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Biology Spring Final Review 2022

Total questions: 218

Worksheet time: 3hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
If two animals have the same habitat and niche they exhibit mutualism
a)
true
b)
false
2.
the ultimate source of energy for most ecosystems is the sun
a)
true
b)
false
3.
Carnivores and omnivores are able to occupy more than one trophic level
a)
true
b)
false
4.
A keystone species is a top predator that keeps the ecosystem balanced, if it were removed the ecosystem would be drastically changed.
a)
true
b)
false
5.
there is rarely more than 3 or 4 trophic levels in any food chain because there is not enough energy to sustain higher trophic levels
a)
true
b)
false
6.
Global warming is the rapid change in the Earth’s climate due to the increase in greenhouse gases
a)
true
b)
false
7.
Parasitism is when both species benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
a)
true
b)
false
8.
Which of the following is NOT a Eukaryotic Cell
a)
Animal Cell
b)
Plant Cell
c)
Fungi Cell
d)
Bacteria Cell
9.
Which statement shows a logical order of scientific exploration?
a)
Hypotheses are created for testing the validity of conclusions.
b)
Experiments are performed to collect data to test a hypothesis.
c)
Conclusions are created to analyze data and experiments.
d)
Science concepts are used to prove both hypotheses and data collected from experiments.
10.
What is the primary function of the mitochondria?
a)
Capture sunlight to create food
b)
Store genetic information
c)
Manufacture proteins
d)
Convert glucose to usable energy (ATP)
11.
An animal cell does not have a…
a)
Vesicle
b)
Cell Wall
c)
Cell membrane
d)
Nucleus
12.
What is the name of the structure in a cell that captures sunlight energy for photosynthesis?
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Nucleus
c)
Ribosome
d)
Mitochondria
13.
One of the waste products given off by the plant cell during photosynthesis is…
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Oxygen
c)
Sugar
d)
Energy
14.
One of the waste products given off during cellular respiration is…
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Oxygen
c)
Sugar
d)
Energy
15.
What organelle synthesizes proteins?
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Nucleus
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
Ribosomes
16.
Which two items help the process of nitrogen fixation?
a)
Respiration and Photosynthesis
b)
Bacteria and Lightning
c)
Excretion and Secretion
d)
Transpiration and Evaporation
17.
Which statement is true about energy in an ecosystem?
a)
Energy flows from heterotrophs to autotrophs
b)
Energy levels increase toward the top of the food chain
c)
Energy most often is released as light from an ecosystem
d)
Energy for most ecosystems originates from the sun
18.
 If a pesticide killed all decomposers in an ecosystem, what would most likely occur?
a)
There would be more energy within an ecosystem
b)
There would be less nutrients recycled in the ecosystem
c)
There would be more nutrients recycled in the ecosystem
d)
There would be no change in the ecosystem
19.
If the energy transferred from one level of a food web to the next is 10%, what percent of energy stored in a primary consumer is transferred to a tertiary consumer
a)
0.1
b)
0.01
c)
0.001
d)
1.0E-4
20.
The amount of energy stored in each trophic level decreases because…
a)
Organisms on each level consume less per pound than organisms below them
b)
90% of the energy is lost as heat
c)
Tertiary consumers are not capable of storing energy
d)
Consumers use up more energy than producers
21.

The owl in the above food chain would be considered ______________.

a)

Secondary consumers

b)

Tertiary consumers

c)

Herbivores

d)

Decomposers

22.
Which of these organisms are MOST helpful in preventing Earth from being covered with bodies of dead organisms?
a)
Parasites
b)
Producers
c)
Herbivores
d)
Decomposers
23.
What is a function of proteins in the cell membrane?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Cellular Respiration
c)
Cellular Transport
d)
None of the above
24.
What factor is most important in maintaining stability in an ecosystem?
a)
When there is a wide variety of species
b)
When there are many organisms of one species
c)
Limiting factors
d)
When there are large populations of a few species
25.
Which best describes the changes that occur when a meadow ecosystem is altered to become a farm field?
a)
Biodiversity and stability increase
b)
Biodiversity decreases and stability increases
c)
Biodiversity and stability both decrease
d)
Biodiversity increases and stability decreases
26.
Complete burning of plant material returns carbon primarily to the
a)
Water
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Herbivores
d)
Vegetation
27.

