
Femoral Internal Rotation
d)
Genu Valgum
e)
Femoral Retroversion
37.
Heads of the quadriceps that give a medially directed line of pull on the patella relative to overall line of pull:
a)
VL
b)
VI
c)
RF
d)
VML
e)
VMO
38.
Select all Tendon:Patella Ratios that would be indicative of Patella Alta
a)
1.7:1
b)
1.5:1
c)
1.3:1
d)
1.1:1
e)
.9:1
39.
Select all options that could contribute to patellar tracking dysfunction
a)
Laxity in the lateral fibers of the patellar retinaculum
b)
Stiffness in the medial patellar retinacular fibers
c)
Stiff or short ITB
d)
Shallow lateral facet of intercondylar groove of femur
e)
Neurogenic inhibition of the VL
40.
Your patient is a 43 year old female who c/o pain on the anterior knee when descending stairs. (+)McConnel,(+) Obers, Quad strength 4/5. Select all appropriate treatment options for her first day:
a)
TFL Stretch
b)
Iontophoresis
c)
Squats ROM: 0-90
d)
Medial Patellar Glides
e)
Long Arc Quads ROM: 90-45
41.
Select all abnormalities that could contribute to a dynamic valgus:
a)
Laxity/Injury to LCL
b)
Lengthened Glute Max
c)
Tibial ER
d)
Excessive Pronation in Subtalar joint
e)
Coxa Valga
42.
Your patient is a 37 year old male who c/o anterior knee pain when he squats to pick up boxes for his job as an overnight stocker at Heartless-Mart. PROM: Hip ER: 20 Hip IR: 45 MMT: Glute Max: 4/5 Glute Med: 4/5, Quads 5/5, (-) Obers. Select all appropriate treatment options:
a)
Supine Glute Stretch
b)
Unilateral Bridges
c)
TFL Stretch
d)
Movement retraining Squats ROM: 0-45
e)
Butterfly stretch (IR+Adductor mm Stretch)
43.
You have a patient who is presenting with weak glute max/med and normal TFL. Select exercises for this patient that have highest co-activation for the weak muscles:
a)
Clam
b)
Unilateral bridge
c)
SL Hip ABD
d)
Hip extension with knee flexed
e)
Hip Hike
44.
You have a patient who is presenting with a weak glute med and TFL, and normal glute max. Select exercises for this patient that have the highest co-activation for the weak muscles:
a)
Sidelaying hip ABD
b)
Clam
c)
Unilateral bridge
d)
Hip Hike
e)
Sidestep with band
45.
You have a 63 year old patient who c/o a chronic deep "Achy" pain in their knee that has gotten worse in the last week. Examination: Edema above the knee. Unknown mechanism of injury, No proprioception deficits. Knee PROM: 10-100 / Endfeel soft "Springy". Isometrics Strong/painless. Select all appropriate treatments:
a)
Grade II Anterior tibial glide
b)
Grade II Posterior Tibial Glide
c)
Short Arc Quads
d)
Long Arc Quads ROM 90-45
e)
Taping
46.
Your patient is a 38 year old female referred for s/p partial menisectomy for a deep meniscal repair. Select all appropriate treatments:
a)
Immobilize in full extension
b)
Stationary bike
c)
Long Arch Quads without resistance ROM: 0-90
d)
Functional Bracing
e)
Single leg stance balancing
47.
Select all muscles implicated by a Saphenous nerve entrapment at Hunter's Canal
a)
Sartorius
b)
Adductor Magnus
c)
Gracilis
d)
Vastus Lateralis
e)
TFL
48.
Your patient is a 45 year old male who presents with intermittent "burning" and "tingling" on his medial leg. Pain reproduced during Sartorius MMT. Select the nerve most likely entrapped
a)
Common Fibular Nerve
b)
Femoral Nerve
c)
Saphenous Nerve
d)
Femoral Cutaneous Nerve
e)
Obtruator Nerve
49.
Your patient is a 45 year old male who presents with intermittent "burning" and "tingling" on his medial leg. Pain reproduced during Sartorius MMT. Select all appropriate treatments
a)
Long arc quads with band
b)
Anterior Tibial Glides
c)
STM at fibular head
d)
Single Leg Raise with 1lb weight
e)
Cryotherapy
50.
Your patient is a 19 year old male c/o anterior knee pain after basketball games. (+) Single leg jump functional test. Select all appropriate treatments:
a)
Box Jump Downs with movement training
b)
Inferior Patellar Mobs
c)
Superior Patellar Mobs
d)
STM + Ice
e)
Eccentric Squats
51.
