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VN02 End of Unit Assessment

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements about the Ionizing Radiation Regulations 2017 is FALSE?

a)

It stipulates that at least one member of the veterinary practice must be designated as an RPA

b)

It incorporates the concept of ALARA

c)

It stipulates that Local Rules must be drawn up and followed

d)

It sets an annual dose limit of 20 mSv to the whole body for employees of at least 18 years of age

2.

Which of the following tissues is the most attenuating?

a)

Fluid

b)

Air

c)

Muscle

d)

Bone

3.

Which radiography term can be described as the difference in densities seen on an x-ray image?

a)

Density

b)

Contrast

c)

Attenuation

d)

Penumbra

4.

Which of the following modalities does not fall under the Ionizing Radiation Regulations 2017?

a)

Computed tomography

b)

Computed radiography

c)

Fluoroscopy

d)

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

5.

Which of the following is not a key feature of x-ray room design?

a)

Emergency stop button outside of the controlled area

b)

Warning signs

c)

Controlled access

d)

Use of a red warning light which only appears when an exposure is being made

6.

A radiographer decides that he needs to increase the kV he is using from 30 kV to 40 kV. In order to keep radiographic density the same, what must he do to the mAs he is using?

a)

No change needed

b)

Halve the mAs

c)

Double the mAs

d)

Increase the mAs by 10

7.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the BVA Elbow Scheme?

a)

There is no upper age limit for dogs being scored

b)

The dog does not need to be a recognized breed

c)

Dogs must be at least 2 years old before being scored

d)

Extended and flexed medial lateral elbow views must be submitted

8.

Which modality requires the use of a Faraday cage to function correctly?

a)

Computed tomography

b)

Computed radiography

c)

MRI

d)

Ultrasound

9.

Which of the following techniques would degrade an ultrasound image?

a)

Clipping the fur of an Alaskan Malamute

b)

Application of coupling gel to the skin of the patient over the area of interest

c)

Use of M mode when conducting echocardiography

d)

Incorporating an air gap technique

10.

Which of the following techniques provides excellent information about physiology but poor anatomical detail?

a)

Scintigraphy

b)

MRI

c)

CT

d)

DR

11.

Which of the following techniques would not usually be required when assisting with an bronchoscopy and BAL?

a)

Coupage

b)

Insufflation

c)

Pre-oxygenation

d)

Capnography monitoring

12.

The femur is.......... to the fibula?

a)

Distal

b)

Ventral

c)

Medial

d)

Proximal

13.

What is the caudal boundary of the abdominal cavity?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Thoracic outlet

c)

Pelvic inlet

d)

Manubrium

14.

Which of the following anatomical landmarks can be utilized when imaging the pelvis?

a)

Olecranon

b)

Tuber ischia

c)

Accessory carpal bone

d)

Calcaneus

15.

Which of the following is not a function of the musculoskeletal system?

a)

Storage of Vitamin A and B

b)

Haemopoeisis

c)

Locomotion

d)

Support

16.

Which of the following methods of restraint should not be utilized when imaging a dogs stifle 6 weeks post TTA?

a)

Sedation

b)

General anaesthesia

c)

Sandbags

d)

Manual restraint

17.

What is the centre point when performing a lateral stifle x-ray?

a)

Over the femoral condyle

b)

Midway between the femoral condyles

c)

Over the humeral epicondyle

d)

Midway between the humeral epicondyles

18.

A dog's sacroiliac joints would be visible on which projection?

a)

Lateral pelvis

b)

Lateral lumbar spine

c)

VD thoracic spine

d)

VD pelvis

19.

Which of the following positioning aids would not be useful when obtaining a lateral lumbar spine x-ray in a sedated cat?

a)

Sandbags

b)

Trough

c)

Foam wedges

d)

Ties

20.

An x-ray is centred just cranial to the last rib in the midline, and collimated cranially to include the diaphragm, caudally to the umbilucus and to dorsal and ventral skin edges.

Which of the following scenarios would be an indication for performing this view?

a)

Dog with suspected intussusception

b)

Dog with suspected gastric foreign body

c)

Dog with a suspected liver mass

d)

Dog with suspected discospondylitis

21.

Which of the following statements about grids is true?

a)

A Potter Bucky grid is an example of a stationary grid

b)

Grids should only be used in tissues more than 20cm thick

c)

A grid should be placed between the patient and the cassette

d)

A pseudo focused grid has lead slats both horizontally and vertically

22.

