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WorksheetsKEP Review-Microbiology and Public Health
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 38mins
1. The following are diseases caused by Clostridium perfringens EXCEPT:
A. Gas gangrene
B. Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
C. Blackleg
D. Necrotic Enteritis
E. NOTA
2. The following statements is/are true regarding exotoxins EXCEPT:
A. Protein
B. From gram-positive bacteria only
C. Easily destroyed at 60-80 C
D. Lethal dose is small
E. NOTA
3. Bacillus of Green Pus refers to which organisms?
A. Brucella
B. Salmonella
C. Pasteurella
D. Pseudomonas
E. NOTA
Greasy Pig Disease is also known as:
A. Swine Erysipelas
B. Swine Enzootic Pneumonia
C. Exudative Epidermitis
D. Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome
E. NOTA
Dark-field microscopy is required to demonstrate which of the following microorganisms:
A. Coccus
B. Bacillus
C. Spirochetes
D. Both A & B
E. NOTA
The following are coliforms EXCEPT:
A.Enterobacter
B. Escherichia
C. Klebsiella
D. Proteus
E. NOTA
The serotype of Leptospira maintained in dogs:
A. L. interrogans
B. L. icterohemorrhagiae
C. L. hardjo
D. L. canicola
E. L. pomona
8. Which of the following groups of E. coli causing diarrhea are characterized by production of verotoxins?
A. EPEC
B. EIEC
C. AEEC
D. EHEC
E. NOTA
9. It refers to fungi with no known sexual state:
A. Zygomycota
B. Ascomycota
C. Basidiomycota
D. Deuteromycota
E. Mycophycota
10. In case of an epizootic anthrax in a farm the following can be done EXCEPT:
A. Affected farms should be quarantined for a period extending 2 weeks past the last death from anthrax
B. Perform necropsy of suspected cases
C. Decontamination of premises
D. Carcasses of animals that died of anthrax be completely burned or buried deeply
E. NOTA
11. K88 of E. coli refers to which antigen?
A. capsular
B. fimbrial
C. somatic
D. flagellar
E. It is not an antigen
12. Test used to detect presence of B. anthracis in hides, skin and pelt:
A. mallein test
B. Ascoli test
C. String of Pearl test
D. complement fixation test
E. NOTA
13. The causative agent of Post Weaning Mortality Syndrome (PWMS) in pigs is:
A. Calicivirus
B. Circovirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Coronavirus
E. Rotavirus
14. The largest and most complex of all the viruses:
A. Circovirus
B. Picornavirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Poxvirus
E. Rhabdovirus
15. Neuraminidase and Hemagglutinin are spike projections of this virus:
A. Togavirus
B. Influenza virus
C. Hantavirus
D. Flavivirus
E. Filovirus
16. Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another via a bacteriophage is called:
A. Conjugation
B. Transfection
C. Transduction
D. Transformation
E. Replications
17. The mechanism that best explains the phenomenon of antigenic drift in a virus family is:
A. migration of mRNA
B. deactivation of single DNA strands
C. point mutations
D. reassortment of genomic segments
E. Interference of virus growth by interferon
18. Which species is resistant to infection (inoculation) with foot and mouth disease virus?
A. pigs
B. sheep
C. water buffalo
D. horses
E. guinea pigs
19. Concerning porcine parvovirus, which statement is least accurate?
A. It causes abortions in late pregnancy
B. It may cause stillbirths and mummified fetuses
C. Transplacental infection occurs
D. Boars may have subclinical genital infection
E. The virus can persist in the environment for a long period
20. Concerning infectious tracheobronchitis in dogs, which statement is LEAST accurate?
A. Parainfluenza virus type 2 may be involved
B. It is also known as kennel cough
C. Canine adenovirus type 2 is involved
D. Canine adenovirus type 1 may be involved
E. Bordetella bronchiseptica may be involved
21. Concerning viruses, which statement is LEAST accurate?
A. Viruses do not grow on artificial media and require living cells to grow
B. Viruses do not have cellular organelles for metabolism
C. Viruses contain both DNA and RNA
D. Viruses do not contain ribosomes
E. Viruses are not destroyed by antibiotics
22. The correct sequence of virus replication in animals is:
A. attachment, uncoating, penetration, latent period, replication, assembly and release
B. attachment, penetration, latent period, uncoating, replication, assembly and release
C. attachment, penetration, uncoating, assembly, replication and release
D. attachment, penetration, uncoating, latent period, replication, assembly and release
E. attachment, penetration, uncoating, replication, latent period, assembly and release
23. Virus causing damage to the epithelium of the intestinal tract by destroying dividing crypt epithelium and removing short lived villus epithelial cells:
A. Rabies virus
B. Parvovirus
C. Herpesvirus
D. Paramyxovirus
E. AOTA
24. Which of the following viruses has hemagglutinating properties?
A. Avian influenza virus
B. Newcastle disease virus
C. Avian Infectious Bronchitis virus
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
25. Which of the following process occurs in the thymus?
A. B cell maturation
B. antibody production
C. T cell maturation
D. stem-cell hematopoiesis
E. thrombopoiesis
26. What is the function of the class-II major histocompatibility complex antigen?
A. serves as a complement receptor
B. presents antigen to T helper cells
C. presents antigen to T cytotoxic cells
D. serves as an Fc receptor
E. presents antigen to B cells
27. B lymphocytes are predominantly found in which region of lymph nodes?
A. cortex
B. medulla
C. paracortex
D. white pulp
E. red pulp
28. In allergic dermatitis, which cell is the source of histamine?
A. eosinophil
B. mast cell
C. lymphocyte
D. neutrophil
E. dendritic cell
29. Which immunoglobulin is present almost exclusively in the intravascular compartment?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE
E. IgA
30. It is a site on an antigen molecule that stimulates an immune response and binds to antibody. It is also an antigenic determinant:
A. Epitope
B. Domains
C. Hapten
D. Carrier
E. Idiotope
31. Transfer of rabies antibodies through colostral ingestion is this type of acquired resistance?
A. Natural Passive
B. Natural Active
C. Artificial Passive
D. Artificial Active
E. AOTA
32. Arthus Reaction, a local immune complex mediated is this type of Hypersensitivity reaction:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. AOTA
33. In the California mastitis test, gel forms when the test reagent reacts with:
A. proteins in the milk sample
B. cellular DNA in the milk sample
C. fat and protein in the milk sample
D. organic salts in the milk sample
E. trace elements in the milk sample
34. The following are tests for developed acidity in milk; EXCEPT;
A. Alcohol precipitation test
B. Clot-on-Boiling test
C. Phosphatase test
D. pH determination
E. Dye Reduction Test
35. A compositional test in milk which involves addition of H2SO4 to milk in a container, centrifuging and the fat content is determine by noting the upper meniscus is:
A. Fat determination test
B. Babcock test
C. Gerber test
D. Lactometer method
E. Gravimetric test
36. To prolong the shelf life of food, bacterial growth should be controlled at this phase:
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
E. Both A and B
37. This refers to meat sold to the public without passing both ante-mortem and postmortem inspect ion according to the rules and regulations of the National Meat Inspection Office.
A. Cold slaughtered meat
B. Hot/Clandestine meat
C. Emergency slaughtered meat
D. Both A and B
E. All of the above
38. Post-mortem inspection of meat is best done, when?
A. At least one hour after dressing
B. At least one hour after evisceration
C. Before refrigeration
D. As soon as possible after carcass dressing
E. As soon as possible after sticking and bleeding
39. If an acid canned product is swollen, leaky, revealing cocci, yeasts, rods in single or mixed colonies, may have spoiled, due to:
A. Underprocessing
B. Faulty sealing of cans
C. Mishandling after processing
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
40. This is an off - flavor in milk in cases of mastitic milking animal?
A. Flat
B. Sour
C. Salty
D. Ropy
E. Tainted
41. Which of the following enzyme serves as an index for proper pasteurization?
A. Lipase
B. Proteases
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. Lactase
E. Hydrolase
42. Hyperimmune hogs to hog cholera within ten days after immunization, and animals after ten days post parturition should be:
A. Rejected for slaughter
B. Passed for slaughter
C. Held as suspect
D. Condemned
E. Subjected for reinspection
43. A pattern of disease occurrence where there is a predictable regularity of disease occurrence:
A. Pandemic
B. Epidemic
C. Endemic
D. Sporadic
E. Hyperendemic
44. An active accounting and monitoring of disease
A. Survey
B. Surveillance
C. Prospective study
D. Cross-sectional study
E. Case control study
45. Purely mechanical transport of the agent through the host, no development occurs:
A. Intermediate host
B. Definitive host
C. Final host
D. Paratenic host
E. All of the above
46. Rabies infection is an example of:
A. Anthropozoonosis
B. Zooanthropozoonosis
C. Amphixenosis
D. Both A & B
E. None of the above
47. Leptospirosis can be acquired in this type of ecosystem due to close proximity of humans to rubbish dumps that harbor infected rats:
A. Autochthonous ecosystem
B. Anthropurgic ecosystem
C. Synanthropic ecosystem
D. Both A & B
E. None of the above
48. The following are objectives of epidemiology EXCEPT:
A. Planning of disease-control programs
B. Determination of the origin of disease
C. Assessment of the economic effect of a disease
D. Acquisition of information on ecology of a disease
E. None of the above
49. A veterinary pathologist who has been in the field for 35 years made propositions in one of his animal disease cases which was based purely on his experiences and trainings attended. The method of acceptance of hypotheses is by:
A. Tenacity
B. Authority
C. Intuition
D. Scientific inquiry
50. These are animals that shed the agent when recovering from a disease:
A. Incubatory carriers
B. Paratenic hosts
C. Convalescent carriers
D. Intermediate hosts
E. All of the above