Your patient is a 22 year old female c/o lateral knee pain while running. Isometrics: Strong, painful Hip Adduction, Internal Rotation. (+) Nobels. Select all appropriate treatments:
a)
IT Band rollout
b)
TFL Stretch
c)
Supine Hamstring Stretch
d)
Hip Flexor Stretch
e)
Clams
52.
Your patient is a 65 year old woman c/o knee pain, and stiffness in the morning that resolves as the day goes on. Select all appropriate treatment options:
a)
Aquatic Therapy
b)
Aerobic Exercise
c)
Grade 2 Posterior Tibial Glides
d)
Long Arc Quads with band
e)
Run on Takeshi's Castle to take the gold.
53.
Select all structures that are part of the posteromedial corner
a)
POL
b)
Semitendinosus tendon
c)
OPL
d)
SMCL
e)
DMCL
54.
The terrible triad:
a)
Grade III ACL
b)
Grade II MCL
c)
Grade II LCL
d)
Lateral Meniscus
e)
Medial Meniscus
55.
Your patient is a 29 year old female seeing you after an injury produced cutting hard while skiing. C/o knee pain, edema that presented the day after the injury, TTP medial epicondyle. What structure is implicated?
a)
ACL
b)
MCL
c)
LCL
d)
PCL
e)
TLC
56.
Your patient is a 56 year old male c/o lateral knee pain and slipping and falling in the kitchen landing on affected knee. Examination: TTP head of fibula and antalgic gait. Isometrics: Knee flexion strong / painful. What is your next step?
a)
Check for impingement of the common fibular nerve
b)
Check for strain of biceps Femoris short or long head.
c)
Varus stress test to check LCL integrity
d)
Send patient for radiograph
e)
Cryotherapy, then tell him to walk it off and stop crying so much
57.
Your patient comes to you through direct access and is an 18 year old football player with a suspected grade II MCL tear that happened this morning. Select appropriate treatment options for his first day:
a)
Immobilize
b)
Cross-friction massage
c)
Elevate leg and Cryotherapy
d)
Low Intensity Ultrasound
e)
Hinged brace to allow for AROM and WBAT
58.
Your patient is an 18 year old football player with a suspected grade II MCL tear that happened 3 weeks ago. Select appropriate treatment options for his visit today:
a)
Immobilize
b)
Cross-friction massage
c)
Hinged brace to allow for AROM and WBAT
d)
Squats, emphasizing form avoiding valgus stresses
e)
Sidelaying IR Stretch
59.
Select all actions resisted by the ACL:
a)
Hyperextension
b)
Anterior Tibial Translation
c)
Posterior Tibial Translation
d)
Tibial Internal Rotation
e)
Tibial External Rotation
60.
From which artery is the ACL perfused?
a)
Medial Geniculat Artery
b)
Obtruator Artery
c)
Circumflex Artery
d)
Femoral Artery
e)
Popliteal Artery
61.
Your patient is a 16 year old female basketball player who was hit and knocked off balance while landing from a rebound and C/o deep knee pain. Examination: edema that was present within hours of the injury, antalgic gait with reluctance to put weight on the leg, mild quadriceps atrophy in affected leg. Which ligament do we suspect is implicated?
a)
ACL
b)
MCL
c)
LCL
d)
PCL
e)
LOL
62.
Your patient was referred to you by a doctor who wants to try non-surgical rehab of a grade III ACL sprain. Select appropriate treatments for your POC
a)
Quad and ham strengthening with an emphasis on quadriceps
b)
Quad and ham strengthening with an emphasis on hamstrings
c)
Long arc quads ROM: 90-45
d)
Short Arc Quads
e)
Single leg balancing
63.
Select all actions resisted by PCL
a)
Hyperextension
b)
Anterior Tibial Translation
c)
Posterior Tibial Translation
d)
Tibial Internal Rotation
e)
Tibial External Rotation
64.
Your patient is a gymnast who injured her leg by coming out of a triple axel 720 super sweet flip slamming her ankle on the guard rail causing a violent hyperextension of the knee. c/o posterior knee pain, and seated, you notice her tibia is flush with her femoral condyles. PROM: Knee flexion 0-115 empty end feel, painful inhibition. What structure is most likely the culprit?
a)
ACL
b)
MCL
c)
LCL
d)
PCL
e)
This week is killing me slowly
65.
A grade II PCL tear that goes untreated for greater than 6 months increases your patient's risk of developing OA
a)
true
b)
false
66.