Which of the following pieces of information does not need to appear on a x-ray?

a)

Patient name

b)

Date of exposure

c)

Left/right marker

d)

Species

23.

In which digital set up would you find the scintillator caesium iodide and a photodiode in the form of amorphous silicone?

a)

Indirect flat panel DR

b)

Charged coupled device

c)

Direct flat panel DR

d)

Computed Tomography

24.

Which of the following is not an advantage of digital radiography over the use of traditional film?

a)

An image is available for viewing quicker

b)

It removes the need to buy, store and dispose of chemicals

c)

The equipment is cheaper to buy

d)

It allows post exposure manipulation of the image

25.

What has gone wrong with this exposure?

a)

Under exposed

b)

Exposed on expiration

c)

Over exposed

d)

Inappropriate collimation

26.

Which of the following systems allows x-ray images to be shared with other professionals outside the practice?

a)

DICOM

b)

PACS

c)

DIMOC

d)

ITS

27.

Which one of the following best describes ‘calibration’ in relation to laboratory equipment?

a)

To correlate readings against known measurements

b)

To test the equipment is fully functioning.

c)

To test a sample against known outcomes

d)

To rectify issues with the use of the equipment

28.

Which one of the following must always be done when setting up a centrifuge for use?

a)

Calibration

b)

Quality control

c)

Balancing

d)

Checking electrical wiring

29.

The COSHH hazard warning label for a toxic substance is displayed by which image?

a)

Skull and crossbones

b)

Flame

c)

Black cross on a yellow background

d)

A tree, fish and lake

30.

By which method would you need to dispose of a used blood tube?

a)

Cytotoxic waste

b)

Infectious clinical waste

c)

Domestic waste

d)

Offensive waste

31.

The average size of a human (eukaryotic) cell is?

a)

1 millimetre

b)

100 micrometres

c)

10 micrometres

d)

1 micrometre

32.

What could be seen in the microscopic examination of a urine sample from a cat which has ingested ethylene glycol?

a)

Hylaine casts

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Calcium oxalate crystals

d)

Ammonium urate crystals

33.

Which type of bacterial cell is shown in the picture?

a)

Bacilli

b)

Chains of cocci

c)

Spirochetes

d)

Clusters of cocci

34.

A subsurface burrowing mite known to cause pruritis is…?

a)

Flea

b)

Trichodectes canis

c)

Sarcoptes scabiei

d)

Otodectes cyanotis

35.

What equipment is required for obtaining a fine needle aspirate sample?

a)

Needle and syringe, 3-way tap, microscope slide and cover slip

b)

Needle and syringe, microscope slide

c)

Needle and syringe, universal container

d)

Scalpel blade, microscope slide and spreader slide

36.

Which type of sample container would be prepared for a swab of an infected skin lesion?

a)

Charcoal swab

b)

Microscope slide

c)

Boric acid in universal container

d)

10% Formalin pot

37.

Which one of the following techniques requires strict asepsis?

a)

Jugular blood sampling

b)

Cystocentesis

c)

CSF fluid sampling

d)

Bacteriology skin swab

38.

A suitable mounting medium for a skin scrape sample onto a microscope slide is..?

a)

Formalin

b)

Liquid paraffin

c)

Lugol's iodine

d)

Distilled water

39.

Why should stress be minimised prior to obtaining a blood sample?

a)

Stress induced hypoglycaemia

b)

Stress induced cortisol production

c)

Stress induced hyperglycaemia

d)

Stress induced hyperkalaemia

40.

Which one of the following is a necessary patient preparation technique for obtaining skin scrapes?

a)

Clip the area around the sample site.

b)

Scrub the area around the sample site with diluted chlorhexidine.

c)

Anaesthetise the patient.

d)

Stretch the skin at the sample site before scraping

41.

Which technique would require general anaesthesia?

a)

Arthrocentesis

b)

Fine needle aspirate of a skin mass

c)

Cystocentesis

d)

Baermann technique

42.

Which one of the following would not promote haemolysis of a blood sample?

a)

Pushing blood back through the needle

b)

Using too small a needle to obtain the sample

c)

Shaking the sample

d)

Insufficient blood to anticoagulant ratio

43.

