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MCAS review

Total questions: 216

Worksheet time: 5hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following processes includes all of the others?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Passive transport

d)

Diffusion of a solute across a membrane

2.
___________ form the two layers of the cell membrane. 
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
3.
It forms a boundary between the inside of the cell and the outside of the cell. 
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Lipid Cleric Layer
c)
Membrane Gate
d)
Protein Receptors 
4.
How does a cell maintain homeostasis?
a)
Regulates what enters and leaves the cell
b)
Flexibility
c)
Protective barrier
d)
Structure and support
5.
The basic unit of structure and function in a living things.
a)
chloroplast
b)
nucleus
c)
cell
d)
cell membrane
6.
Which way will the water molecules move during osmosis?
a)
Out of the cell, so the cell shrinks.
b)
Out of the cell, so the cell swells.
c)
Into the cell, so the cell shrinks.
d)
Into the cell, so the cell swells.
7.
How many diamond molecules need to move to reach equilibrium?
a)
A net of 2 molecules move inside the cell.
b)
A net of 2 molecules move outside the cell.
c)
There is no net movement because the molecules are at equilibrium.
d)
The molecules do not move.
8.
In the given scenario what will happen?  An egg is placed in pure water for 48 hours.
a)
The egg will gain water and swell.
b)
Water will move in and out of the cell equally, and the cell with neither shrink nor swell.
c)
The egg will lose water and shrink.
9.
In the given scenario what will happen to the organism: salt is poured onto eggplant.
a)
Water will move out of the eggplant cells and the cells will shrink.
b)
Water will move out of the eggplant cells and the cells will swell.
c)
Water will move into the eggplant cells and the cells will swell.
10.
What is the definition of Equilibrium?
a)
the process that brings LARGE particles INTO the cell through the cell membrane
b)
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration (where the molecules are more crowded together) to a area of low concentration (where molecules are more spread apart)
c)
the state where molecules are equally concentrated (balanced) on both sides of the cell membrane.
d)
the movement of WATER molecules across the cell membrane.
11.
In what part of the plant cell does the process of photosynthesis take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplasts
d)
vacuoles
12.
Which organelle performs PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Mitochondria
13.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
14.
What process occurs when light energy is captured in autotrophs and converted into sugar?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Cellular Respiration
15.
What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for living things
a)
Sugar
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Carbon Dioxide
16.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
17.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
18.
Examples of a producer
a)
frog
b)
algae
c)
worm
d)
mouse
19.
Example of a decomposer
a)
fungus
b)
mouse
c)
plants
d)
frogs
20.
What is a producer?
a)
an organism that gets energy from eating other organisms
b)
an organisms that uses sunlight to make its own food
c)
an organism that gets energy from eating dead organisms, non-living material or waste
d)
an organism that uses chemical energy to make its own food
21.
The shrew provides energy for the _______?
a)
cricket
b)
grasshopper
c)
frog
d)
snake
22.
Which of the following is a herbivore?
a)
cricket
b)
frog
c)
hawk
d)
shrew
23.
Which best describes what a food chain shows you?
a)
Energy flow through an ecosystem
b)
Food flowing through an ecosystem
c)
Consumers going into other consumers
d)
Who eats who
24.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
25.
The rabbit in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Decomposer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
26.
In this Food Web Pyramid Which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Omnivore
d)
Secondary Consumer
27.
What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a biological community?
a)
energy path
b)
food web
c)
trophic level
d)
food pyramid
28.
The amount of energy that usually transfers from one trophic level to the next...
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
50%
29.
As you move upward, from level to level, in an energy pyramid, energy _____.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
d)
increases exponentially
30.
a relationship between two in which one species, the predator, feeds on the other species, the prey
a)
chemosynthesis
b)
predation
c)
cellular respiration 
d)
commensalism
31.
symbiotic relationship in which one organisms benefits and the other organism is not affected
a)
invasive (non-native) species
b)
mutualism 
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
commensalism
32.
A pond ecosystem is shown in the diagram below. Which statement describes an interaction that helps maintain the dynamic equilibrium of this ecosystem?
Which statement describes an interaction that helps maintain the dynamic equilibrium of this ecosystem?
a)
The frogs make energy available to this ecosystem through the process of photosynthesis.
b)
The algae directly provide food for both the rotifers and the catfish.
c)
The green-backed heron provides energy for the mosquito larvae.
d)
The catfish population helps control the populations of water boatman and waterfleas.
33.
What may happen if the snowshoe hare was removed from the food web pictured?
a)
The insects in the habitat would increase.
b)
The shrew population would decrease due to being only hawk food source.
c)
The willow tree population would decrease.
d)
Foxes would dies due to no food source. 
34.
The graph below shows population data for two species.  What can be said about the relationship between species 1 and species 2?
a)
When the population of species 1 increases, the population of species 2 decreases.
b)
The population of species 1 and species 2 stay the same over the time period shown.
c)
The population of species 1 is not influenced by the population of species 2.
d)
When the population of species 1 increases, the population of species 2 increases.
35.

