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Worksheets

finals

Total questions: 273

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a wadcutter bullet primarily used for?

a)

Target Practice

b)

home defense

c)

maximum target damage

d)

large game hunting

2.

Which type of wound is bigger?

a)

exit wound

b)

entry wounds

c)

there is no difference

3.

What are "Patent" or visible impressions?

a)

2-D impressions that are visible to the unaided eye

b)

3-D imprints left in a soft substance

c)

Impressions hidden to the eye but can be made visible using development techniques

d)

Impressions that are easily lost and must be documented right away with casting

4.

The smallest indivisible unit of a textile is a...

a)

Fiber

b)

Fabric

c)

Yarn

d)

Thread

5.

This determines whether a person's blood type is positive or negative...

a)

Rh factor

b)

platelets

c)

plasma

d)

white blood cells

6.

Why should you wash your hands thoroughly after lab experiments?

a)

Because there may have been organisms, chemicals, or other harmful substances that contaminated your hands.

b)

Because the teacher said so

c)

Because the MSDS book clearly states washing your hands is necessary after performing a lab experiment.

7.

Most narcotics are:

a)

all of these

b)

physically addicting

c)

depressants to the central nervous system

d)

obtained from opium

8.

Which of the following is the most widely used and abused LEGAL drug?

a)

alcohol

b)

marijuana

c)

heroin

d)

PCP

9.

The shaft of a long bone is called

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

femur

d)

base

10.

What are the duties of a Forensic Anthropologist?

a)

All of these

b)

Collect skeletal remains

c)

Identify skeletal remains

d)

facial reconstruction

11.

The study of insects and related arthropods is known as archaeology.

a)

False

b)

True

12.

Forensic entomology bears light on legal issues involved with death in combination

with the study of insects.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

sometimes

13.

How many different nitrogen bases are there found in DNA?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

5

d)

8

14.

The most familiar of the human blood groups is the

a)

ABO group

b)

ABC group

c)

BCO group

d)

Antigen group

15.

Which of the following is not considered a biological fluid?

a)

All are biological fluids

b)

urine

c)

semen

d)

saliva

16.

Hair is what type of evidence?

a)

Class

b)

Individual

c)

unknown

d)

all of the above

17.

DNA is never present on hair

a)

false

b)

true

18.

Bifurcations, trifurcations, dots, ending ridges, etc are all known as?

a)

Minutiae

b)

Fingerprints

c)

Ridges

d)

Hills

19.

Which of the following is not a type of fingerprint pattern?

a)

Delta

b)

Loop

c)

whorl

d)

arch

20.

Evidence should be collected and an evidence label filled out only if it is _________________ first.

a)

photographed

b)

brushed off

c)

washed

d)

bagged

21.

Locard's exchange principle implies:

a)

contact of a person or crime scene leaves evidence on both

b)

blood splatters can be used to identify blood type

c)

fibers cannot be transferred between people

d)

soil samples are impossible to trace

22.

The study of humans is called

a)

Anthropology

b)

Archaeology

c)

biology

d)

humanology

23.

Which blood cells is the marrow responsible for?

a)

All of these

b)

Red blood cells

c)

White blood cells

d)

platelets

24.

Are bones living tissues?

a)

Yes

b)

no

25.

The shaft of a long bone is called

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

femur

d)

base

26.

The ends of a long bone are called

a)

epiphysis

b)

diaphysis

c)

femur

d)

base

27.

Forensic Anthropology involves civil and criminal identification.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

The interior of which bones contains the marrow which produces red blood cells.

a)

Long

b)

short

c)

all

d)

none

29.

Cows and horses chew and grind grasses due to their flat teeth. They are called

a)

herbivores

b)

omnivores

c)

carnivores

d)

all of these

30.

What does PMI stand for

a)

Postmortem Interval

b)

pre death interval

c)

possible motive indicators

d)

premeditated indicies

31.

What is the angle for the greater sciatic notch for the male?

a)

less than 90 degrees

b)

greater than 90 degrees

c)

not used to determine gender

d)

exactly 90 degrees

32.

What is the angle of the greater sciatic notch for females?

a)

Greater than 90 degrees

b)

less than 90 degrees

c)

exactly 90 degrees

d)

cannot determine gender

33.

Which bone(s) is most helpful to determine gender?

a)

pelvis and skull

b)

pelvis

c)

skull

d)

femur

34.

Which bone(s) is most helpful to determine height?

a)

Ulna and femur

b)

Ulna

c)

Femur

d)

phlanges

35.

The age of the victim needs to be determined. How would this

be done?

a)

All are possible ways to determine age at the time of

death.

b)

The ends of the sternal ribs.

c)

The age could be determined by x-ray analysis of the metaphysis of

the long bones.

d)

The skull sutures could be used to determine an approximate age.

36.