Your patient is referred to you from a doctor to rehab a grade II PCL tear. Select appropriate treatment options for your POC:
a)
Immobilization in full extension
b)
Hinged brace to allow for AROM and WBAT
c)
Quad and ham strengthening with an emphasis on hamstrings
d)
Quad and ham strengthening with an emphasis on quadriceps
e)
WB with crutches
67.
Your patient has been referred to you for rehab s/p PCL reconstruction. Select appropriate treatment options for your POC:
a)
Progress to long arc quads with band ROM: 0-45
b)
Progress to squats ROM: 0-45
c)
Immobilize for 4-6 weeks full extension
d)
Quad sets
e)
Ultrasound
68.
Your patient is a 22 year old ballet dancer who c/o posterior ankle pain during their rehearsals. Examination: Posterior Talus TTP and mild edema on medial ankle. Select appropriate treatment options:
a)
Iontophoresis
b)
Bracing to limit plantarflexion
c)
Bracing to limit dorsiflexion
d)
Taping
e)
Heel raises
69.
A patient presents to you with a flat foot. You place him in supine position to examine further, and notice his foot is still in a pronated, dropped arch position. This patient has ______ type of ________
a)
Rigid
b)
Flexible
c)
Pes Planus
d)
Pes Cavus
70.
Your patient presents to you with a flexible pes planus condition. Select appropriate treatment options:
a)
Orthotic
b)
Intrinsic strengthening
c)
Calf Stretches
d)
Stretching of Plantar fascia
e)
Heel raises
71.
Someone with compensated forefoot Valgus will enter preswing with a rigid foot
a)
true
b)
false
72.
Someone with a compensated forefoot varus will enter preswing with a rigid foot
a)
true
b)
false
73.
Muscles to be eccentrically strengthened when a patient presents with compensatory pronation:
a)
Tib Posterior
b)
Tib Anterior
c)
Hip Abd
d)
Hip ER
e)
Hip IR
74.
This is the presentation for coxa valga except:<br />
a)
elevated iliac crest
b)
decreased functional length of hip ABDs
c)
possible (+) Trendelenburg
d)
adductor shortness
e)
low back pain
75.
This is the presentation for coxa vara except:<br />
a)
lower iliac crest
b)
adductor shortness
c)
decreased functional length of hip ABDs
d)
sacroiliac dysfunction
e)
possible (+) Trendelenburg
76.
Femoral anteversion ______ IR ROM and ________ ER ROM. Overtime, it causes ________ of IR muscles and ________ ER muscles.
a)
increase / decrease / shortening / lengthening
b)
decrease / increase / lengthening / shortening
c)
increase / decrease / no change / no change
d)
decrease / increase / no change / no change
77.
This is the presentation for femoral retroversion except:<br />
a)
toe in gait
b)
medially tilted patella
c)
supinated feet
d)
low back pain
e)
decreased hip IR ROM
78.
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis can lead to coxa valga.
a)
true
b)
false
79.
Congenital hip dysplasia can lead to coxa valga.
a)
true
b)
false
80.
Congenital hip dysplasia has the greatest limitation with hip ______ ROM.
a)
ABD
b)
ADD
c)
ER
d)
IR
e)
Flexion
81.
Legg Calve Perthes disease is idiopathic in nature.
a)
true
b)
false
82.
Legg Calve Perthes disease presents with hip_______ shortness/stiffness.
a)
flexor
b)
extensor
c)
adductor
d)
abductor
e)
ER
83.
The capsular pattern of the hip includes these motions (in no particular order):
a)
flexion
b)
extension
c)
abduction
d)
adduction
e)
IR
84.
The acetabular labrum provides pressurization of the synovial fluid, thereby enhancing lubrication and increasing the direct contact of the femur and acetabulum.
a)
true
b)
false
85.
The trochanteric bursa reduces friction between ________ and ________.
a)
greater trochanter
b)
lesser trochanter
c)
TFL<br />
d)
glut med/max
e)
iliopsoas
86.
The _____ portion of the Gluteus medius often becomes _______.
a)
posterior
b)
anterior
c)
strong
d)
weak
e)
lengthened
87.
Pincer impingements have a higher incidence with _____ , ages _____.
a)
men
b)
women
c)
20-30
d)
30-40
e)
40-50
88.
Sporting activities that involve repetitive hip ______ can lead to acetabular labral tears.
a)
flexion
b)
abduction
c)
extension
d)
ER
e)
IR
89.
SEBT is a measure of dynamic stability which stands for:
a)
Star-Excursion Balance Test
b)
Standing-Extension Balance Test
c)
Star-Extension Balance Test
d)
Standing-Excursion Balance Test
e)
Shifting-Excursion Balance Test
90.