Grasses → Crickets → Field Mice → Hawks

For this food chain, which of the following changes would have the MOST severe consequences?

a)

The hunting of predatory hawks by game hunters

b)

The introduction of a second predator that eats field mice

c)

A parasitic infestation that reduces the cricket population

d)

A drastic decrease in rainfall, causing a drought

28.
Which activity is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus?
a)
Package proteins for transport
b)
Synthesize proteins
c)
Store genetic material
d)
Converts light energy into glucose
29.
Which factor is NOT necessary for an ecosystem to be stable?
a)
A constant source of energy
b)
Producers
c)
Decomposers
d)
An equal number of producers and consumers
30.
When scientists measure the biodiversity of a habitat, they consider…
a)
The variation in animals
b)
The diversity in plants
c)
The kinds of producers and consumers
d)
All of the organisms
31.
Hawks and owls living in the same area compete for the same type of mouse for food. Which situation would lead to the greatest competition for food supply?
a)
An increase in the owl population
b)
An increase in the mouse population
c)
A decrease in the hawk population
d)
A decrease in the owl population
32.
 Given all the resources needed to survive, populations of organisms will experience…
a)
Exponential growth
b)
Linear growth
c)
Infertility
d)
Biotic growth
33.
Identify the correct path by which energy flows through living organisms.
a)
Sun → heterotroph → autotroph → autotroph
b)
Autotroph → sun → heterotroph → autotroph
c)
Heterotroph → autotroph → sun → heterotroph
d)
Sun → autotroph → heterotroph → heterotroph
34.
Which of the following molecules is the primary fuel for mitochondria?
a)
Fatty Acids
b)
Adenine
c)
Glucose
d)
Carbon dioxide
35.
Which habitat exhibits the greatest biodiversity?
a)
A habitat with 4 different species with about 150 individuals each
b)
A habitat with only one species with about 2000 individuals
c)
A habitat with 15 different species with about 300 individuals each
d)
A habitat with 10 different species with about 75 individuals each
36.
What is the source of carbon for plants?
a)
Soil nutrients
b)
Direct sunlight
c)
Carbon dioxide
d)
Carbohydrates
37.
Which statement BEST describes the importance of oxygen to energy availability in animals and plants?
a)
Oxygen causes the oxidation of amino acids to synthesize proteins in ribosomes.
b)
Oxygen is required for the breakdown of glucose to produce ATP in mitochondria.
c)
Oxygen attaches to macromolecules to carry them across the cell membranes.
d)
Oxygen is released as a waste product during cellular respiration reactions.
38.
A student makes two simplified diagrams. One diagram is of a plant cell, and one is of an animal cell. Which of the following should be found ONLY in the diagram of a plant cell?
a)
A cell membrane
b)
Chloroplasts
c)
Mitochondria
d)
A nucleus
39.
Muscle cells have a higher concentration of mitochondria than other body cells. As a result, muscle cells are able to produce which of the following at a higher rate than other body cells?
a)
Glucose
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Oxygen
d)
Carbon dioxide
40.

According to this logistic growth curve what is this population's carrying capacity

a)

1200 individuals

b)

1000 individuals

c)

200 individuals

d)

