WorksheetsDiagnostic test part II.
Total questions: 48
Worksheet time: 26mins
1. This is a node that allows traffic to flow in and out of the network.
a. Bridgeway
b. Link
c. Server
d. Gateway
2. A _______________ is a device that is used to connect two packet-switched networks or subnetworks.
a. access point
b. modem
c. router
d. switch
3. Which OSI layer defines how to start, control, and end conversations?
a. Application
b. Network
c. Session
d. Presentation
4. What is a data link layer communication protocol between two routers directly without any host or any other networking in between. It can provide connection authentication, transmission encryption, and data compression?
a. PPP
b. L2TP
c. PPTP
d. IPSec
5. Latency means the time it takes for a small data set to be transmitted from your device to a server on the Internet and back to your device again.
a. True
b. False, Ping
c. False, TTL (time-to-live)
d. None of the above
6. This is colloquially termed a web address. It is a reference to a web resource that specifies its location on a computer network and a mechanism for retrieving it.
a. Uniform Routing Locator
b. Universal Resource Locator
c. Uniform Resource Locator
d. Uniform Router Locator
7. What is a form of computer memory that can be read and changed in any order, typically used to store working data and machine code?
a. NVRAM
b. FLASH
c. ROM
d. RAM
8. _____________ is the measure of the number of changes to the signal (per second) that propagate through a transmission medium.
a. Bit rate
b. Baud rate
c. Communication rate
d. Data transfer rate
9. ________ is a compact, hot-swappable network interface module for a media-specific transceiver in order to connect fiber-optic cable.
a. Simple Form-Factor Pluggable Module
b. Silicon Fiber Programmable Module
c. Small Form-Factor Pluggable Module
d. Small Form-Factor Programmable Module
10. This is a framework of related protocols that secure communications at the packet processing layer. It enables data confidentiality, integrity, origin authentication and anti-replay.
a. SSL
b. IPSec
c. VPN
d. AES
11. What protocol in the TCP/IP suite can detect/learn the MAC addresses of a computer that is associated with a particular IP address?
A. DHCP
B. ARP
C. RARP
D. APR
12. What is the process of sending data one bit at a time, sequentially, over a communication channel or computer bus?
a. serial communication
b. synchronous data transfer
c. data communication
d. asynchronous data transfer
13. Which connection is made to a server and maintained until the user terminates the connection?
A. uploading attachments on your email
B. an FTP connection
C. downloading a web page
D. accessing a shared drive
14. Syslog is a protocol for collecting and organizing information about managed devices on IP networks and for modifying that information to change the device behavior.
a. True
b. False, it should be Network Device Manager
c. False, it should be SNMP
d. False, it should be Event Viewer
15. This is method allows reuse of public IPV4 addresses so that multiple intranet users can access the Internet using only one public IP address.
a. PAT
b. NAT
c. ARP
d. VLSM
II. Windows
1. Which is the correct command to check successful connection:
a. netstat -an
b. netstat -an |find /i "161"
c. netstat | findstr ESTABLISHED
d. netstat –o | findstr
2. Which commands should I use to know if a certain IP is reachable?
a. arp
b. tracert
c. ping
d. nslookup
3. True or False: Windows Services can allow you to see the running applications/processes.
a. True
b. False, Computer Management
c. False, Task Manager
d. None of the above
4. Which of the following command opens the Remote Desktop Connection?
a. rdp
b. Mstsc
c. Rdpservices.msc
d. rdpservices.msc
5. Which of the following is not a Windows command?
a. cd ~
b. cd .
c. tar
d. pwd
6. Which tool would you use to retrieve detailed information about a significant occurrence on your server?
a. Computer Management
b. Windows Services
c. Task Manager
d. Event Viewer
7. Which task is executed during the Power-On Self Test (POST)?
a. The Master Boot Record is created.
b. The operating system is initialized.
c. The amount of system RAM is detected.
d. All of the above
8. You manage a company's Active Directory. You need to delegate the control of a branch office to a set of administrators. Where would you place the users and computers that belong to the branch office?
a. In a distribution group
b. In the root of the domain
c. In a Container
d. In an Organizational Unit
9. What is the minimum Windows Server version on which Hyper-V can be installed?
a. 2003 32-bit
b. 2008 64-bit
c. 2003 64-bit
d. 2008 32-bit
10. What is the default port for HTTPS?
a. 135
b. 80
c. 443
d. 8080
11. A ________ is an environment that works like a computer within a computer. It runs on an isolated partition of its host server with its own resources of CPU power, memory, an operating system, and other resources
a. Virtual Machine
b. ESXi Server
c. Host Machine
d. Hypervisor
12. __________ is a kind of emulator. It is a computer software/firmware/hardware that creates, runs, and manages virtual machines.
a. Virtual Machine
b. ESXi Server
c. Host Machine
d. Hypervisor
13. The server on which one or more virtual machines run is called _________
a. Virtual Machine
b. ESXi Server
c. Host Machine
d. Hypervisor
III. Linux
1. Where do users arrive after executing exit command on Linux?
a. Login screen
b. DOS Box
c. Logout screen
d. Login prompt
e. None of the above
2. How to unzip files in Linux?
a. sudo unzip latest.zip -d /var/www
b. unzip latest.zip
c. unzip -o filename.zip
d. unzip -n filename.zip
d. unzip -n filename.zip
3. Which command will show the contents of a directory?
a. dir
b. ls
c. show
d. dir *.*
4. Which of the command is not an editor?
a. :q
b. tar
c. vi
d. vim
5. What command should I run to get to command line interface?
a. cmd
b. dos
c. powershell
d. cli
6. The core of Linux operating system is _________.
a. Shell
b. Kernel
c. BASH
d. Terminal
7. Which of the following directory contains configuration files in Linux
a. /etc/
b. /dev/
c. /bin/
d. /root/
8. What is the command used to exit from terminal
a. CTRL + t
b. CTRL + exit
c. CTRL + d
d. CTRL + e
9. What is the command to navigate to the home directory?
a. cd ~
b. cd ..
c. cd –
d. cd /
10. What is the command used to change, read, write, and execute permissions of files and directories?
a. chown
b. cd
c. tar
d. chmod
IV. Database
1. Which of the following is generally used for performing tasks like creating the structure of the relations, deleting relation?
a. DML(Data Manipulation Language)
b. Query
c. Relational Schema
d. DDL(Data Definition Language)
2. The term "FAT" is stands for_____
a. File Allocation Table
b. File Allocation Tree
c. File Allocation Graph
d. None of the above
3. Which of the following is not an SQL command?
a. Select
b. DIR
c. Delete
d. Use
e. None of the above
4. Which one of the following commands is used for removing (or deleting) a relation forms the SQL database?
a. Delete
b. Remove
c. Drop
d. All of the above
5. A set of pre-compiled SQL Statements, executed when it is called in the program.
a. Trigger
b. Stored Procedure
c. Scripts
d. Bash
e. None of the above
6. Which of the following commands is used to save any transaction permanently into the database?
a. Save
b. Commit
c. Write
d. Savepoint
7. The key that uniquely identifies each record is called:
a. Primary Key
b. Key Record
c. Unique Key
d. Field Name
8. In a database table, each category of information is called _________.
a. Tuple
b. Field
c. Record
d. None of the above
9. Which of the following is not a database model?
a. Network Database Model
b. Relational Database Model
c. Object-oriented Database Model
d. None of the above
10. The overall description of a database is called ________.
a. Database integrity
b. Data Manipulation
c. Database Schema
d. Database Definition
