WorksheetsST CH17
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 2hrs 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the name of the wax that is normally produced and found within the ear canal?
a)
cerumen
b)
septum
c)
sputum
d)
tympanum
2.
What is the term for creating a surgical opening into the tympanic membrane?
a)
antrostomy
b)
myringotomy
c)
septoplasty
d)
turbinectomy
3.
Which of the following is NOT an ossicle found in the middle ear?
a)
cochlea
b)
incus
c)
malleus
d)
stapes
4.
Which cranial nerve may be damaged by growth of a cholesteatoma?
a)
third (III)
b)
fifth (V)
c)
seventh (VII)
d)
tenth (X)
5.
Walters, Caldwell, lateral, and submental radiographic views are used to establish diagnosis for which anatomical area?
a)
inner ear canal
b)
oropharynx
c)
sinus cavities
d)
temporomandibular joint
6.
What tissue type are the palatine tonsils?
a)
fascial
b)
lymphoid
c)
mucosal
d)
serosal
7.
Which of the following is NOT a category of tonsil tissue?
a)
palatine
b)
pharyngeal
c)
laryngeal
d)
lingual
8.
Which of the following are classified as tonsils but are routinely referred to as adenoids and tend to atrophy with age?
a)
palatine
b)
pharyngeal
c)
laryngeal
d)
lingual
9.
In which of the following procedures would the surgical technologist need to have a spreader and a hook ready for use?
a)
myringotomy
b)
septoplasty
c)
tonsillectomy
d)
tracheotomy
10.
A TMJ decompression procedure is performed in which anatomical area?
a)
anterior face
b)
anterior neck
c)
lateral jaw
d)
lateral sinus
11.
Which procedure is performed for treatment of sleep apnea?
a)
BMT
b)
FESS
c)
SMR
d)
UPPP
12.
Which structure is often blocked with stones in the parotid gland, possibly necessitating surgical removal of the gland?
a)
canal of Schlemm
b)
nasolacrimal duct
c)
paranasal ostia
d)
Steno’s duct
13.
What is the name of the double-action, cupped, forward-angled forceps used to resect portions of the nasal septum?
a)
Aufricht
b)
Cottle
c)
Jansen-Middleton
d)
Kerrison
14.
Topical cocaine 4% is used in nasal surgery for:
a)
anesthesia
b)
dilation
c)
lubrication
d)
prepping
15.
Antrostomy rasps would be used in procedures involving which anatomical structure(s)?
a)
external auditory meatus
b)
facial sinuses
c)
lacrimal ducts
d)
semicircular canals
16.
Which of the following descriptions and classification of laryngeal cartilage pertains to the epiglottis?
a)
paired and hyaline
b)
paired and elastic
c)
individual and hyaline
d)
individual and elastic
17.
Which laryngeal cartilage is commonly known as the “Adam’s apple”?
a)
cricoid
b)
thyroid
c)
arytenoid
d)
cuneiform
18.
A procedure sometimes performed in the ICU, ER, or PACU is a(n):
a)
cochlear implant
b)
bilateral myringotomy tubes (BMT)
c)
submucosal resection (SMR)
d)
tracheotomy
19.
What is the name of the long, thin, cupped, pistol-grip type handled forceps used in many nasal procedures?
a)
Aufricht
b)
Cottle
c)
McIvor
d)
Takahashi
20.
Which cranial nerve carries information related to equilibrium to the cerebral cortex?
a)
third (III)
b)
fifth (V)
c)
eighth (VIII)
d)
tenth (X)
21.
Which of the following procedures would require use of an operating microscope?
a)
septoplasty
b)
stapedectomy
c)
tracheostomy
d)
turbinectomy
22.
How should micro ear instruments be cleaned intraoperatively?
a)
soaked in sterile saline
b)
soaked in sterile water
c)
wiped with a micro-wipe sponge
d)
wiped with a Ray-Tec 4 x 4 sponge
23.
Baron, Frazier, House, and Rosen are names of which type of instrument?
a)
forceps
b)
knife
c)
pick
d)
suction
24.
Which gas can cause expansion of the middle and therefore is contraindicated in tympanic graft cases?
a)
argon
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
nitrous oxide
d)
oxygen
25.
Which of the following is the MOST commonly used autograft in otologic procedures?
a)
flexible cartilage
b)
hyaline cartilage
c)
temporalis fascia
d)
transversalis fascia
26.
Which type of study would be used to diagnose sleep apnea?
a)
CT scanning
b)
polysomnography
c)
videostroboscopy
d)
electronystagmography
27.
Which surgical procedure would be performed for excision of a cholesteatoma?
a)
adenoidectomy
b)
Caldwell-Luc
c)
mastoidectomy
d)
radical neck dissection
28.