800 individuals

41.
The process by which the information in a strand of DNA is copied into a new molecule of messenger RNA is called___________________________
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
DNA replication
d)
Protein Synthesis
42.
Which of the following is a factor in natural selection?
a)
Individuals of species compete with one another to survive.
b)
All species are genetically diverse.
c)
Individuals better able to adapt to changes leave more offspring.
d)
All of the above.
43.
The fossil record provides evidence that
a)
Fossils cannot be dated.
b)
All species were formed during Earth’s formation and have changed little since then.
c)
The fossilized species have no connection to today’s species.
d)
Older species gave rise to more-recent species.
44.
Individuals that are better able to cope with the challenges of their environment tend to
a)
 Decrease in population over time.
b)
Leave more offspring than those less suited to the environment.
c)
 Leave fewer offspring than those less suited to the environment.
d)
Both decrease the population over time and leave fewer offspring than those less suited to the environment
45.
Members of different subspecies
a)
Are considered to be entirely different species.
b)
Can no longer interbreed successfully.
c)
Differ genetically because of adaptations for different living conditions.
d)
Will never diverge to become different species.
46.
Starting in 1954, commercial fishers in the northwest Pacific were paid by weight, rather than by the individual fish, for pink salmon. The fishers increased the use of a type of net that selectively catches larger fish.  Which of the following effects did this change in fishing technique most likely have on the salmon population over the next 20 years?
a)
The average body size of the salmon population decreased significantly.
b)
The average body size of the salmon population increased significantly.
c)
The average body size of the males in the salmon population increased, and the females stayed the same.
d)
None of the above.
47.
European rabbits were introduced to Australia in 1859. The rabbits reproduced rapidly in their new habitat, displaced other animals, and overgrazed vegetation. In an attempt to reduce the rabbit population, a virus was introduced in 1951. This virus is usually deadly to European rabbits. When the virus was first introduced, the rabbits died in large numbers, but the death rate decreased over time. Which of the following best explains the decrease in the rabbit death rate?
a)
Young rabbits learned to avoid being infected with the virus.
b)
The lifespan of the virus was too short to affect rabbits over a long period of time.
c)
Natural selection favored rabbits that were resistant to the virus.
d)
None of the above.
48.
Which of the following statements gives the most likely explanation for the presence of two very similar species of squirrels living on opposite sides of the Grand Canyon?
a)
One squirrel traveled across the canyon and started a new population on the other side.
b)
One squirrel traveled across the canyon and interbred with a different population on the other side.
c)
Members of one single squirrel species were geographically separated by the formation of the canyon.
d)
Members of two different squirrel species migrated from two different places to opposite sides of the canyon.
49.
The Asian shore crab invaded parts of the eastern coast of the United States about 15 years ago. The Asian shore crab preys on blue mussels. In the time since the Asian shore crab arrived, the average shell thickness of the blue mussel population has increased. Which of the following is the most likely reason that this increase in shell thickness has occurred?
a)
Blue mussels with thick shells attract more crabs than mussels without thick shells.
b)
Blue mussels with thick shells grow in larger colonies than mussels without thick shells.
c)
Blue mussels with thick shells catch more food per day than mussels without thick shells.
d)
Blue mussels with thick shells survive and reproduce more successfully than mussels without thick shells.
50.
Some willow trees alter the chemical composition of their leaves when attacked by caterpillars. Compared to normal leaves, the chemically altered leaves are less nutritious and more difficult for caterpillars to digest. Which of the following is a likely effect of this ability to alter leaf composition?
a)
Willow trees with this ability will attract more caterpillars than other willow trees.
b)
Willow trees with this ability have a survival advantage over other willow trees.
c)
More butterflies will lay their eggs on willow trees with this ability than other willow trees.
d)
None of the above.
51.
Structures that share a common ancestry or are similar because they are modified versions of structures from a common ancestor that contain the same basic bone structure are
a)
Not related.
b)
Not homologous.
c)
Homologous.
d)
Young in origin.
52.
The process in which organisms with traits well suited to an environment are more likely to survive and to produce offspring is
a)
Natural selection.
b)
Origin of species.
c)
Genetic principles.
d)
Trait mechanism.
53.
Structures with no function that are remnants of an organism’s evolutionary past are
a)
Not visible organisms.
b)
Vestigial.
c)
Young in origin.
d)
Useful to the organism.
54.

The illustrations below show vestigial pelvic bones of a baleen whale and vestigial hind limb bones of an extinct whale. The presence of these bones in the baleen whale and extinct whale provides evidence of which of the following?

a)

Whales can travel on land when necessary.

b)

Whales are developing into animals with four functioning limbs.

c)

Whales have functional legs that are hidden by fat and skin.

d)

Whales evolved from four-legged animals.

55.
Comparing human hemoglobin of chimpanzees, horses, kangaroos, and chickens, reveal that humans have the fewest amino acid differences with
a)
Kangaroos
b)
Horses
c)
Chickens
d)
Chimpanzees
56.
The accumulation of differences between species or populations is called
a)
Divergence
b)
Punctuated equilibrium
c)
Speciation
d)
Observational Species
57.
The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs in periods of rapid change separated by periods of little or no change is called
a)
Divergence
b)
Gradualism
c)
Punctuated equilibrium
d)
Isolation
58.
The formation of new species is a process known as ____________________, which is typically the product of divergence.
a)
Gradualism
b)
Speciation
c)
Reproductive Isolation
d)
Subspecies
59.
The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs gradually over time as a slow and constant process is known as
a)
Speciation
b)
Punctuated equilibrium
c)
Gradualism
d)
Microevolution
60.
Which of the following phrase best describes how Thomas Malthus influenced Charles Darwin’s idea of natural selection?
a)
The number of resources available can limit the survival of a species.
b)
The survival of a species depends on the traits they acquire in their lifetime.
c)
The survival of a species is determined by how many offspring they leave behind.
d)
The Earth is constantly changing; seashell fossils were found at the top of the Andes Mountains.
61.

Which of the following statements best reflects the evolutionary importance of the figures above?

a)

New genetic instructions have been disregarded in the evolution of vertebrates.

b)

Early in development, vertebrate embryos show no evidence of common ancestry.

c)

All adult vertebrates retain pharyngeal pouches (gills).

d)

The evolutionary history of organisms is seen in the way embryos develop.