What is the most common type of hip bursitis?
a)
Trochanteric
b)
Iliopectineal
c)
Ischiogluteal
91.
Which of the hip bursitis conditions can be caused by joint OA?
a)
Trochanteric
b)
Iliopectineal
c)
Ischiogluteal
d)
none of these
92.
Which of the hip bursitis conditions will find pain with endrange extension?
a)
Trochanteric
b)
Iliopectineal
c)
Ischiogluteal
d)
none of these
93.
Which of the hip bursitis conditions are seen in patients to sit for prolonged periods?
a)
Trochanteric
b)
Iliopectineal
c)
Ischiogluteal
d)
none of these
94.
The most common plicae to be irritated:
a)
Superior
b)
Medial
c)
Lateral
d)
Inferior
95.
The LCL is a round, strong cordlike structure that resists varus stresses, blends with the biceps femoris tendon, lateral capsule, and lateral meniscus.
a)
true
b)
false
96.
The coronary ligaments joins the tranverse ligaments and horns of the menisci.
a)
true
b)
false
97.
These areas of the menisci have the highest neurovasculature:
a)
outer 1/3
b)
middle 1/3
c)
inner 1/3
d)
horns
98.
A patellar ratio of 3/1 is:
a)
patella alta
b)
patella baja
c)
patellar flexion
d)
patellar extension
99.
These are all possible ligamentous disruptions in a high ankle sprain except:
a)
Posterior Tibiofibular Ligament
b)
Interosseous Ligament
c)
Anterior Tibiotalar Ligament
d)
Posterior Talofibular Ligament
e)
Anterior Talofibular Ligament
100.
Syndesmosis injuries present with the following except:
a)
Pain with end-range DF
b)
(+) ER stress test
c)
TTP over anterior distal tibiofibular joint
d)
(+) Anterior drawer test
e)
none of these
101.
These are correct statements of Achilles tendinopathy except:
a)
Males affected more than females
b)
VISA-P functional outcome measure
c)
TTP 2-6 cm from insertion
d)
Associated with abnormal foot supination
e)
Associated with decreased PF strength
102.
These are true of Achilles ruptures except:
a)
(+) Thomas test
b)
Decreased PF strength
c)
Pop or snap sensation during mechanism of injury
d)
S/p repair, tendon usually heals in shortened position
e)
Increase DF ROM
103.
These are true of Hallux Valgus except:
a)
Affects ~20% of the population in the U.S.
b)
Presents with hindfoot eversion
c)
Can be treated with intrinsic foot strengthening
d)
Functional limitations with 20-30 degrees MTP angle
e)
none of these
104.
These are causes of Hallux Valgus except:
a)
Hereditary factors
b)
Abnormal compensatory pronation
c)
Tight, pointed footwear or high heels
d)
Chronic ankle instability
e)
none of these
105.
These are presentations of a Lisfranc injury except:
a)
TTP
b)
Edema
c)
Antalgic gait
d)
Pain with OKC AROM PF
e)
none of these
106.
These are true of Lisfranc injuries except:
a)
Disruption between 3rd and 4th MT and 3rd and 4th cuneforms
b)
Named after King George III's surgeon
c)
Can range from sprain to fracture
d)
As a result from falls or car accidents
e)
none of these
107.
These are true of Hallux Rigidus except:
a)
Impaired squatting, kneeling, stair climbing
b)
Shift of weight laterally during gait to avoid hallux DF
c)
Lateral shoe crease
d)
Gait deviation during Mid Stance
e)
none of these
108.
These are true of Hallux Rigidus' etiology except:
a)
Results from OA
b)
Results from Trauma
c)
abnormal compensatory pronation
d)
Index plus-minus MT classification
e)
none of these
109.
These are true of Turf Toe except:
a)
Contributing factors include artificial turf and flexible footwear
b)
Similar treatment to Hallux Rigidus
c)
Less debilitating than lateral ankle sprains
d)
Taping on the Dorsal aspect
110.
These are true of Turf Toe except:
a)
Result from hyperextension with distraction of Hallux MTP
b)
Can damage capsule, cartilage, and bone
c)
Presents with antalgic gait
d)
Presents with edema
e)
Early heel-rise in gait
111.
These are true of Plantarfasiopathy except:
a)
Pain at the mid portion of the medial band
b)
Pain at the lateral plantar tubercle of calcaneus
c)
Presents with inflammation
d)
Presence of degenerative changes
e)
none of these
112.