Which species will have the largest population?

a)

Hawks

b)

Snakes

c)

Rabbits

d)

Grass

36.

Which species is the 2nd level consumer?

a)

Sharks

b)

Mackerel

c)

Herring

d)

Crustaceans

37.

A relationship in which both species benefit is called...

a)

Parasitism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Mutualism

38.

In the wild, some alligators gets their teeth cleaned by birds. The birds gets their food from the alligators' teeth.

What type of symbiosis is this?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Neutralism

39.

Barnacles are animals that cannot move. In order to get food, they attach to whales and catch any floating plankton in the water. The whale is neither helped nor harmed in the interaction. What type of symbiosis is this?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Neutralism

40.
phenotypes that is a blend of the heterozygous gene pair
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
multiple alleles
c)
regulatory genes
41.
shows even if only one parent passes on the gene
a)
recessive
b)
regulatory gene
c)
dominant
42.
the following letters are an example of _______  dd
a)
recessive
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
homozygous dominant
d)
dominant
43.
Dd letters are an example of....
a)
heterozygous genes
b)
homozygous genes
c)
dominant genes
d)
recessive genes
44.
Two heterozygous (Tt)tall pea plants are crossed. Which describes their offspring?
a)
50% tall and 50% short
b)
75%tall and 25% short
c)
100%short
45.
What is heredity?
a)
A kind of genetic disorder
b)
The way DNA divides
c)
A trait you inherit from your parents
d)
The passing down of traits from parents to children
46.
Put in order smallest to largest:
a)
Chromosome - DNA - Gene
b)
Gene - DNA - Chromosome 
c)
DNA - Gene  Chromosome
d)
Chromosome - Gene  - DNA
47.

What goes in box 3

a)

Aabb

b)

AABB

c)

AAbb

d)

aaBb

48.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
49.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
50.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What is the sex and eye color of flies with the following genotype: X R X r ?

a)

male with white eyes

b)

female with red eyes

c)

male with red eyes

d)

female with white eyes

51.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What is the sex and eye color of flies with the following genotype: X R Y ?

a)

male with white eyes

b)

female with white eyes

c)

male with red eyes

d)

female with red eyes

52.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
53.
How are individuals III-2 and II-4 related?
a)
Cousins
b)
Dad and Daughter
c)
Uncle and Niece
d)
Grandpa and Granddaughter
54.

What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?

a)

Sex-Linked Dominant

b)

Sex-Linked Recessive

c)

Autosomal Dominant

d)

Autosomal Recessive

55.

If this pedigree shows a recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual 4 be?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

56.
In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?
a)
circle
b)
square
c)
triangle
d)
diamond
57.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
58.
There are no carriers for Huntington's Disease- you either have it or you don't. Is Huntington's disease caused by a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
59.
How are individuals I-2 and III-5 related?
a)
Grandpa and grandson
b)
Mom and son
c)
Uncle and nephew
d)
Grandma and grandson
60.
Huntington's Disease is a dominant trait.
What is the correct genotype for individual I-2?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
H_
61.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
62.