62.
The amino acid that becomes attached to a molecule of tRNA is determined by a(n) _________ in mRNA:
a)
ribosome
b)
ribosome subunit
c)
codon
d)
anticodon
63.
The process of transcription involves the synthesis of _____ from ______.
a)
RNA;   RNA polymerase
b)
RNA;  DNA
c)
DNA;  RNA
d)
proteins;  DNA
64.
The end of translation occurs:
a)
upon reaching an mRNA stop codon
b)
as soon as mRNA transcription stops
c)
when the first codon of an mRNA sequence is released from the ribosomal site
d)
at the start of the next mRNA strand.
65.
The central dogma implies that information is transferred from:
a)
RNA to Protein to DNA
b)
DNA to Protein to RNA
c)
Protein to DNA to RNA
d)
DNA to RNA to Protein
66.
Suppose we have a “mini-gene“ on DNA with the sequence TAC-CCG-GAT-CAA. What would the corresponding mRNA codons be?
a)
ATG GGC CTA GTT
b)
GUC CCU UUA GUU
c)
AUG GGC CUA GUU
d)
AUG GGC CTA GTT
67.
Suppose we have a “mini-gene“ on DNA with the sequence TAC-CCG-GAT-CAA. What will the amino acid sequence be based on the mRNA sequence of the previous question?
a)
aspartic acid-leucine-leucine-leucine
b)
methionine-proline-aspartic acid-valine
c)
asparagine-proline-leucine-aspartic acid
d)
methionine-glycine-leucine-valine
68.
The three types of RNA are:
a)
mRNA, rRNA, and nucleic RNA
b)
 mRNA, tRNA, and nucleic RNA
c)
mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA
d)
amino acids, nucleic acids, and glucose
69.
Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?
a)
Uracil
b)
Cytosine
c)
Guanine
d)
Adenine
70.
How many amino acids are found in the human genetic code?
a)
64
b)
30
c)
20
d)
10
71.
Sequences of nitrogen bases found in mRNA that ARE EDITED OUT
a)
Exons
b)
Introns
c)
Promoter
d)
amino acids
72.
The type of sugar found in RNA.
a)
Ribose
b)
RNA Polymerase
c)
Amino acids
d)
Glucose
73.
Sequences of nitrogen bases found in RNA that ARE KEPT in the final, mature form of mRNA.
a)
Exons
b)
Introns
c)
Ribose
d)
Promoter
74.
What are the building blocks or monomers of proteins?
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Ribose
c)
Amino acids
d)
Fatty acids
75.
The enzyme required for transcription.
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
RNA Polymerase
c)
Nuclease
d)
Helicase
76.
 In what part of the cell does transcription occur?
a)
Ribosome
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Nucleolus
d)
Nucleus
77.
 In what part of the cell does translation occur?
a)
Ribsome
b)
Nucleus
c)
Nucleolus
d)
Vesicles
78.
Regions of DNA with specific base sequences where RNA polymerase binds; signals where RNA polymerase should start making RNA.
a)
Coding region
b)
Promoters
c)
Signal chemicals
d)
Starters
79.
Which of the following best describes meiosis?
a)
It is carried out in all tissues that require cell replacement.
b)
 It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of the organism.
c)
It happens in all tissues except the brain and spinal cord.
d)
It is the first stage of mitosis.
80.
A pea plant carries a gene for wrinkled seed coat and a gene for smooth seed coat. Smooth seed coat is dominant over wrinkled. The gene or genes the plant will probably pass on is determined by:
a)
Dominant genes being more likely to be passed on.
b)
Recessive chromosomes being more likely to be passed on.
c)
Random segregation of chromosomes.
d)
Both genes being present in the gamete.
81.
A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). What percentage of the offspring will be tall?
a)
1
b)
0.75
c)
0.5
d)
0
82.
New combinations of alleles may be generated through the fusion of gametes during the process of ________.
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
fertilization
d)
random chromosome segregation
83.
The body cell of a dog has 76 chromosomes. An egg cell from the dog will have __________________.
a)
19 chromosomes
b)
38 chromosomes
c)
76 chromosomes
d)
Cannot predict now
84.
Compared to the number of chromosomes contained in a liver cell of a parent, how many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?
a)
The same number
b)
Twice as many
c)
One-fourth as many
d)
Half as many
85.
A child will be a boy if ________________________
a)
It receives a Y chromosome from its mother.
b)
 It receives an X chromosome from its father.
c)
It receives a Y chromosome from its father.
d)
None of the above
86.
In fruit flies, the gene for red eyes (R) is dominant and the gene for sepia (r) is recessive. What are the possible combinations of genes in the offspring of two red-eyed heterozygous (Rr) flies?
a)
RR only
b)
rr only
c)
Rr and rr only
d)
RR, Rr, and rr only
87.
 If two parents are heterozygous for a trait, what is the probability or chance that one of their offspring will be homozygous for the recessive trait?
a)
3 out of 4
b)
1 out of 2
c)
1 out of 4
d)
0 out of 4
88.
G is the allele for dark green and is dominant. The allele for light green is g. If a frog with the alleles Gg mates with a frog with GG alleles, what percentage of the offspring will likely be light green?
a)
0.75
b)
0.5
c)
0.25
d)
0
89.
In a certain variety of chicken, the genes for black feather color and the genes for white feather color are codominant. This variety of chicken will most likely have_________________
a)
three possible phenotypes for feather color: black, white, and checkered.
b)
white feather color only.
c)
only two genotypes for feather color.
d)
black feather color only.
90.
A cross between two plants that have pink flowers produced plants that have red, pink, or white flowers. Which is the most likely explanation for these results?
a)
The inheritance pattern involved is incomplete dominance.
b)
Mutations occurred during gametogenesis.
c)
Crossing-over of white and red alleles occurred during meiosis.
d)
Nondisjunction of homologous pairs of chromosomes resulted in the production of abnormal offspring.
91.
Which cross could produce a child with type O blood?
a)
AO x BB
b)
AA x BO
c)
AB x OO
d)
AO x BO
92.
Albinism is a recessive trait. A man heterozygous for albinism marries a woman heterozygous for albinism. The chance that their first child will be albino is __________.
a)
0
b)
0.25
c)
0.5
d)
0.75
93.