What is the first questions that investigators must determine about bone remains?

a)

Are these bones human?

b)

Is this the missing student?

c)

How old was the victim?

d)

How long have the bones been there?

37.

What bone is A?

a)

Cranium

b)

femur

c)

clavical

d)

scapula

38.

What bone is L?

a)

pelvis

b)

sciatica

c)

femur

d)

clavical

39.

What bone is O?

a)

Humerus

b)

Ulna

c)

radius

d)

femur

40.

The pelvis in the picture is most likely

a)

male

b)

female

41.

Which of the following describes a purpose of bones?

a)

To provide the framework for our bodies.

b)

They anchor our muscles to allow movement.

c)

They protect our organs.

d)

all of these are correct

42.

Which bone is colored red?

a)

radius

b)

femur

c)

humerus

d)

clavical

43.

Formulas for height change depending on age, race and gender

a)

True

b)

False

44.

What two bones make up our lower leg?

a)

ulna, radius

b)

femur, phlange

c)

mandible, sagital

d)

tibia, fibula

45.

Which of these is a long bone?

a)

scapula

b)

phlanges

c)

femur

d)

sternum

46.

How many bones are in the adult human body?

a)

450

b)

206

c)

102

d)

4000

47.

The analysis of differences in skeletal remains to determine identity is

a)

Forensic Toxicology

b)

Forensic Pathology

c)

Forensic Entomology

d)

Forensic Anthropology

48.
One of the  ways to determine the race using bones is by examining the :
a)
the pelvis
b)
the leg bones
c)
skull
d)
the occipital bump
49.

Identify this bone (arrow).

a)

vertebrae

b)

tibia

c)

pelvis

d)

femur

50.

Phalanges are:

a)

finger bones

b)

arm bones

c)

leg bones

d)

spinal bones

51.

Pelvis narrow, protuberance on occipital bone, sloping forehead.

a)

human male

b)

human female

c)

animal

52.
The arm and leg bones can be used to determine forensic height
a)
true
b)
false
53.

What do we want to learn from a skeleton?

a)

age, weight, hair color, race

b)

age, stature, gender, hair color

c)

weight, stature, hair color, gender

d)

age, race, gender, stature

54.

Forensic Anthropologists study _________

a)

bones

b)

blood

c)

missing persons

d)

ancient societies

55.

Round eye orbits, subpubic angle of 103 degrees, rectangular-shaped pubis, smooth skull.

a)

male

b)

female

c)

other

56.
True or False: Long hair MUST be tied back during a laboratory investigation.
a)
True
b)
False
57.
True or False: The wearing of flip flops and other open toed shoes are acceptable during a laboratory investigation during the hot summer months.
a)
True
b)
False
58.
If you spill or break something during an experiment, what is the FIRST thing you should do?
a)
Tell the teacher.
b)
Clean it up. 
c)
Cover it with a paper towel.
d)
Leave it for someone else.
59.
The lab equipment seen in the image should be worn during a lab investigation when...
a)
using glassware.
b)
using chemicals.
c)
using heat/fire.
d)
using any of the above.
60.
True or False: If you see something dangerous taking place during a lab,you should immediately tell the teacher.
a)
True
b)
False
61.
Which of the following should NOT be worn during a lab investigation?
a)
Flip flops
b)
Loose, long hair
c)
Dangling jewelry
d)
All of the above
62.
To be read accurately, one must place a graduated cylinder on a flat surface and measure at the bottom of the _______________ curve.
a)
Centrifugal
b)
Capillary
c)
Meniscus
d)
Infinity
63.
Identify the piece of lab equipment seen in the image.
a)
Microviewer
b)
Dissecting Scope
c)
Microscope
d)
Electron Imager
64.

If you do not understand a direction or part of a lab procedure, you should:

a)

Ask the teacher before proceeding

b)

Go ahead and try to figure it out and hope for the best

c)

Ask your neighbor

d)

Walk out of the lab

65.

____________________is the scientific reasoning when we move from specific observations to broader generalizations and theories.

a)

inductive reasoning

b)

deductive reasoning

c)

qualitative

d)

quantitative

66.

The ______________________is the normal condition for the subject being tested in an experiment.

a)

control

b)

variable

c)

hypothesis

d)

theory

67.

___________________observations are written in numerical form with a unit.

a)

quantitative

b)

qualitative

c)

natural

d)

hypothetical

68.

__________________________reasoning works from general to very specific, gradually narrowing down your theory.

a)

deductive

b)

inductive

c)

hypothesis

d)

normal

69.