What type of evidence is represented in the picture above:

a)

Fossils

b)

Vestigial Structures

c)

DNA

d)

Homologous Structures

63.

What type of evidence is shown in this picture?

a)

Fossils

b)

Homologous Structures

c)

Vestigial Structures

d)

DNA

64.
The similarities of the bones in the diagram provide evidence that---
a)
The organisms shown lived in the same natural envionrment
b)
The organisms shown may have developed from a common ancestor
c)
The organisms shown have the same genetic diseases
d)
All vertebrate species have identical forelimbs
65.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
66.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
67.
What process is being shown in this image?
a)
Variation
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Homeostasis
68.

The process by which two populations of the same species become so different that they can no longer interbreed.

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

speciation

d)

fossilization

69.

A species is defined as:

a)

a group of organisms that are extremely different.

b)

a group of organisms that have similar characteristics and always live in the same place.

c)

a group of organisms with similar characteristics and can reproduce to make fertile offspring.

d)

any two organisms to make a hybrid.

70.
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection? 
a)
People selectively breeding hamsters.
b)
Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.
c)
Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
d)
Male birds of certain species developing colorful feathers to attract female mates.
71.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
72.

The longnose butterfly fish has a dark spot near its tail that looks like an eye. Its "eyespot" makes predators think they are attacking the head rather than the tail. Why does the longnose butterfly fish have an evolutionary advantage over other fish?

a)

It is more effective at finding mates than other fish.

b)

It is more effective at catching shrimp and worms than other fish.

c)

It is likely to produce more offspring that survive to maturity.

d)

It uses less energy to swim than other fish.

73.
Genetic drift is change in the allele frequency of a population due to...
a)
random chance
b)
natural selection
c)
non-random mating (sexual selection)
d)
artificial selection
74.
 Genetic Drift is more likely to happen in... 
a)
aquatic populations
b)
small populations
c)
terrestrial populations
d)
older populations
75.
This mechanism of evolution occurs when individuals migrate between populations.
a)
Extinction
b)
Gene flow
c)
Genetic drift
d)
Natural Selection
76.
A virus killed most of the seals in the North Sea (e.g. dropped the population from 8000 to 800).  In an effort to help preserve the species, scientists caught 20 of the remaining seals and used them to start a new population in the northwest Pacific Ocean.  Which of the following statements would accurately describe the new   population?  
a)
The new seal population is genetically less diverse than the original population 
b)
The new seal population is genetically more diverse than the original population
c)
There is equal genetic variety compared  to the original population 
d)
None of the answers
77.
Which of the following is an example of the bottle neck effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
78.

Which of the following is an example of natural selection?

a)

Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.

b)

Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.

c)

Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.

d)

Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year. This results in larger apples from year to year.

79.
A change in the genetic composition of a population as a result of descending from a small number of colonizing individuals is called:
a)
founder effect
b)
bottleneck
c)
genetic drift
d)
gene flow
80.
Natural selection states that organisms are best suited for their environment if they ____________ and ____________.
a)
Survive and Reproduce
b)
Survive and Predate
c)
Survive and Parasitize
d)
Survive and Adapt
81.
Gene Flow tends to ___________ genetic variation (diversity)
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
Stabilize
d)
Exaggerate 
82.

Genetic drift (bottleneck or founder) tends to ___________ genetic variation (diversity)

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stabilize

d)

Exaggerate

83.
In recent years "SuperBugs" (bacteria that aren't effected by antibiotics) are becoming more and more common. How could natural selection explain this?
a)
Superbugs survive antibiotics and reproduce
b)
Antibiotics cause bacteria to become superbugs
c)
We have always had the same amount of superbugs; modern media just discusses them more.
d)
There is no reliable data on the origin of super bugs.
84.
Which of these is an example of natural selection?
a)
The largest animal in a population will have more opportunities for reproduction.
b)
Several species of organisms work together so that they all succeed.
c)
One species takes all the resources in an environment leaving none for others.
d)
Organism that are best suited to an environment tend to survive and reproduce more often.
85.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
86.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
87.