Impairments associated with Plantarfasciopathy:
a)
Pes cavus
b)
Abnormal compensatory pronation
c)
Short/stiff gastrocsoleus
d)
Traumatic mechanism of injury
113.
Correct presentations of Plantarfasciopathy except:
a)
Pain with initial step in morning
b)
Pain under anteromedial aspect of plantar heel
c)
Antalgic gait
d)
Better towards end of day
e)
Lessens with activity
114.
These are true of Morton's Metatarsalgia except:
a)
Usually between 4th and 5th MT heads
b)
More common in men than women
c)
Results from chronic MTP hyperextension
d)
Formation of interdigital neuroma
e)
Results from improper footwear
115.
These are true of Posterior Tibial Tendon Dysfunction except:
a)
high and rigid medial arch
b)
Acquired pes cavus
c)
heel-rise weakness
d)
Can use AFO to control forefoot motion
e)
none of these
116.
Which Stage of PTTD presents with a fixed hindfoot deformity?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
117.
Likely explanation(s) for the efficacy of taping in PFPS include that the application of tape alters the:
a)
PF contact area
b)
Patellar position
c)
VMO/VL activation ratio/timing
d)
Propropceptive input
118.
Select the false statement(s) regarding PFPS:
a)
Most common cause knee pain among adults > 50 y/o
b)
PFPS is typically chronic
c)
PFPS Sx aggravated by ascending > descending stairs
d)
Incidence of 4:1, women > men
119.
PFPS Etiology: Lower kinetic chain factors influencing dynamic knee valgus include
a)
Subluxing patella
b)
Excessive foot pronation
c)
Tibial rotation
d)
Decreased/delayed VMO activity
120.
Based on EMG activity, the best choice for a PFPS patient with overactive TFL & glute strength deficits:
a)
Bilateral bridge, step-ups
b)
sidelying clams, sidestep
c)
sidelying hip ABD, step-ups
d)
sidelying hip ABD, hip hike
121.
Which of the following are special tests for PFPS?
a)
Clark’s Test
b)
McConnell’s Test
c)
McMurray’s Test
d)
Craig’s Test
122.
The 13 item questionnaire assessing symptoms & aggravating activities associated with PFPS is known as the?
a)
LEFS
b)
VISA-P
c)
Kujala Scale
d)
KOOS
123.
Likely explanation(s) for the efficacy of taping in PFPS include that the application of tape alters the:
a)
PF contact area
b)
Patellar position
c)
VMO/VL activation ratio/timing
d)
Propropceptive input
124.
Select the false statement(s) regarding PFPS:
a)
Most common cause knee pain among adults > 50 y/o
b)
PFPS is typically chronic
c)
PFPS Sx aggravated by ascending > descending stairs
d)
Incidence of 4:1, women > men
125.
PFPS Etiology: Lower kinetic chain factors influencing dynamic knee valgus include
a)
Subluxing patella
b)
Excessive foot pronation
c)
Tibial rotation
d)
Decreased/delayed VMO activity
126.
Based on EMG activity, the best choice for a PFPS patient with overactive TFL & glute strength deficits:
a)
Bilateral bridge, step-ups
b)
sidelying clams, sidestep
c)
sidelying hip ABD, step-ups
d)
sidelying hip ABD, hip hike
127.
Which of the following are special tests for PFPS?
a)
Clark’s Test
b)
McConnell’s Test
c)
McMurray’s Test
d)
Craig’s Test
128.
The 13 item questionnaire assessing symptoms & aggravating activities associated with PFPS is known as the?
a)
LEFS
b)
VISA-P
c)
Kujala Scale
d)
KOOS
129.
Your patient is a 16 year old male who "rolled" his ankle while taking a quick turn on the football field. Examination: ecchymosis on the lateral aspect of the ankle with severe edema and antalgic gait. (-) Anterior drawer (+)Talar Tilt. What is your diagnosis?
a)
Grade I CFL Sprain
b)
Grade II CFL Sprain
c)
Grade III CFL Sprain
d)
Grade II ATFL Sprain
e)
Grade III ATFL Sprain
130.
Your patient, through direct access, is a 19 year old female ballet dancer who "landed funny" from a relevet fromage jump during rehearsal earlier that day. Examination: Anterior-lateral aspect of the foot TTP with moderate edema. DF PROM: @ 9 degrees deficit compared to CL side. (+) Anterior drawer (-) Talar tilt. How should you treat on her first day?
a)
Elevate and protect the foot
b)
Cryotherapy
c)
Ultrasound
d)
Eccentric Ankle dorsiflexion with band
e)
Gastroct Stretch
131.