_______________________observations are written in descriptive form.

a)

qualitative

b)

quantitative

c)

hypothetical

d)

theoretical

70.
Which of the following would external ballistics be most likely to study?
a)
bullet trajectory
b)
striation markings
c)
extractor and ejector markings
d)
powder tattoo patterns
71.
What is a wadcutter bullet primarily used for?
a)
home defense
b)
target practice
c)
maximum target damage
d)
large game hunting
72.
What is the difference between a bullet and a cartridge?
a)
the bullet is the projectile, while the cartridge holds the bullet, powder, and primer
b)
the cartridge is the projectile, while the bullet holds the cartridge, powder, and primer
c)
they are the same thing
d)
a bullet is larger and used more frequently than a cartridge
73.
What is the primary determining factor of the caliber of a bullet?
a)
weight
b)
length
c)
diameter
d)
mass
74.
Where are lands and grooves found?
a)
inside the barrel of a firearm
b)
negative impressions on a bullet
c)
both of these places
d)
neither of these places
75.
Where are extractor and ejector marks found?
a)
on the bullet
b)
on the cartridge
c)
 both of these places
d)
neither of these places
76.
What tool is used to compare striations of fired bullets?
a)
compound microscope
b)
comparison microscope
c)
scanning electron microscope
d)
transmission electron microscope
77.
Which of these databases is used by firearms investigators?
a)
IBIS
b)
AFIS
c)
CODIS
d)
NCIC
78.

How far was the shooter from the target if there is a powder tattoo (stippling) around the wound?

a)

0-3 inches

b)

12-18 inches

c)

25-36 inches

d)

more than 3 feet

79.
Which of the following will cause the highest degree of damage at an entry site?
a)
high velocity bullet
b)
low velocity bullet
c)
low caliber bullet
d)
small bullet round
80.
What is the difference between an entry and exit wound?
a)
entry wounds are smaller than exit wounds
b)
exit wounds are smaller than entry wounds
c)
exit wounds pull fibers into the body, entry wounds do not
d)
an exit wound can have an abrasion ring
81.

Name the object in red.

a)

powder

b)

casing

c)

propellant

d)

cartridge

82.

Name the area marked red.

a)

projectile

b)

casing

c)

propellant

d)

bullet

83.

name the area in red

a)

cartridge

b)

projectile

c)

propellant

d)

powder

84.
a)

cartridge case

b)

projectile

c)

propellant

d)

fuse

85.

name the area in red

a)

projectile

b)

bullet

c)

propellant

d)

primer

86.

Name the area in red

a)

Trigger

b)

safety

c)

barrel

d)

hammer

87.

name the area in red

a)

hammer

b)

trigger

c)

safety

d)

barrel

88.

name the area in red

a)

trigger

b)

barrel

c)

clip

d)

safety

89.

name the area in red

a)

barrel

b)

trigger

c)

safety

d)

hammer

90.

name the area in red

a)

trigger

b)

barrel

c)

hammer

d)

extractor

91.
Long strings that make up synthetic fibers are called...
a)
Monomers
b)
Macromolecules
c)
Polymers
d)
Threads
92.
A fiber made from goat hair is called...
a)
Cashmere
b)
Sisal
c)
Coir
d)
Angora
93.
A fiber made from rabbit hair is called...
a)
Cashmere
b)
Sisal
c)
Silk
d)
Angora
94.
A fiber with extreme elastic properties is...
a)
Rayon
b)
Spandex
c)
Polyester
d)
Acrylic
95.
Scientists use this test to analyze the dyes in fabric evidence:
a)
Stain test
b)
Solvent test
c)
Infrared Spectroscopy
d)
Chromatography
96.
Plant fibers are made of what material?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Protein
c)
Nucleic Acid
d)
Lipid
97.
These fibers can deteriorate in bright sun.
a)
Synthetic
b)
Natural
98.
In a burn test, these fibers will often shrink back away from the flame.
a)
Synthetic
b)
Natural
99.
Fibers are considered what kind of evidence? 
a)
Individual
b)
Class
c)
Direct
d)
Indirect
100.

What is suspect 2's Blood Type?

a)

A-

b)

B-

c)

A+

d)

B+

101.
Which test is used to detect invisible blood stains?
a)
Kastle-Meyer
b)
Luminol
c)
Precipitin
d)
Huminal
102.
Blood Typing is considered what type of evidence?
a)
Indiviual
b)
Class
c)
Trace
d)
Physical
103.

Mackenzie has blood type B+, she can receive blood from which blood donors?

a)

B+, B-, O+, O-

b)

B+, A-, O+, O-

c)

B+

d)

O-

104.
What antigens are present in a person with type B- blood?
a)
B, only
b)
B and Rh
c)
A and Rh
d)
A, only
105.

Someone with Type A blood has...

a)

A antigens

b)

A antibodies

c)

B antigens

d)

A & B antigens

106.

This determines whether a person's blood type is positive or negative...

a)

Rh factor

b)

platelets

c)

D antibodies

d)

plasma

107.

Which blood type is known as the universal recipient? (can receive all types)

a)

AB+

b)

AB-

c)

O+

d)

O-

108.