What are the products of cellular respiration?

a)

water and glucose

b)

oxygen and water

c)

CO2 and H2O

d)

oxygen and glucose

88.
What is Anaerobic Respiration?
a)
process of producing energy without oxygen.
b)
process of producing energy with oxygen.
89.
Energy is released from ATP when
a)
a phosphate group is added
b)
adenine bonds to ribose
c)
ATP is exposed to sunlight
d)
a phosphate group is removed
90.
What is the function of ATP in living things?
a)
provides energy for cells
b)
stores genetic information
c)
provides structure in the nucleus
91.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
92.
In DNA, Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
93.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
94.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
95.
What is responsible for holding the two strands of the DNA double helix together?
a)
hydrogen bonds
b)
alleles
c)
London dispersion forces
d)
deoxyribose sugars
96.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
97.

In eukaryotes, where is DNA located?

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleus

98.
DNA is a polymer made of:
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Purines
d)
Pyrimidines
99.

What type of mutation is shown in the diagram?

a)

Point mutation - missense

b)

Frameshift Mutation - deletion

c)

Frameshift Mutation - addition

d)

Point mutation - nonsense

100.

Which type of mutation occurs when there is an addition or removal of a base?

a)

chromosomal mutation

b)

silent mutation

c)

frameshift mutation

d)

translocation mutation

101.

Occurs when the DNA change does not alter the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide.

a)

Frameshift Mutation

b)

Insertion

c)

Missense mutation

d)

Silent Mutation

102.

Name the process happening at number 1 in the diagram.

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Mutation

d)

Transcription

103.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
104.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
105.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
106.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
107.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
108.

What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Leucine

d)

Stop codon

109.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
110.

Where is the location of transcription in the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

d)

mitochondria

111.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
112.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAAGTACGT
a)
ACCGTTCATGCA
b)
UGGCAAGUACGU
c)
UCCGUUCUUGCU
d)
ACCGUUCAUGCA
113.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
114.
How many codons are needed to specify for five amino acids?
a)
3
b)
5
c)
15
d)
30
115.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
116.
_______ is made during transcription and ________ is made during translation.
a)
mRNA / a protein
b)
a protein / mRNA
c)
Ribosome / Nucleus
d)
mRNA / tRNA
117.
Amino acids are the building blocks of... 
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Atoms
d)
Proteins
118.
When transferring tRNA to amino acids, the process cannot begin until it reaches a...
a)
Beginning codon
b)
Start codon 
c)
Initiator codon
d)
Anticodon
119.
The element _______is found in all of the organic compounds.
a)
Iron
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Carbon
d)
Oxygen
120.
_________ are composed out of carbon (C), hydrogen (H), oxygen (O), nitrogen (N), and phosphorus (P)
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
121.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
122.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
123.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
124.
Which macromolecule is shown?
 View Figure 1 (if not visible)
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
125.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
126.
What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
127.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
128.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
129.
This is one job proteins do NOT have in the body
a)
insulation
b)
structure for tissues and organs
c)
speed up chemical reactions
d)
transport things through cell membrane
130.
What suffix (word ending) is used in the names of most carbohydrates?
a)
-ase
b)
-nic
c)
-ose
d)
-yme
131.
What is the correct name of the macromolecule in the diagram below and what is its correct function?
a)
Nucleic acid/ Storage of energy
b)
Protein/ Formation of enzymes
c)
Nucleic acid/ Contains genetic information
d)
Lipid/ Water soluble membranes
132.
All polymers are made up of...
a)
monosaccharides
b)
monomers
c)

proteins

d)
None of these
133.

In a test of pH levels, a baking soda has a pH of 9 and bleach has a pH of 12. What is true about there relationship?

a)

Both of the solution are Bases

b)

Both of the solution are Acids

c)

The Baking soda is an acid and the Bleach is a base

d)

The baking soda is a base and the Bleach is an Acid.

134.