Which instrument is used to measure the distance from incus to stapes footplate for selection of a prosthesis in stapedectomy?
a)
caliper
b)
depth gauge
c)
sound
d)
trial/sizer
29.
Which name is common to knives, needles, picks, and suction tips used in otologic procedures?
a)
alligator
b)
Bellucci
c)
house
d)
Rosen
30.
Which of the following is NOT a compartment of the bony labyrinth of the inner ear?
a)
cochlea
b)
semicircular canals
c)
sphenoid sinus
d)
vestibule
31.
In which instrument tray would you find a Ballenger swivel knife, Cottle elevator, Knight scissors, and Takahashi forceps?
a)
BMT
b)
FESS
c)
SMR
d)
T&A
32.
What is the name of the sharp-tipped, handheld retractor that can be either single or double and often is found in nasal trays?
a)
Aufricht
b)
Joseph
c)
Senn
d)
Weitlaner
33.
An otorhinolaryngologist is more commonly known as which type of specialist?
a)
allergist
b)
ENT
c)
OB/GYN
d)
pediatrician
34.
Which type of laser is useful for procedures involving the stapes and middle ear?
a)
argon
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
holmium: YAG
d)
Nd:YAG
35.
Which type of mechanical action of a drill attachment is MOST commonly used in otologic procedures?
a)
oscillating
b)
reciprocating
c)
rotary
d)
sagittal
36.
What is the name of the structure that separates the outer and middle ear canals from one another?
a)
epiglottis
b)
external auditory meatus
c)
turbinates
d)
tympanic membrane
37.
Which part of the tympanic membrane is fibrous, largest, and where drainage tubes are inserted?
a)
annulus
b)
pars flaccida
c)
pars tensa
d)
umbo
38.
In myringotomy procedures, what does “PE” stand for?
a)
pus exudate
b)
partial expulsion
c)
pressure equalizing
d)
peripheral examination
39.
What chronically occurring condition is often the reason for placement of myringotomy tubes in one or both ears?
a)
otitis media
b)
rhinitis
c)
sinusitis
d)
tracheitis
40.
Which of the following is all that is necessary for instrument setup for bilateral myringotomy tube (BMT) placement?
a)
back table
b)
basin set
c)
Mayo stand
d)
kick bucket
41.
Which acute infection appears in bony air cells after approximately 10 to 14 days following an otitis media infection, and if untreated, it may result in meningitis or encephalitis?
a)
adenoiditis
b)
mastoiditis
c)
rhinitis
d)
tonsillitis
42.
What is an important step for the surgical technologist to remember to perform when changing burrs on a pneumatic drill?
a)
place drill in reverse position
b)
place drill in forward position
c)
put hand piece on safety
d)
disconnect hand piece from hose
43.
What is the term for bony overgrowth of the stapes?
a)
arteriosclerosis
b)
atherosclerosis
c)
multiple sclerosis
d)
otosclerosis
44.
Epistaxis is more commonly known as an acute:
a)
allergic reaction
b)
ear infection
c)
nose bleed
d)
upper respiratory inflammation
45.
Which diagnostic study is best at delineating between soft tissue and bony structures for diagnosing sinus conditions?
a)
angiogram
b)
audiogram
c)
CT scan
d)
MRI scan
46.
Why is a scapular or shoulder roll used in procedures involving the oropharynx?
a)
prevent pressure necrosis
b)
tilt head to increase exposure
c)
reduce intraoperative bleeding
d)
provide comfort for awake patient
47.
What is the term that describes a nasal septum that typically causes obstructed breathing in older patients?
a)
collateral
b)
deviated
c)
ossified
d)
sclerotic
48.
What is the surgical technologist often asked to do for the surgeon during septal procedures?
a)
Insert cocaine-soaked Cottonoids into the nose.
b)
Extract fragments with the Takahashi.
c)
Suture the nasal mucosa closed.
d)
Tap the chisel with the mallet lightly.
49.
What is an alternate name for the bony nasal projections known as turbinates?
a)
cochlea
b)
conchae
c)
ossicles
d)
ostia
50.
All of the following are methods of performing a turbinectomy EXCEPT:
a)
inferior
b)
laser
c)
microdebrider
d)
percutaneous
51.
Where is the soft palate located in relation to the nasal cavity?
a)
anterior and superior
b)
anterior and inferior
c)
posterior and superior
d)
posterior and inferior
52.
What is the MOST common cause of nasal polyps?
a)
allergic rhinitis
b)
arid environment
c)
cocaine use
d)
smoking
53.
Which of the paranasal sinuses are numerous, small, and located on either side of the bridge of the nose, between the eyes?
a)
ethmoid
b)
frontal
c)
maxillary
d)
sphenoid
54.
Which of the paranasal sinuses are MOST superior and can be singular or divided?
a)
ethmoid
b)
frontal
c)
maxillary
d)
sphenoid
55.