In the Kastle-Meyer presumptive blood test, which color indicates that blood is present?

a)

Pink

b)

Yellow

109.
What happens when blood agglutinates in response to an anti-body?
a)
It becomes clear
b)
It clumps
c)
It turns blue
d)
It turns yellow
110.

Red blood cells are also called?

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Platelets

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Lymphocytes

111.

White blood cells are also called?

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Lymphocytes

112.

Help clot blood

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Lymphocytes

113.
The drop shown above would have more than likely been dropped from an angle of 
a)
90
b)
50
c)
30
d)
10
114.
The following indicates:
a)
cast off
b)
walking drip
c)
splash
d)
medium velocity impact 
115.
The following drops can tell you:
a)
direction 
b)
low impact angle
c)
tails
d)
all of these
116.
What pattern of blood spatter is this?
a)
arterial gushes
b)
splash
c)
smear
d)
pool
117.
The lines in the picture are referred to as lines of ___.
a)
convergence
b)
agreement
c)
tangents
d)
credit
118.
Based upon this picture, what test was done to determine whether or not a stain was blood (the picture shows a positive and negative test). 
a)
Kastle-Meyer presumptive blood test
b)
Leukomalachite green presumptive blood test
c)
Luminol presumptive blood test
119.
What would cause medium velocity blood spatter?
a)
Baseball bat
b)
Human hand
c)
Hand grenade
d)
Gunshot
120.
What is the original drop of blood that casts or gives off a satellite or wave called?
a)
Parent Drop
b)
Void
c)
Satellite drop
d)
Spine
121.
Which of the following CANNOT be determined from blood spatter?
a)
Exact Weapon Used
b)
Manner of Death
c)
Velocity
d)
Area of Origin
122.
What bloodstain pattern is created when blood is released or thrown from a blood-bearing object?
a)
Cast-Off
b)
Walking Drip
c)
Medium Velocity
d)
Void
123.
What type of spatter creates the largest blood droplets?
a)
Low velocity impact
b)
Medium velocity impact
c)
High velocity impact
124.
What type of blood-spatter creates the smallest blood drops?
a)
Low velocity impact
b)
Medium velocity impact
c)
High velocity impact
125.

Field sobriety tests that can be employed to ascertain the degree of an individual’s alcohol impairment normally do not include the following:

a)

Gas Chromatography

b)

Horizontal gaze nystagmus

c)

Portable, roadside breath tester

d)

Walk and turn

126.

The use of which drug will NOT lead to physical dependence?

a)

cocaine

b)

barbituates

c)

alcohol

d)

heroin

127.

Most narcotics are:

a)

all of these

b)

physically addicting

c)

depressants to the central nervous system

d)

obtained from opium

128.

Which of the following is NOT derived from opium?

a)

marijuana

b)

heroin

c)

codeine

d)

morphine

129.

What is the most widely used ILLEGAL drug in the United States today?

a)

marijuana

b)

cocaine

c)

alcohol

d)

heroin

130.

Which drug is often incorrectly classified as a narcotic?

a)

maijuana

b)

morphine

c)

opium

d)

codeine

131.

Which part of cannabis contains the LEAST amount of THC?

a)

seeds

b)

flower

c)

leaf

d)

bud

132.

Marijuana has potential use in which medical application?

a)

all of these

b)

useful as a muscle relaxant

c)

reduction of excessive eye pressure in glaucoma

d)

lessening of nausea caused by anticancer drugs

133.

The administration of which drug eliminates an addict's desire for heroin?

a)

methadone

b)

oxycontin

c)

morphine

d)

cocaine

134.

Which of the following is the most widely used and abused legal drug?

a)

alcohol

b)

marijuana

c)

heroin

d)

PCP

135.

Barbiturates act to:

a)

all of these

b)

suppress central nervous system functions

c)

produce sleep

d)

create a feeling of well-being

136.

The sniffing of volatile solvents (like glue) can cause:

a)

all of these

b)

feelings of exhilaration and euphoria

c)

slurred speech and double vision

d)

liver, heart and brain damage

137.

Methamphetamine is a:

a)

stimulant

b)

deppressant

c)

hallucinogen

d)

tranquilizer

138.

Cocaine is a(n):

a)

stimulant

b)

depressant

c)

hallucinogen

d)

opiate

139.

The most difficult drug addiction to overcome is that of:

a)

crack cocaine

b)

alcohol

c)

heroin

d)

caffeine

140.

What is true about the "club drug" Rohypnol?

a)

all of these

b)

it can cause drowsiness, dizziness and loss of consciousness

c)

it is odorless, colorless and tasteless

d)

it results in loss of memory of what happened in the hours after ingestion

141.