A pea plant has heterozygous genes for height. According to Mendel’s law of segregation, which example correctly shows the gamete formation in the plant?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

94.
Which stage of meiosis does crossing over occur?
a)
Prophase I
b)
Prophase II
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Metaphase II
95.
DNA is replicated in _________________
a)
Prophase I
b)
Prophase II
c)
Telophase I
d)
Interphase
96.
Which process occurs in eukaryotic cells?
a)
meiosis
b)
mitosis
c)
both mitosis and meiosis
d)
neither mitosis nor meiosis
97.
Which process occurs in somatic cells?
a)
meiosis
b)
mitosis
c)
both mitosis and meiosis
d)
neither mitosis nor meiosis
98.
Which process increases the genetic variability in cells?
a)
meiosis
b)
mitosis
c)
both mitosis and meiosis
d)
neither mitosis nor meiosis
99.
In the scientific method, a manipulated variable (a variable that is changed in an experiment by you and is what you are testing) is called_____________________
a)
dependent variable
b)
independent variable
c)
hypothesis
d)
conclusion
100.
Which of the following shows the effect of the variable being tested?
a)
dependent variable
b)
control group
c)
experimental group
d)
conclusion
101.

Variation in human skin color is an example of

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

c)

polygenic trait

d)

multiple alleles

102.

Which of the following pairs of alleles shows a homozygous dominant genotype?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

103.

The base-pairing rules state that the following are base pairs in DNA

a)

adenine-thymine; uracil-cytosine

b)

adenine-thymine; guanine-cytosine

c)

adenine-guanine; thymine-cytosine

d)

adenine-uracil; guanine-cytosine

104.

Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid is called a

a)

mutagen

b)

codon

c)

anticodon

d)

exon

105.

What happens during the process of translation?

a)

messenger RNA is made from DNA

b)

the ribosome uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.

c)

transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA

d)

copies of DNA molecules are made

106.

DNA is copied during a process called

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

transcription

d)

transformation

107.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
108.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
109.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
110.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
111.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
112.
Which cellular process is shown?
a)
meiosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
mitosis
d)
phagocytosis
113.
What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
a)
Haploid cells
b)
Diploid Cells
c)
Skin Cells
d)
Liver Cells
114.
A chance occurrence that negatively affects a population because the population is small is 
a)
genetic drift
b)
mutation
c)
speciation
d)
migration
115.
What is a species? 
a)
A group of organisms that can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring. 
b)
A group of organisms that can mate and produce offspring even if those offspring are infertile.
c)
A group of organisms that genetically are very different from each other. 
d)
Indivual organisms that live in the same environment. 
116.

Which of the following have been changed or altered due to climate change ?

a)

droughts

b)

flooding

c)

melting of polar ice caps

d)

all of the above

117.
Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?
a)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960
b)
Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide
c)
humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels
d)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960
118.
What do humans do that releases greenhouse gases into the atmosphere?
a)
Burn fossil fuels (like gas and coal)
b)
Build cement buildings
c)
Ride bikes and use solar energy
d)
Compete in the Olympics
119.
Which natural process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
a)
forest fires
b)
volcanic eruptions
c)
cellular respiration
d)
photosynthesis
120.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
121.
The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is part of a gene. how many amino acids are coded for by this message?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
12
d)
20
122.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
123.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
124.
During interphase, a cell grows, duplicates organelles, and
a)
copies DNA
b)
divides the nucleus
c)
divides the cytoplasm
d)
produces a new cell
125.

Any change in the sequence of DNA is a

a)

recombination

b)

mutation

c)

chromatin

d)

independent assortment

126.
Who is considered the "father of genetics"?
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Reginald Punnett
c)
James Watson
d)
Justin Bieber
127.
Mark is a tall, 11 year old boy. He has a scar on his right cheek. He is intelligent and an excellent drummer. Which of his traits did he most likely inherit?
a)
height
b)
the scar
c)
his intelligence
d)
ability to play drums
128.
When an organism completely dies out, it is called.....
a)
Adaption
b)
Extinction
c)
Fossilization
d)
Mutation
129.
In a cross of two heterozygous parents, what proportion of the offspring will also be heterozygous?
a)
50%
b)
100%
c)
0%
d)
75%
130.