A base is a substance

a)

That releases OH- ions when dissolved in water

b)

That releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

c)

Does not release any ions when dissolved in water

d)

None of the above

135.

In a test of pH levels, a baking soda has a pH of 9 and bleach has a pH of 12. What is the difference of H+ ions between baking soda and bleach?

a)

1,000x

b)

3x

c)

30x

d)

10,000x

136.

On the pH scale higher numbers indicate

a)

acids

b)

bases

c)

neutral

137.

An acid

a)

is a substance that releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

b)

is a substance that does not release any ions when dissolved in water

c)

is a substance that releases OH- when dissolved in water

d)

releases an equal amount of OH- and H+ ions when dissolved in water

138.
Bleach is a strong base, what is the pH level of bleach?
a)
13
b)
14
c)
1
d)
2
139.
According to the pH range which substance is more acidic than lemon juice
a)
Hydrochloric acid
b)
cabbage
c)
milk
140.
What is the purpose  of an enzyme?
a)
give permission for the reaction
b)
raise activation energy
c)
speed up reactions
d)
control how many reactions occur
141.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
142.
Enzymes are capable of increasing the rate of a chemical reaction within a living cell.  Enzymes accomplish this through which of the following means?
a)
reducing the number of products   
b)
reducing the activation energy
c)
increasing the temperature of the cell
d)
increasing the concentration of reactants 
143.
What is structure A?
a)
Substrate
b)
Active site
c)
Enzyme
d)
Products
144.
What is structure D?
a)
Substrate
b)
Active site
c)
Enzyme
d)
Products
145.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
146.

Changes in pH and temperature can damage an enzymes active site. What is this called?

a)

reusable

b)

coenzyme

c)

competition

d)

denature

147.
What 3 letters do enzymes typically end in?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
148.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
149.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
150.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
151.

Bile is made in the

a)

mouth and esophagus

b)

small intestines and large intestines

c)

small intestines

d)

liver

152.

The function of bicarbonate ions in the digestive system is to

a)

neutralize the acid found in chyme

b)

break down sugars

c)

aid in the transport of carbon dioxide

d)

aid in the production of urea

153.

Hydrochloric acid is made in the

a)

stomach

b)

small intestines and large intestines

c)

small intestines

d)

liver

154.
The opening at the end of the digestive system where solid waste comes out is the...
a)
rectum
b)
anus
c)
mouth
d)
large intestine
155.
Flap of skin that covers the opening to the windpipe during swallowing
a)
Stomach
b)
Pepsin
c)
Pancreas
d)
Epiglottis
156.

This organ does not actually touch the food but it secretes enzymes to help break down foods.

a)

Esophagus

b)

Pancreas

c)

Large Intestine

d)

Rectum

157.
The lining of the small intestine that absorbs the nutrients from digested foods.
a)
Ureters
b)
Villi
c)
Gallbladder
d)
Pancreas
158.
As waste moves through the digestive system, the ______ absorbs water before storing waste in the rectum.
a)
Small intestine
b)
Stomach
c)
Esophagus
d)
Large intestine
159.

Which of the following are accessory organs of the digestive system?

a)

liver, stomach, & esophagus

b)

pancreas, liver, and gall bladder

c)

liver, stomach, & intestines

d)

intestines, anus, and stomach

160.
Peristalsis refers to
a)
one of the digestive organs
b)
the action of the stomach
c)
heart rate increasing
d)
smooth muscles moving food through the digestive system
161.
Nutrients from digested food are absorbed in which digestive organ?
a)
Small Intestine
b)
Stomach
c)
Large Intestine
d)
Gallbladder
162.
This reaction shows a(n) ____________ reaction
a)
Catabolic
b)
Anabolic
c)
Dehydration Synthesis
d)
Halogenation
163.

What is the main function of the nervous system?

a)

to inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide

b)

to break down food consumed by a person for nutrients

c)

to control the body's activities by relaying messages

d)

to control the body's movements

164.

A nerve cell is called a:

a)

neutron

b)

nerve

c)

neuron

d)

synapse

165.