The Controlled Substance Act established five schedules of classification for substances based on a drug's:

a)

all of these

b)

potential for psycological dependence

c)

potential for abuse

d)

potential for physical dependence

142.

The Marquis Reagent was used on drug evidence and it turned purple. The drug being tested could be:

a)

heroin

b)

cocaine

c)

methadone

d)

all of these

143.

The Dillie-Koppanyi reagent is useful in screening for:

a)

barbituates

b)

marijuana

c)

opiates

d)

all of these

144.

Duquenois-Levine solutions were used on a sample and the chloroform layer turned purple. This suggests that the tested substance is:

a)

marijuana

b)

cocaine

c)

heroin

d)

valium

145.

The Van Urk reagent was used to test a sample and it turned bluish-purple. This indicates the presence of:

a)

LSD

b)

PCP

c)

GHB

d)

THC

146.

Scott Test solutions can indicate the presence of:

a)

cocaine

b)

heroine

c)

marijuana

d)

librium

147.

Which type of test would logically be used first by the drug analyst?

a)

color

b)

taste

c)

TLC

d)

gas chromatography

148.

Marijuana is considered to be a:

a)

hallucinogen

b)

depressant

c)

stimulant

d)

narcotic

149.

Drugs deemed to have the highest potential for abuse and having a current medical use are listed in which schedule of the Controlled Substances Act?

a)

II

b)

V

c)

IV

d)

I

150.

Heroin is a chemical derivative of:

a)

morphine

b)

codeine

c)

mathadone

d)

barbituates

151.

The study of insects and related arthropods is known as archaeology.

a)

Fale

b)

True

152.

Forensic entomology bears light on legal issues involved with death in combination

with the study of insects.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

sometimes

153.

The maggots on a corpse can be used to run toxicological tests.

a)

true

b)

false

154.

How long is the life cycle of a blowfly?

a)

Appx 2 weeks

b)

7 days

c)

2 days

d)

1 week

155.

Fresh corpses are generally inhabited by

a)

flys

b)

mites

c)

beetles

d)

birds

156.

Maggots are the primary arthropod in the first three phases of corpse

decomposition.

a)

True

b)

False

157.

Drugs such as cocaine taken prior to death may slow down the metabolism of

maggots and cause decreased growth rates.

a)

False

b)

true

158.

Blowflies normally lay their eggs on a human corpse in the

a)

nose

b)

mouth

c)

open wounds

d)

All of the above3

159.

The number of stages of the fly life cycle is:

a)

4

b)

6

c)

3

d)

7

160.

The fixed pooling of blood in a dead body is known as

a)

Livor Mortis

b)

Rigor Mortis

c)

Algor Mortis

d)

Liver and Rigor Mortis

161.

In the above diagram, letter B is the

a)

maggot

b)

pupa

c)

adult

d)

beetle larva

162.

PMI is determined using many factors. Which of the following factors would delay flies

from laying eggs on the body?

a)

All are correct

b)

Rain

c)

wind

d)

if the body is wrapped tightly in a blanket

163.

The position of the body after death can be determined by

a)

Livor Mortis

b)

Rigor Mortis

c)

Algor Mortis

d)

All are correct

164.

Rigor Mortis is usually complete within

a)

6-12 hours

b)

36 hours

c)

1-2 hours

d)

18 hours

165.

A coroner may not be required to be a medical doctor.

a)

True

b)

False

166.

Gun shot entrance and exit wounds look alike making it difficult to determine the direction

the victim was facing.

a)

False

b)

True

167.

Which of the following is a possible manner of death?

a)

Suicide

b)

heart attack

c)

gun shot to the chest

d)

stroke

168.

The type of gunshot wound that shows blackening and swelling from the release of hot

gases and causes lacerations in a star pattern is

a)

contact

b)

distant

c)

intermediate

d)

all are correct

169.

Alcohol can increase a person’s likely hood of dying of hypothermia due to

a)

dilated blood vessels

b)

liver failure

c)

altered state of mind

d)

body temp becoming unregulated

170.

How many different nitrogen bases are there found in DNA?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

5

d)

8

171.

Which of these DNA fragments for this electrophoresis sample is common to both the victim and suspect 1?

a)

B

b)

D

c)

E

d)

C

172.

Which of these DNA fragments for this electrophoresis sample is common to both the victim and suspect 2?

a)

C

b)

D

c)

E

d)

A

173.

Which suspect is more likely to have committed the crime?

a)

Suspect 1

b)

Suspect 2

174.

Which suspects DNA matches the felons DNA at the crime scene?

a)

Suspect 1

b)

Suspect 2

c)

Suspect 3

d)

Keep looking, none of them match

175.

DNA has a _______________ charge.

a)

negative

b)

positive

c)

equal

176.