The first species to inhabit an area after a disturbance is a(n)

a)

invasive species

b)

pioneer species

c)

parasites

d)

abiotic component

131.

Replacement of one type of community by another at a single place over time

a)

cooperatio

b)

symbiosis

c)

competition

d)

ecological succession

132.
The phase in mitosis where chromosomes move away and are pulled apart by spindles to opposite sides of the cell.
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
telephase
133.

Which type of vesicle has powerful enzymes to help it digest old cell parts and foreign particles?

a)

vacuoles

b)

plasma membrane

c)

lysosomes

d)

chloroplasts

134.

Some cells, such as human nerve cells and human muscle cells, contain more mitochondria than do other cells, such as skin cells.

Why do some cells have more mitochondria than others?

a)

The cells use more energy than others.

b)

The cells store more nutrients.

c)

The cells break down or degrade more proteins.

d)

The cells divide more frequently.

135.

Which are membrane-bound containers that transport items in the cell?

a)

ribosomes

b)

vesicles

c)

mitochondria

d)

nucleolus

136.

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum does which of the following? Check all that apply.

a)

Makes proteins

b)

transports proteins

c)

Makes enzymes for calcium regulation and detoxification

d)

Makes lipids like steroids for the cell.

137.

All cells contain... (check all that apply)

a)

Cell membrane

b)

ribosomes

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum

d)

DNA

138.

Protein synthesis takes place on the

a)

ribosomes

b)

Golgi body

c)

chromosomes

d)

nucleolus

139.

Examples of organelles seen in plant cells, but NOT seen in animal cells is

a)

chloroplasts and cytoplasm

b)

chloroplasts and cell wall

c)

ribosomes and cell wall

d)

ribosomes and cytoplasm

140.

A prokaryote is an organism that

a)

lacks a cellular nucleus

b)

has a cell wall

c)

is very small

d)

All three-lacks a cellular nucleus, has a cell wall, and is very small.

141.

Cells of animals, plants, fungi, and protists are all?

a)

nucleoid

b)

prokaryote

c)

archaea

d)

eukaryotes

142.
What are the two broad categories of cells?
a)
prokaryotic and eukaryotic
b)
prokaryote and nucleoid
c)
eukaryotes and cells
d)
bacteria and archaea
143.

What does not require energy? Choose all that apply.

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Exocytosis

144.
The cell membrane (also called the plasma membrane) is which of the following?
a)
Permeable
b)
Selectively permeable
c)
Not permeable
d)
Unchanging
145.

What organ is represent by letter A?

(a)  

146.

What organ is represent by letter C?

(a)  

147.

What organ is represent by letter G?

(a)  

148.

What organ is represent by letter B?

(a)  

149.

What organ is represent by letter D?

(a)  

150.

What organ is represent by letter E?

(a)  

151.

What organ is represent by letter F?

a)

testis

b)

ovaries

c)

kidney

d)

esophagus

152.

Which feature moistens and protects the eye?

a)

Chromatophore

b)

tympanum

c)

nictitating membrane

d)

nares

153.

What is structure C?

a)

the stomach

b)

the oviduct

c)

the small intestine

d)

the large intestine

154.

What is the function of structure B?

a)

Structure B take in oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide

b)

Structure B causes air to enter the lungs when it contracts

c)

Structure B pumps blood to the lungs and body

d)

Structure B rids the body of waste

155.

What is structure B?

a)

the esophagus

b)

the voice box

c)

the trachea

d)

the lungs

156.

What body system does structure A belong to?

a)

reproductive system

b)

digestive system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

circulatory system

157.

What organ is structure C?

a)

Eggs

b)

liver

c)

lungs

d)

heart

158.

What organ is structure B?

a)

Eggs

b)

liver

c)

lungs

d)

heart

159.

What organ is structure A?

a)

Eggs

b)

liver

c)

lungs

d)

heart

160.

What body system does structure C belong to?

a)

reproductive system

b)

digestive system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

circulatory system

161.
Largest organ in frog's body
a)
heart
b)
Small intestine
c)
large intestine
d)
liver
162.
Name this organ...
a)
kidneys
b)
lungs
c)
liver
d)
pancreas
163.
Name this organ...(these were more yellow in our frogs)
a)
Fatty bodies
b)
liver
c)
small intestine
d)
pancreas
164.
Name this organ..
a)
Mouth
b)
Eardrum
c)
Tongue
d)
Teeth
165.
Name this organ...
a)
Brain
b)
Lungs
c)
Teeth
d)
Eardrum (tympanum)
166.
Name this organ...
a)
Small intestine
b)
Large intestine
c)
Liver
d)
Spleen
167.
Which is the largest organ with 3 lobes seen here?
a)
The heart
b)
The liver
c)
The stomach
d)
The spleen
168.
Frogs have a heart with ________chambers
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
169.
Identify the structure indicated by number 3
a)
Eustachian tubes
b)
Glottis
c)
Maxillary Teeth
d)
Vomarine Teeth
170.
Identify the structure indicated by number 6
a)
Eustachian Tubes
b)
Glottis
c)
Esophagus
d)
Tympanic membrane
171.