Dendrites are part of a neuron that carries electrical signals _______ the cell body.

a)

to

b)

away

c)

in between

166.

Axons are part of a neuron that send electrical signals ________ the cell body

a)

to

b)

away from

c)

in between

167.

What 2 systems: Absorb and deliver the digested nutrients to the cells

a)

Digestive and muscular

b)

Muscular and lymphatic

c)

Digestive and circulatory

d)

Nervous and skeletal

168.

What 2 systems: Allows for movement

a)

Muscular and Skeletal

b)

Endocrine and Skeletal

c)

Nervous and Circulatory

d)

Integumentary and Reproductive

169.

Which two systems interact so the kidneys filter cellular waste out of blood for removal?

a)

circulatory and endocrine

b)

respiratory and circulatory

c)

digestive and respiratory

d)

circulatory and urinary

170.

Olympic sprinters undergo increased heart and breathing rates while competing. Which of the following best describes the interactions among systems of a sprinter?

a)

Respiratory system is working to obtain more oxygen, while the circulatory system works to transport the oxygen to the muscles.

b)

The digestive system takes in more glucose, while the excretory system removes waste.

c)

The endocrine system transports ATP to the nervous system

d)

Excretory system removes waste from the digestive system to reduce weight so the sprinter can run faster

171.

Why is the maintenance of homeostasis important to multicellular organisms?

a)

They must keep their internal environment within a narrow range of conditions.

b)

They require the ability to adjust their internal environment to match their external environment

c)

Their cells need to be able to respond rapidly to drastic changes in their external enviornment

d)

Their internal environment must provide their cells with a wide range of conditions

172.

Passive Transport is the movement of particles across the membrane from an area of [ ___ ] to an area of [ ___ ]

a)

high to low

b)

low to high

c)

low to low

d)

high to high

173.

Passive Transport uses ____ energy

a)

no

b)

a lot of

c)

a little bit of

d)

some

174.

Passive Transport is the movement of particles _________ the concentration gradient.

a)

with

b)

against

c)

opposing

d)

throughout

175.

An example of diffusion is

a)

CO2 and O2 exchange in the lungs

b)

Glucose transport

c)

Na+ / K+ Pumps

d)

Exocytosis

176.

The condition in which all acting influences are balanced.

a)

equilibrium

b)

dynamic equilibrium

c)

net movement

177.

How do the particles move in diffusion?

a)

From a region of low concentration to a region of high concentration

b)

From a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration

c)

From a region of low concentration to a region of low concentration

d)

From a region of high concentration to a region of high concentration

178.

When does diffusion stop?

a)

After a day and a night

b)

When the particles are evenly spread out

c)

When there are no particles left

d)

When all the particles leave the system

179.
Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of _____ concentration to an ______ concentration
a)
High, low
b)
Low, high
c)
Low, low,
d)
High, high
180.
Osmosis is the diffusion of _____ across a selectively permeable membrane.
a)
food
b)
air
c)
water
d)
oxygen
181.
During diffusion
a)
substances (things) moves from high to low concentration
b)
water moves when energy is used
c)
large or oddly shaped molecules move across a cell membrane
d)
water moves from high to low concentration
182.
Bacteria reproduce this way.
a)
budding
b)
fragmentation
c)
binary fission
d)
vegetative propagation
183.

In asexual reproduction, how does the DNA of the daughter cells compare to the DNA of the parent cell?

a)

It is only half of the amount of DNA found in the parent.

b)

It is identical.

c)

It is a mix of the parent's DNA.

d)

It has some similarities and some differences.

184.
The cell spends most of it's life in ________________.
a)
mitosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
None of the above
185.

Before cells can divide, what must be copied and in which phase?

a)

Cell Wall, Mitosis (M phase)

b)

DNA, Mitosis(M phase)

c)

DNA, S phase

d)

Cell Wall, S phase

186.