According to the rules of base pairing between complementary strands of DNA

a)

A pairs with C; and G pairs with T

b)

A pairs with C; and G pairs with U

c)

A pairs with G; and C pairs with T

d)

A pairs with T; and C pairs with G

177.

The base pairs that hold together the complementary strands of DNA are linked together by

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

nitrogenous bases

c)

phosphates

d)

enzymes

178.

Different sized DNA fragments are then separated by size using

a)

Gel Electrophoresis

b)

Hybridization

c)

probe molecules

d)

restriction enzymes

179.

A 32 year old female was found murdered in the hallway of the Forney High School building. Investigators

collected many samples of evidence including blood found on a knife near the body and hair

from the victim's shirt. Police had two suspects due to eyewitness accounts. Both suspects,

the victim and the evidence were analyzed using DNA fingerprinting.


Who does the blood evidence found at the crime scene most likely belong to?

a)

Suspect 1

b)

Suspect 2

c)

Victim

d)

Both the supect 1 and the victim

180.

A 32 year old female was found murdered in the hallway of the Forney High School Building. Investigators

collected many samples of evidence including blood found on a knife near the body and hair

from the victim's shirt. Police had two suspects due to eyewitness accounts. Both suspects,

the victim and the evidence were analyzed using DNA fingerprinting.


Who does the hair evidence at the crime scene most likely belong to?

a)

Suspect 1

b)

Suspect 2

c)

The victim

d)

no match

181.

Type of DNA that varies most among individuals

a)

non coding DNA

b)

coding DNA

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

hydrogen bonds

182.

DNA must be extracted from cells to use in DNA analysis. DNA is found in the _________ of the cell and 2 membranes are broken down to extract DNA.

a)

nucleus

b)

plasma

c)

cytoplasm

d)

reticulum

183.

DNA amplification is accomplished by the

a)

polymerase chain reaction

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

radioactive probes

d)

Southern Blot

184.

PCR will work on

a)

very small amounts of DNA

b)

toothbrush DNA

c)

denatured DNA

d)

All of the choices listed

185.

Mitochondrial DNA

a)

is used to trace maternal lineage (mother's side)

b)

is inherited from the father

c)

contains all of the genetic information for an individual

d)

is found in the nucleus

186.

What % of the human genome is encoded genes?

a)

.1%

b)

100%

c)

99.9%

d)

50%

187.

In the nucleus of cells of humans there are _____ chromosomes.

a)

46 - 23 from mom, 23 from dad

b)

23 - all from mom

c)

128 - 64 from mom, 64 from dad

d)

92 - a mix of mom and dad

188.

Mitochondrial DNA makes up ___% of the total DNA in the body.

a)

1

b)

50

c)

undetermined

d)

3

189.

CODIS is the abbreviation for the

a)

common DNA index system

b)

combined DNA index system

c)

coding DNA index system

d)

criminal DNA index system

190.

In gel electrophoresis DNA molecules migrate from _____ to _____ ends of the gel.

a)

negative to positive

b)

acidic to basic

c)

long to short

d)

positive to negative

191.

Which is NOT a component of a nucleotide?

a)

double helix

b)

phosphorus containing group

c)

sugar

d)

nitrogenous base

192.

Mom is a Muggle (Mm) and Dad is also a Muggle (Mm). What is the percentage that their child will be born with wizarding abilities (mm)?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

193.

Mom has blue eyes (bb) and dad has blue eyes (bb). What is the percentage that their child will have brown eyes?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

0%

d)

75%

194.

Serology is defined as the examination of body parts.

a)

False

b)

True

195.

DNA is rarely used to identify suspects or innocent victims.

a)

False

b)

True

196.

The liquid portion of blood is known as plasma.

a)

True

b)

False

197.

A white blood cell is known as an erythrocyte.

a)

False

b)

True

198.

A red blood cell is known as a thrombocyte.

a)

False

b)

True

199.

Luminol undergoes oxidation in the presence of the iron in blood.

a)

True

b)

False

200.

Cast off bloodstains occur when blood patterns are produced from the use of a blood instrument.

a)

True

b)

False

201.

The type of blood which contains B antigens is Type A.

a)

False

b)

True

202.

A positive presumptive Kastel-Myer test for the presence of blood is bright blue.

a)

False

b)

True

203.

After a positive presumptive test for blood, no further testing of the blood is needed.

a)

False

b)

True

204.

Unfortunately, there is no way to test blood to determine the species from which it originated.

a)

False

b)

True

205.

Type type of blood which has no antigens is type O.

a)

True

b)

False

206.

Which of the following is not considered a biological fluid?

a)

All are biological fluids

b)

urine

c)

semen

d)

saliva

207.

The type of bloodstain pattern that arises from a cut arter gushing blood is known as

a)

projected

b)

passive

c)

altered

d)

transfer

208.

The type of bloodstain that arises from a baseball bat being repeatedly used on a victim is known as

a)

blunt force (impact) spatter

b)

transfer

c)

cast off

d)

void

209.