How many lobes does a frog liver have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

172.

Which digestive structure is this?

a)

Brain

b)

Lungs

c)

Heart

d)

Large Intestine

173.

Name the structure indicated by the RED line.

a)

Large Intestine

b)

Maxillary Teeth

c)

Kidney

d)

Stomach

174.

The synthesis of a new double strand of DNA begins when the two strands of the original DNA...

a)

are separated by the breaking of hydrogen bonds between nitrogen bases

b)

acts as a template

c)

attracts a nitrogen base

d)

destroys the entire genetic code

175.

After DNA replication, the two DNA molecules that are made...

a)

are opposite

b)

are identical

c)

leave the nucleus

d)

cannot replicate again

176.

cytosine and thymine are...

a)

phosphates

b)

nucleic acids

c)

purines

d)

pyrimidines

177.

The two strands of a DNA double helix molecule are...

a)

purines

b)

pyrimidines

c)

complementary

d)

identical

178.

A nucleotide consists of which of the following:

a)

nitrogen base

b)

5 carbon sugar

c)

phosphate group

d)

polymerase

179.

New mRNA is made through the process of:

a)

transcription

b)

duplication

c)

translation

d)

crystallography

180.

Each combination of three nitrogen bases on messenger RNA forms a:

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

enzyme

d)

nucleic acid

181.

In messenger RNA, each codon specifies a particular:

a)

nucleotide

b)

purine

c)

amino acid

d)

pyrimidine

182.

Which does not carry out its function and is not present in the ribosomes?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

DNA

183.

The genetic code of an organism is determined by:

a)

The number of amino acids in its cell

b)

The speed at which polypeptides are produced

c)

The sequence and number of nitrogen bases in its DNA

d)

The shape of ribosomes in its cell

184.

Which of the following 3' strands is complementary to this 5' strand?

5' ACCAGTTGCGCA 3'

a)

3' TGGTCAACGCGT 5'

b)

3' ACCAGTTGCGCA 5'

c)

3' TGGTCATGCGCA 5'

d)

3' ACCAGTACGCGT 5'

185.

Which of these is not one of the nitrogenous bases in DNA nucleotides?

a)

thymine

b)

uracil

c)

adenine

d)

cytosine

186.

What is semiconservative replication?

a)

a method of DNA replication in which parental strands separate, act as templates and produce molecules of DNA with one parental DNA strand and one new DNA strand

b)

a method of RNA replication in which parental strands separate, act as templates and produce molecules of RNA with one parental RNA strand and one new RNA strand

c)

the method by with RNA is synthesized from a DNA template

d)

the method by which a strand of mRNA is translated into a peptide

187.

If a molecule of DNA contains 40% guanine, then how much thymine will it have?

a)

80%

b)

40%

c)

20%

d)

10%

188.

The deliberate exposure of the body to an antigen to build future immunity is called __.

a)

cellular defense

b)

passive immunity

c)

phagocytosis

d)

immunization

189.

What is a common example of passive immunity?

a)

vaccination results in memory cells

b)

lysozyme kills pathogens

c)

mother's antibodies given to fetus through breast milk

d)

skin keeps bacteria from entering body

190.

What role do cytotoxic T cells play in immune response?

a)

destroy pathogens and release cytokines

b)

binds to processed antigens and B cells

c)

prevents immunization from occurring

d)

produces lysozymes to break down cell walls

191.

Which of the following is a factor in natural selection?

a)

Individuals of species compete with one another to survive

b)

All species are genetically diverse

c)

Individuals better able to adapt to changes leave more offspring.

d)

All of the above.

192.

The fossil record provides evidence that

a)

Fossils cannot be dated.

b)

All species were formed during Earth’s formation and have changed little since then.

c)

The fossilized species have no connection to today’s species.

d)

Older species gave rise to more-recent species.

193.

The process in which organisms with traits well suited to an environment are more

likely to survive and to produce offspring is

a)

Natural selection.

b)

Origin of species.

c)

Genetic principles.

d)

Trait mechanism.

194.

The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs gradually over time as a slow and constant process is known as

a)

Speciation

b)

Punctuated equilibrium

c)

Gradualism

d)

Microevolution

195.

An inherited trait or behavior that has become common in a population because it

allows you to survive (like different bird beaks for different food types) is an example of

a)

Natural selection

b)

Gradualism

c)

Adaptation

d)

Population

196.