Your patient, through direct access, is a 19 year old female ballet dancer who "landed funny" from a relevet fromage jump during rehearsal earlier that day. Examination: Anterior-lateral aspect of the foot TTP with moderate edema. DF PROM: @ 9 degrees deficit compared to CL side. (+) Anterior drawer (-) Talar tilt. What is an appropriate treatment plan for her second week?
a)
Aircast
b)
Ankle PF/DF with band
c)
Wobble Board Training
d)
Grade III Posterior Talar Glide
e)
Talar Distractions
132.
Your patient is a 16 year old male who "rolled" his ankle while taking a quick turn on the football field. Examination: ecchymosis on the lateral aspect of the ankle with severe edema and antalgic gait. (-) Anterior drawer (+)Talar Tilt. This injury happened two days ago, select BEST options for a first day treatment plan:
a)
Grade II Anterior Talar Glides
b)
Grade II Posterior Talar Glide
c)
STM - Lymphatic Drainage
d)
STM - Cross-friction
e)
Proprioception Training
133.
Your patient is a 22 year old male seeing you on direct access who "twisted" his ankle during a soccer game earlier that morning. He ambulates using crutches he had from a previous ankle sprain and is completley NWB. TTP: Anterior aspect of foot, medial and Lateral Malleoli. What special test should you run?
a)
Anterior Drawer
b)
Talar Tilt
c)
Syndesmosis External Rotation
d)
Cuboid Whip
e)
Radiograph
134.
You have been treating your patient for a lateral ankle sprain, and after 8 days their symptoms have not only not improved, they've gotten worse. Examination: TTP Lateral midfoot, Edema, Antalgic gait and pain with heel raise. (-) Anterior Drawer (-) Talar Tilt (-) Radiograph for fracture. Select a treatment option to proceed:
a)
Grade IV Anterior Talar Glide
b)
Grade IV Posterior Talar Glide
c)
Grade V Talar Distraction
d)
Grade V Cuboid Whip
e)
Gastroc Stretch
135.
Your patient is seeing you after having been treated for a grade III lateral ankle sprain. Treatment of this sprain included and light stretching and isometric work after being immobilized for 3 weeks. They now c/o radiating pain and tingling down the lateral aspect of their foot. Examination: Antrophy of Tib Anterior compared to CL. MMT: PF 5/5, DF 4/5 Fib Longus/Brevis: 3/5. Select appropriate treatment options
a)
Cryotherapy to medial aspect of knee
b)
Saphenous Nerve Mobilization
c)
Common Fibular Nerve Mobilizations
d)
Grade II Superior Fibular Glide
e)
Gastroc Stretch
136.
A patient is presenting with numbness and tingling on the Dorsal aspect of the foot and toes 1-4. All MMT 5/5. What nerve is implicated?
a)
Common Fibular
b)
Deep FIbular
c)
Superficial Fibular
d)
Saphenous
e)
Sural
137.
Your patient is a 40 year old male who c/o tingling, burning and weakness in his "big toe" and an aching in his midfood after a freak bowling accident that involved a bowling ball falling onto the top of his foot/ankle. What nerve is implicated?
a)
Common Fibular
b)
Deep FIbular
c)
Superficial Fibular
d)
Saphenous
e)
Sural
138.
Your patient is a 37 year old female who complains of burning pain on the plantar aspect of his foot, particularly after prolonged standing for work. His arch feels "tight" all the time and further inspection reveals the pain travels up the medial aspect of the ankle posterior to the medial malleolus. What is likely his diagnosis?
a)
Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome
b)
Plantarfasciopathy
c)
Fibularis longus tendinopathy
d)
Tib Anterior Tendinopathy
e)
Achilles Tendinopathy
139.
Your patient is a 23 year old female cross country athlete who c/o pain and swelling in her ankle that begins halfway through her run and persists hours after she has stopped running. (+) Navicular Drop test
a)
Gastroc Stretch
b)
Soleus Stretch
c)
Cryotherapy after runs
d)
Strengthen Gastroc
e)
Semi-rigid Orthotic
140.
Your patient is a 35 year old CSUN PT student, who is fine, superior male specimen that runs to maintain his Adonis-like features. His steely blue eyes pierce your soul, and he is certainly the coolest, hottest, most awesome dude you've ever met in your life. You want to be like him. Recently, after increasing his running duration, he c/o pain in the anterior aspect of his leg and an aching in his forefoot during his run. Isometrics: Strong/Painful DF. Select proper treatment options:
a)
Gastroc Stretch
b)
Soleus Stretch
c)
Iontophoresis
d)
Strenghten Gastroc
e)
Rigid Orthotic
141.