The component of blood that is part of our immune system and destroys pathogens are

a)

leukocytes

b)

erythrocytes

c)

thrombocytes

d)

plasma

210.

The type of bloodstain pattern that results from blood moving only under the influence of gravity is known as

a)

passive

b)

spatter

c)

altered

d)

all of the above

211.

If one parent has Type A blood and the other has Type A blood, what would their genotypes be if they had a child with type O?

a)

AO and AO

b)

AA and AO

c)

AO and OO

d)

AA and AA

212.

The main difference between impact spatter due to blunt force and impact spatter due to gunshot is the

a)

size of the bloodstains

b)

angle of impact

c)

evidence of foreign material

d)

bubbles in the bloodstain

213.

Which letter of the diagram is is the satellite spatter?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

214.

Which letter in the diagram is the spine?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

B

215.

Which letter in the diagram is the parent drop?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

216.

A woman with B type blood is claiming that a man with type AB blood is the father of her child, who is also type AB. Could this man be the father? If yes, what percentage could the parents have an AB child?

a)

Yes, 38% AB

b)

Yes, 50% AB

c)

Not the father, 0% AB

d)

Yes, 62% AB

217.

The common point on a two dimensional surface, over which the directionality of several blood drops can be retraced is called

a)

area or point of convergence

b)

source site

c)

impact site

d)

origin

218.

The two arteries that deal with the arterial spray blood spatter are

a)

carotid and femoral

b)

jugular and brachial

c)

aortic and plueral

d)

cranial and humeral

219.

Luminol undergoes oxidation in the presence of ________ in blood.

a)

heme

b)

oxygen

c)

carbs

d)

all of the above

220.

Hair is what type of evidence?

a)

Class

b)

Individual

c)

unknown

d)

all of the above

221.

DNA is never present on hair

a)

False

b)

True

222.

Is it possible to determine what body part hair evidence came from?

a)

yes

b)

no

223.

Can race origin be determined by hair?

a)

Yes

b)

no

224.

Can we tell if a hair was forcibly removed?

a)

Yes

b)

no

225.

Is it possible to determine the species of hair evidence without DNA?

a)

Yes

b)

no

226.

What are the tree stages of hair growth in order from start to end?

a)

Anagen, telogen, and catagen

b)

anagen, catagen, and telogen

c)

telogen, catagen, and anagen

d)

catagen, telogen, and anagen

227.

Which number in the diagram represents the cuticle?

a)

A

b)

D

c)

B

d)

F

228.

Which number in the diagram represents the medulla?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

B

d)

D

229.

Which number in the diagram represents the cortex?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

d)

D

230.

What medullary pattern is represented in the diagram?

a)

Fragmented

b)

interupted

c)

continuous

d)

not visible

231.

The growth cycle of human hair ranges from?

a)

2 to 6 years

b)

1 to 2 years

c)

3 to 6 months

d)

20 years

232.

What type of medulla pattern is shown here?

a)

continuous

b)

fragmented

c)

stacked

d)

interupted

233.

What type of medulla pattern is shown here?

a)

interrupted

b)

fragmented

c)

stacked

d)

not visible

234.

What are the three cuticle patterns?

a)

Coronal, spinous, imbricate

b)

flowery, circular, triangular

c)

square, round, diamond

235.

When processing hair found at a crime scene, we must determine if the origin is:

a)

human or animal

b)

human or reptile

c)

reptile or mammal

d)

human or alien

236.

Which phase of hair grown cycle does the hair fall out naturally?

a)

Telogen

b)

anagen

c)

catagen

d)

none of the above

237.

What types of DNA can be found on the hair?

a)

Mitochondrial

b)

nuclear

c)

Both mitochondrial and nuclear

d)

none

238.

What does the Latin word "forensis" mean?

a)

Knowing

b)

forum

c)

crime

d)

probability

239.

Once stopped by the police for suspicion of DUI, the officer will give this test?

a)

FST - Field Sobriety Test

b)

Forensic

c)

BAC - Blood Alcohol Content

d)

CODIS

240.

This agency's primary job is to enforce the provisions of the Controlled Substances Act as they pertain to the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of legally and illegally produced controlled substances.

a)

DEA - Drug Enforcement Agency

b)

ATF - Alcohol Tobacco and Firearms

c)

DOA - Dead on Arrival

d)

OSHA

241.

When a suspect dies in custody, the code given the investigation would be?

a)

ICD - In custody death

b)

DUI - Driving while intoxicated

c)

DOA - Dead on Arrival

d)

DRT - Dead Right There

242.

A medical examiner will usually determine the _________based on their observations and information gathered at the scene.

a)

DNA - Deoxyribonucleic Acid

b)

DOA - Dead on Arrival

c)

TOD - Time of Death

d)

DOJ - Department of Justice

243.