Which procedure would require 4 mm or 5 mm, 0°, or angled lenses and a navigation system for intraoperative guidance?
a)
Caldwell-Luc
b)
FESS
c)
radical neck dissection
d)
SMR
56.
Davis and McIvor are names of which type of instrument?
a)
handheld retractor
b)
micro instruments
c)
mouth gags
d)
powered drills
57.
Which of the following is a curved, serrated tonsil knife?
a)
Beaver
b)
Button
c)
Fisher
d)
Sexton
58.
Which objective-power lens is MOST frequently used for microlaryngoscopy?
a)
200 mm
b)
300 mm
c)
350 mm
d)
400 mm
59.
Which of the following statements comparing rigid bronchoscopes and esophagoscopes to rigid laryngoscopes is correct?
a)
Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is straight.
b)
Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is flared.
c)
Esophagoscopes are shorter than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is flared.
d)
Esophagoscopes are shorter than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is straight.
60.
Which of the following is frequently used as an autograft to replace the mandible in a radical neck dissection?
a)
clavicle
b)
fibula
c)
humerus
d)
radius
61.
TRUE or FALSE. Overhead OR spotlights should be placed on highest setting to provide necessary illumination during intraocular procedures.
a)
T
b)
F
62.
TRUE or FALSE. Donor corneas must be screened for HIV, HBV, and CJD prior to transplant.
a)
T
b)
F
63.
TRUE or FALSE. The surgical technologist must develop the ability to transfer very small, delicate instruments into the surgeon’s hand in a functional manner so that he or she does not have to look away from the microscope.
a)
T
b)
F
64.
TRUE or FALSE. Cataracts are categorized as a general condition of aging rather than a disease process.
a)
T
b)
F
65.
TRUE or FALSE. Gas injected into the posterior cavity of the eye following vitrectomy is more stable and requires fewer restrictions of a patient with regard to positioning and altitude than silicone oil.
a)
T
b)
F
66.
TRUE or FALSE. A tuning fork is a useful tool during parotidectomy to safely identify branches of the seventh (VII) cranial nerve.
a)
T
b)
F
67.
TRUE or FALSE. PE tubes placed during myringotomy procedures must be removed following resolution of otitis media.
a)
T
b)
F
68.
TRUE or FALSE. Powered equipment such as ear drills and irrigation and aspiration units should always be tested prior to use to prevent delay or possible patient injury.
a)
T
b)
F
69.
TRUE or FALSE. The pinna of the ear is the visible external portion that collects sound waves and channels them into the middle and inner ear.
a)
T
b)
F
70.
TRUE or FALSE. Rhinoplasty procedures are often considered “plastic surgery” cases rather than otorhinolaryngological.
a)
T
b)
F
71.
Diagnostic method that assesses the amount of damage to the sound conduction system and determines course of treatment
a)
Morcellatioin
b)
Hypertrophy
c)
Audiography
d)
Hyperextension
e)
Organs of Corti
72.
Diagnostic method that uses cool and warm water introduced into the ear canal to assess balance function
a)
Eustachian tube
b)
Hypertrophy
c)
Electronystagmography
d)
Oval window
e)
Choanal atresia
73.
The anatomic structure that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx
a)
Eustachian tube
b)
Hyperextension
c)
Lukens tube
d)
Hypertrophy
e)
Morcellatioin
74.
The membranous opening in the wall of the cochlea that receives vibrations from the stapes in the middle ear
a)
Electronystagmography
b)
Organs of Corti
c)
Hyperextension
d)
Audiography
e)
Oval window
75.
A series of hair cells that directly contact fibers of the cochlear nerve
a)
Hyperextension
b)
Organs of Corti
c)
Eustachian tube
d)
Morcellatioin
e)
Hypertrophy
76.
The process of cutting up tissue into small pieces to extract it through a small opening
a)
Hyperextension
b)
Electronystagmography
c)
Choanal atresia
d)
Morcellatioin
e)
Audiography
77.
Congenital defect that results in a bony or membranous occlusion of the passageway between the nose and the pharynx
a)
Hypertrophy
b)
Choanal atresia
c)
Oval window
d)
Hyperextension
e)
Eustachian tube
78.
A device attached to suction that uses gravity to capture specimens such as washings for laboratory analysis
a)
Lukens tube
b)
Organs of Corti
c)
Electronystagmography
d)
Audiography
e)
Organs of Corti
79.
Condition of being enlarged due to chronic inflammation; may cause obstruction
a)
Hyperextension
b)
Morcellatioin
c)
Lukens tube
d)
Eustachian tube
e)
Hypertrophy
80.
Position achieved by placement of a scapular roll to provide enhanced visualization of the oropharyngeal area
a)
Oval window
b)
Hyperextension
c)
Audiography
d)
Electronystagmography
e)
Hypertrophy
100 %