Your patient is a 22 year old football player who, after being tackle at the ankle while pivoting, c/o ankle pain. Examination: TTP over the posterior aspect of the ankle, no edema, antalgic gait presents with early heel raise during midstance. PROM: DF 0-18 empty end feel: Pain. (+) ER Stress test. Select appropriate treatment options:
a)
Cryotherapy
b)
Estim
c)
NWB, Crutches
d)
Gastroc stretching @ end range DF
e)
Wobble board
142.
Your patient is a 48 year old male who c/o ankle pain "stiff and burning" in the morning and descending stairs with insidious onset. Examination: Posterior ankle, superior to calcaneus TTP, (+) pump bumb, edema. (+)Gastroc Length Test, MMT: PF 4/5. Select appropriate treatment options for his first visit:
a)
Cortisone Injection
b)
MFR To Gastrocsoleus on slack
c)
Iontophoresis
d)
Gastrocsoleus stretches
e)
Eccentric Heel Raises with moderate pain
143.
Your patient is a 39 year old male who was playing basketball with his son when suddenly he felt a pop on his posterior ankle and now c/o pain believing he has a sprained ankle. Examination: antalgic gait, loss of definition of gastroc compared to CL, edema interfering with attempted palpation. MMT: PF 3/5 DF 5/5, (-) Anterior Drawer (+)Thompson. Select possible treatment options:
a)
NWB + Crutches
b)
Gastroc stretching @ 6 weeks
c)
Heel lift
d)
Immobilize with cast
e)
Ankle AROM
144.
Select Conservative treatment options for Hallux Valgus
a)
Strengthening intrinsics
b)
Heel Raises (Biasing Gastroc)
c)
Heel raises (Biasing tib posterior)
d)
Taping to facilitate abductor Hallucis brevis
e)
Stepping on their toes
145.
Select angles of Hallux Valgus that are considered pathological and will always require surgical intervention:
a)
8
b)
19
c)
23
d)
34
e)
50
146.
Your patient is referred to you for a Lisfranc Injury. Select appropriate treatment options:
a)
Partial foot amputation
b)
Intrensic foot strengthening
c)
Taping to limit Dorsiflexion
d)
Proprioception Exercises
e)
ORIF Surgery
147.
Which of the following is TRUE about minuscus tears?
a)
Transverse tears have greater healing potential than longitudinal tears
b)
Success rate for healing is improved with concomitant ACL tear
c)
Effusion is usually very quick and significant
d)
Rehab for standard tear should include limited weight bearing in locked brace for 6 weeks
148.
The VISA-P is an instrument utilized to assess dysfunction due to:
a)
Knee OA
b)
ACL Tear
c)
Patellar Tendinopathy
d)
Meniscus tears
149.
All of the following are TRUE regarding CAM lesion of the hip EXCEPT:
a)
Higher instance in Women
b)
Presents as excessive bone at the femur head-neck junction
c)
Is often associated with a labral tear
d)
Can lead to femoroacetabular impingement
150.
All of the following would be appropriate for initial 2 weeks of PT rehab for turf toe EXCEPT:
a)
Taping longitudinally along the dorsal aspect of his first MT/Phalanax to limit Painful Rom
b)
Instructing patient to ambulated PWB on crutches or walking cast until pain-free gait
c)
Iontophoresis and ice for pain and inflammation
d)
Shoe insert of padding under medial ray of MTP
151.
All of the following joint mobilizations would be the most effective treatment for his impairment and addressing his pain EXCEPT
a)
1st toe MTP Grade III plantargrade
b)
1st toe MTP Grade II Dorsal, progressing to grade III if hypomobile
c)
Talus Grade III Posterior glide
d)
1st toe MTP medial sesamoid Grade III Dorsal Glide
152.
You are observing your patient's foot in weight bearing and note that she has a very high arch and her calcaneus is inverted. You measure her STJN and note there is a foot dysfunction and note an abnormal compensatory pronation during gait. Which fo the following dysfunctions is most likely?
a)
Compensated forefoot valgus
b)
Compensated forefoot varus
c)
Compensated hindfoot varus
d)
Equinus deformity
153.
All of the following are precautions for a patient who has undergone a THA utilizing an ANTERIOR approach EXCEPT:
a)
No abduction beyond neutral
b)
No extension beyond neutral
c)
No adduction / crossing leg pas t midline
d)
No External Rotation beyond neutral
154.
Common sites for Exostosis:
a)
Origin of FDB
b)
Insertion of Achille's tendon
c)
Dorsal aspect of tarsometatarsal joint
d)
Head of fifth MT
e)
Superior aspect of navicular
155.