When a person is convicted of a DUI, the police will conduct tests to determine the ________At the time of arrest.

a)

BP - Blood pressure

b)

BAC - Blood Alcohol Content

c)

BAR - Test for Law School

d)

AWOL - Absent without leave

244.

The forensic scientist has many duties, which of these is NOT a job for a forensic sceintist?

a)

Question a suspect

b)

Give evidence in court

c)

sign a cause of death document

d)

search for evidence

245.

Forensics has many interdisciplinary Relationships. Which of the following would probably not be part of forensics?

a)

Literature

b)

entomology

c)

botony

d)

computer science

246.

A law suit filed by a person against a corporation is under which jurisdiction?

a)

Civil law

b)

criminal law

c)

corporate law

d)

all of the above

247.

The type of penalty for guilty party in a criminal case can be:

a)

incarceration

b)

fines (money)

c)

execution

d)

all of the above

248.

the type of penalty for a guilty party in civil case can be:

a)

fines (money)

b)

execution

c)

incarceration

d)

all of the above

249.

The two categories of crimes are:

a)

misdemeanors

b)

domestic

c)

felonies

d)

Both A and C

250.

The latin word "forensis" means

a)

Forensics

b)

Forum

c)

force

d)

court

251.

When DNA evidence is collected it can be compared to other DNA evidence using:

a)

CODIS

b)

AFIS

c)

IBIS

d)

MSDS

252.

Father of the FBI is:

a)

J. Edgar Hoover

b)

Walter McCrone

c)

Albert Osborn

d)

Leone Lattes

253.

What does DEA stand for?

a)

Drug Enforcement Agency

b)

Dexterious Eating Alien

c)

Doctor Edward Alfonse

d)

Determining Each Astroid

254.

What does FST stand for?

a)

Field Sobriety Test

b)

Falling sometimes

c)

Frankenstein Sings Tenor

d)

Football Stand Test

255.

What does ICD mean?

a)

In Custody Death

b)

In Crazy Dreams

c)

Incompetent Dumb Droids

d)

In Class Drills

256.

What does TOD stand for?

a)

Time of Death

b)

Tears of doom

c)

Terrible oppressive defense

d)

Tardy or detention

257.

Forensic Science covers which two types of law?

a)

civil and criminal

b)

FBI and Interpol

c)

Food and Drug

d)

All of the above

258.

The application of science to the criminal and civil laws that are enforced by police agencies in a criminal justice system.

a)

Forensic Science

b)

Corporate law

c)

Ethics

d)

criminal justice

259.

Forensic science is the application of science to what field?

a)

criminal justice

b)

department of education

c)

law

d)

none of the above

260.

Which of the following is the best definition of forensic science?

a)

The science of studying dead people

b)

The application of science to medicine

c)

The application of science to the law

d)

The study of poisons

261.

Which crime lab unit is responsible for examining body fluids and organs for the presence of drugs and poisons?

a)

photography

b)

toxicology

c)

toolmarks

d)

evidence collection

262.

Which unit of the modern crime lab is responsible for studying gunshot residues and toolmark impressions?

a)

DNA

b)

Firearms

c)

Fingerprint

d)

Physical science

263.

Which of the following is an example of what forensic scientists do?

a)

Examine evidence

b)

Arrest suspects

c)

Interrogate witnesses

d)

Give press conferences to the media

264.

What is another name for Forensic Science?

a)

Polygraph

b)

DNA Analysis

c)

Criminalistics

d)

Anthropology

265.

Type of forensics that uses insects to determine time and location of death.

a)

Odontology

b)

Serology

c)

Anthropology

d)

Entomology

266.

Which of the following looks at human behavior and legal proceedings in civil and criminal cases?

a)

forensic anthropometry

b)

forensic odontology

c)

forensic anthropology

d)

forensic psychiatry

267.

The examination of a bite mark would employ the use of

a)

forensic entomology

b)

forensic odontology

c)

forensic toxicology

d)

forensic serology

268.

Jaywalking is a type of

a)

misdemeanor

b)

felony

c)

infraction

269.

A defendant is informed of the charges against him/her and enters a plea during a

a)

preliminary hearing

b)

arraignment

c)

plea barganing

d)

grand jury

270.

Which of the following is a plea that a defendant can enter?

a)

guilty

b)

not guilty

c)

no contest

d)

All of these

271.

All evidence in a court must

a)

be legally obtained

b)

have a chain of custody

c)

have a warrant attached

d)

be approved by the defendant

272.

An example of civil law or public law is a hearing to discuss

a)

child custody

b)

a misdemeanor

c)

a felony

d)

a speeding ticket

273.

There are no exceptions in giving Miranda Rights to suspects.

a)

True

b)

False

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9th - 12th Grade