The use of KY jelly when obtaining a rectal faecal sample would be..?

a)

Moisten the sample

b)

Prevent external contamination of sample

c)

Minimise mucosal tissue damage

d)

Make it easier to obtain the sample

44.

Which one of the following is not a suitable vein for blood sampling a rabbit?

a)

Femoral

b)

Marginal ear

c)

Jugular

d)

Saphenous

45.

What is histology?

a)

Study of organs

b)

Study of different types of tissue

c)

Study of cells

d)

Study of skin

46.

Which preservative causes unwanted shrinkage of cells?

a)

Formalin

b)

Formal Saline

c)

Alcohol

d)

Buffered Formal Saline

47.

A BAL is commonly used to diagnose which condition?

a)

Diabetes Insipidus

b)

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

c)

Mast cell tumour

d)

Asthma

48.

Which of the following is not a common site to perform a bone marrow biopsy in dogs?

a)

Iliac Crest

b)

Clavicle

c)

Tibial Crest

d)

Proximal Femur

49.

The acronym ELISA stands for......?

a)

Enzyme Linked Immunoglobulin Assessment

b)

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assessment

c)

Enzyme Linked Immunoglobulin Assay

d)

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay

50.

Which of the following is not a common site for CSF collection?

a)

Space between C2 and C3

b)

The L5/L6 disc space in dogs

c)

The L6/L7 disc space in cats

d)

All of them are common sites

51.

Name the urinary crystal

a)

Struvite

b)

Ammonium urate

c)

Cystine

d)

Uric acid

52.

What is the s.g of distilled water?

a)

0.000

b)

1.100

c)

1.000

d)

0.100

53.

Which of the following crystals are found in alkaline urine?

a)

Cystine

b)

Uric Acid

c)

Calcium oxolate

d)

Struvite

54.

What centrifuge settings should be used for urine microscopy?

a)

1500-2000 rpm for 5 minutes

b)

1500-2000 rpm for 10 minutes

c)

10000 rpm for 5 minutes

d)

10000 rpm for 10 minutes

55.

Which urinary crystal is common in rabbits?

a)

Cystine

b)

Calcium carbonate

c)

Struvite

d)

Ammonium urate

56.

Which of the following preservatives can be used to preserve urine for culture?

a)

Heparin

b)

Formalin

c)

Formal saline

d)

Boric acid

57.

How many grams of faeces are required for the Modified McMaster technique?

a)

1 gram

b)

3 grams

c)

10 grams

d)

42 grams

58.

What centrifuge settings are used for the Baermann technique?

a)

10000 rpm for 5 minutes

b)

1500 rpm for 5 minutes

c)

1500 rpm for 1 minute

d)

5000 rpm for 2 minutes

59.

What parasite is this?

a)

Trichodectes canis

b)

Ctenocephalides felis

c)

Trombicula autumnalis

d)

Linognathus setosus

60.

What is the name of this urinary crystal?

a)

Struvite

b)

Calcium oxalate

c)

Calcium carbonate

d)

Ammonium urate

61.

Which of the following would you not expect to find in small amounts in a canine faeces sample?

a)

Parasite ova

b)

Undigested food

c)

Bacteria

d)

Mucus

62.

Which of the following is NOT a method of examining faeces for parasites?

a)

McMaster method

b)

Baermann technique

c)

Direct smear

d)

Quadrant Streak method

63.

A small sample of ear wax may be examined for which mite?

a)

Sarcoptes

b)

Demodex

c)

Otodectes

d)

Cheyletiella

64.

What name is given to the fluid left when clotting factors are removed from plasma?

a)

Plasmaloid

b)

Interstitial fluid

c)

Cellular fluid

d)

Serum

65.

What stage of Meiosis is being shown and described:


Each chromosome lines up in the middle of the cell.

a)

Prophase 2

b)

Metaphase 2

c)

Anaphase 2

d)

Telophase 2

66.
Which of the following tissues allows materials to pass through diffusion and filtration? 
a)
stratified squamous
b)
simple cubiodal
c)
simple columnar
d)
simple squamous
67.
Which of the following tissues would be found in the walls of kidney tubules?
a)
simple cuboidal
b)
stratified cuboidal
c)
simple squamous
d)
stratified columnar
68.

Which parts of the skeleton are formed by intramembranous ossification?

a)

Skull and clavicle

b)

All skeletal bones

c)

Femur and tibia

d)

Pelvis and vertebrae