Your patient is a 36 year old male who c/o pain/stiffness on the bottom of his foot in the morning and when standing for work long periods of time. (+) Windlass. Select appropriate treatment options:
a)
Iontophoresis
b)
US
c)
Calcaneal medial glides
d)
Gastroc Stretching
e)
Taping to promote calcaneal inversion
156.
Your patient is a 56 year old electrician who c/o 3,4 toe pain when squatting for work. (+) Mulder's. What is likely his diagnosis?
a)
Morton's Neuroma
b)
Plantarfasciopathy
c)
Hallux Rigidus
d)
Hallux Valgus
e)
Dude got some mess up toes
157.
Your patient is presenting with pes planus deformity and an abducted forefoot in weight bearing. He is unable to perform a heel rise, but his hindfoot is mobile. What is his diagnosis?
a)
Posterior Tibial Tendon Dysfunction Stage I
b)
Posterior Tibial Tendon Dysfunction Stage II
c)
Posterior Tibial Tendon Dysfunction Stage III
d)
Posterior Tibial Tendon Dysfunction Stage IV
158.
Treatment options for PTTD:
a)
Orthotics to support Tibialis Posterior
b)
Gastroc Stretching
c)
Resisted foot Horizontal adduction with PF
d)
Resisted foot Horizontal abduction with plantarflexion
159.
Precautions for a THA Posterior Approach: No
a)
Adduction
b)
Flexion > 90
c)
Internal Rotation
d)
Extension
e)
External Rotation
160.
Precautions for a THA Anterior approach: No
a)
Adduction
b)
Flexion > 90
c)
Internal Rotation
d)
Extension
e)
External Rotation
161.
Immediately following a THA you should contact the doctor if:
a)
Patient reports a "pop" combined with hip instability
b)
Patient has edema
c)
Patient presents with foot drop
d)
Patient has a leg length difference
e)
Patient presents with surgical site redness and has a fever
162.
Inpatient Therex for a THA:
a)
Glut sets
b)
Ankle Pumps
c)
Ankle Slide
d)
Squats
e)
Short Arc Quads
163.
True or False: In order to prevent pressure ulcers on the heel and to work on knee flexion a pillow should be placed under the patient's knee
a)
true
b)
false
164.
A patient who has had a hamstring autograft repair of their ACL is not permitted to engage in hamstring exercises for 12 weeks s/p
a)
true
b)
false
165.
Sources for ACL Repair grafts:
a)
Patellar Tendon
b)
Semitendinosus tendon
c)
Semimembranosus tendon
d)
Quadriceps Tendon
e)
Biceps Femoris Tendon
166.
Disadvantages of grafts from cadavers for an ACL Repair:
a)
Possibility for infection increases
b)
Remodeling is slower
c)
Smaller Grafts
d)
Longer Surgery time
e)
The ghost of the donor will haunt your knee
167.
Which phase of graft healing has the highest risk of fixation failure?
a)
Early
b)
Proliferation
c)
Ligamentization
168.
True or False. During the first 6 weeks of ACL repair healing strength is lost through the ligament, not gained.
a)
true
b)
false
169.
Your patient who had an ACL Repair and is 6 months into his rehab, feels great, and wants to return to strenuous activities. What should you tell them?
a)
You can return to normal activities
b)
You cannot return to normal activities
c)
The graft should be at full strength now.
d)
The graft has not finished maturing and may still be weak
170.
A Continuous passive motion device has been found to be effective in decreasing pain after an ACL repair
a)
true
b)
false
171.
Effective treatment options for an ACL repair
a)
Prone knee hangs
b)
Cryotherapy
c)
Patellar mobilizations
d)
AROM Focus on gaining full ROM by week 2
e)
WBAT within 1 week
172.
Milestones for ACL Repair by week 2:
a)
Walking with full extension
b)
Reciprocal stair climbing
c)
Walking without crutches
d)
Knee flexion ROM to within 10 of uninvolved side
e)
Quadriceps strength greater than 60% of uninvolved side
173.
Milestones for ACL Repair week 5
a)
Knee flexion ROM to within 10 of uninvolved side
b)
Quadriceps strength greater than 60% of uninvolved side
c)
Use of cycle without difficulty
d)
Straight leg raise without knee extension lag
e)
Normal gait pattern
174.
Milestones for ACL Repair Week 8
a)
Normal gait pattern
b)
Full knee ROM
c)
Quadriceps strength greater than 80% of uninvolved side
d)
Knee effusion trace or less
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