Darwin and Lamarck agreed that changes in species are linked to

a)

Environmental conditions

b)

Genetics

c)

Use or Disuse of physical features

d)

Acquired characteristics

197.

Structures that share a common ancestry or are similar because they are modified versions of structures from a common ancestor that contain the same basic bone structure (so the same radius, ulna, and humerus bones) are

a)

Not homologous

b)

Homologous

c)

Not related

d)

Vestigal

198.

Structures with no function (like dewclaws) that are remnants of an organism’s evolutionary past are

a)

Homologous

b)

Analagous

c)

Vestigal

d)

Not visible in organisms

199.

Natural selection causes the frequency of favorable alleles (which can cause favorable traits) to

a)

Vary widely in a population

b)

Decrease in a population

c)

Remain constant in a population

d)

Increase in a population

200.

The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs in periods of rapid change separated by periods of little or no change is called

a)

Divergence

b)

Punctuated equilibrium

c)

Isolation

d)

Gradualism

201.

Starting in 1954, commercial fishers in the northwest Pacific were paid by weight, rather

than by the individual fish, for pink salmon. The fishers increased the use of a type of net that

selectively catches larger fish so that way they would only hunt and kill large body size salmon.

Which of the following effects did this change in fishing technique most likely have on the

salmon population over the next 20 years?

a)

The average body size of the males in the salmon population increased, and the females stayed

the same

b)

The average body size of the salmon population decreased significantly.

c)

The average body size of the salmon population increased significantly.

d)

None of these three things

202.

Some willow trees alter the chemical composition of their leaves when attacked by

caterpillars. Compared to normal leaves, the chemically altered leaves are less nutritious and more difficult for caterpillars to digest.

Which of the following is a likely effect of this ability to alter leaf composition?

a)

Willow trees with this ability will attract more caterpillars than other willow trees.

b)

More butterflies will lay their eggs on willow trees with this ability than other willow

trees

c)

Willow trees with this ability have a survival advantage over other willow trees.

d)

None of these choices

203.

Which directly controls a person’s decision to use the bicep muscles (a skeletal muscle part of the PNS/peripheral nervous system) to lift weights?

a)

parasympathetic nervous system (part of PNS)

b)

somatic nervous system (part of PNS)

c)

autonomic nervous system (part of PNS)

d)

Central nervous system/CNS

204.

The spinal cord is part of a major division of the nervous system called the

a)

Central Nervous System (CNS)

b)

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

c)

Autonomic Nervous System

d)

Somatic Nervous System

205.

What is the name of the blue structure

a)

axon terminal

b)

dendrite

c)

schwann cell

d)

axon

206.

what might be a job of a motor neuron?

a)

carry impulses from spinal cord and brain to muscles and glands

b)

sending messages from motor neurons to sensory neurons

c)

sending a message toward your brain from the spinal cord

d)

carry impulses from the sensory organs to the spinal cord and brain

207.

The PNS (peripheral nervous system)

a)

contains the brain and spinal cord

b)

contains all the nerves of the body

c)

is divided into the somatic and autonomic systems

d)

is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions

208.

The pink structure is the.....

a)

frontal lobe

b)

occipital lobe

c)

parietal lobe

d)

temporal lobe

209.

The two major parts of the nervous system are the

a)

brain and spinal cord

b)

central and somatic nervous systems

c)

sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

d)

peripheral and central nervous systems

210.

What part of the neuron is number 4 pointing at?

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon Terminal

c)

Axon

d)

Myelin Sheath

211.

This part of the neuron receives chemical messages from the neurotransmitters of other neurons. It is labeled A in the diagram.

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Cell Body

212.

The long, fiber like part of a neuron which the cell sends information to receiving neurons. Labelled D in diagram.

a)

Synapse

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Dendrite

213.

What structure is grey in this picture. It controls conscious thought and memory?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brain Stem

214.

__________ carry messages between sensory neurons and motor neurons.

a)

Active Neurons

b)

Interneurons

c)

Refraction Neurons

d)

Flower Neurons

215.

An electrical transmission across neurons is called...

a)

Electrical signal

b)

Nerve impulse

c)

Neurotransmitter

d)

Axon terminal

216.
The nerve impulse is an electrical current that travels along dendrites or axons.
a)
True 
b)
False
217.
What is the insulating membrane that surrounds parts of the axon that helps the impulses travel faster called?
a)
Axon
b)
Dendrites
c)
Node of Ranvier
d)
Myelin Sheath
218.

What is letter X called? It is the specialized connection between the neurons during neuron communication.

a)

Axon Terminal Button

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

Dendrite

d)

Synapse

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Keystone Biology Game Pt. 2

219 questions

Keystone Biology Game Pt. 2

quiz

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9th Grade