Mitosis involves which type of cells?

a)

Sex Cells

b)

Bacteria

c)

Prokaryotes

d)

Body Cells

187.
What percentage of chromosomes are handed down by a sperm cell?
a)
75%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
188.
What is an advantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
Allows genetic variation
b)
Only needs one parent
c)
Happens very quickly
d)
Offspring are exact copies of parent
189.

What is a zygote?

a)

fertilized egg

b)

egg

c)

sperm

d)

oocyte

190.

Among the following, the term that includes the others is ___.

a)

interphase

b)

anaphase

c)

mitosis

d)

cell cycle

191.
The point on the chromosome where the two chromatids are held together is the
a)
centromere
b)
centriole
c)
chromosome
d)
chromatid
192.

Which of the following describes the purpose of the mitosis cell cycle?

a)

To make more of the same cells.

b)

For growth and repair.

c)

To prevent the cell from becoming too large.

d)

All of the answers

193.
What is the result of mitosis?
a)
1 cell
b)
2 genetically identical cells
c)
2 genetically different cells
d)
4 genetically identical cells
194.

Which is the correct order of mitotic phases?

a)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, interphase, cytokinesis

b)

Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

c)

Interphase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

d)

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, cytokinesis, interphase, telophase

195.

The cells produced via meiosis are called:

a)

Gametes (sex cells)

b)

Somatic cells

c)

body cells

d)

skin cells

196.

Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of ________.

a)

one haploid gamete

b)

three diploid gametes

c)

four diploid gametes

d)

four haploid gametes

197.

If a body cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain _____ chromosomes.

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

198.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
199.

This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?

a)

segregation of sister chromatids

b)

condensation and segregation of alleles

c)

mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered

d)

crossing - over in which DNA is exchanged

200.

Crossing over helps promote ______.

a)

male genotype

b)

genetic variation

c)

DNA replication

d)

mitosis

201.

By the end of mitosis, _______ cells are produced, whereas by the end of meiosis, _______ cells are produced.

a)

4 diploid; 2 haploid

b)

4 haploid; 2 diploid

c)

2 diploid; 4 haploid

d)

23; 46

202.

What process, and which type of resulting cells are represented?

a)

meiosis, gametes, diploid

b)

mitosis, body cells, diploid

c)

meiosis, gametes, haploid

d)

meiosis, body cells, haploid

203.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
204.

CANCER CELLS ARE DIFFERENT BECAUSE THE DON'T ENTER THE G-0 PHASE AND THEY ARE LIKELY TO DO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING

a)

FAIL TO COMPLETE S PHASE

b)

MUTATE DURING G1 PHASE

c)

REPEAT THE CELL CYCLE CONTINUOUSLY

d)

DIE AFTER COMPLETING MITOSIS

205.
What is mean by homeostasis?
a)
Controls and coordinates body activities through chemical 
b)
controls and coordinates body activities through electrical impulses
c)
For maintenance of a steady state in the internal environment
d)
remove metabolic waste products from the cel
206.
This thin layer protects the cell and regulates what substances enter and leave the cell.
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell
c)
cell wall
d)
golgi body
207.

In a plant cell, a stiff wall surrounds the membrane, giving the cell a rigid, boxlike shape?

a)

cell membrane

b)

cell

c)

ribosome

d)

cell wall

208.
Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
b)
Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.
c)
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
d)
Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.
209.

Which do BOTH prokaryotes and eukaryotes contain?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosomes

d)

cell wall

210.

Which does only eukaryotic cells contain?

a)

nucleus

b)

DNA

c)

cell membrane

d)

ribosomes

211.

Prokaryotic cells do not have…….

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

cell membrane

c)

DNA or RNA

d)

life

212.
A fossilized cell is discovered, and evidence suggests it reproduced on its own and had DNA, but a membrane did not enclose its DNA. Which type of organism would this most likely be?
a)
prokaryote
b)
eukaryote
c)
plant cell
d)
animal cell
213.

Bacteria is an example of a(n)

a)

prokaryotic cell.

b)

eukaryotic cell.

214.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
215.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
216.
Where is the DNA found in a eukaryotic cell? 
a)
floating around in the cytoplasm 
b)
in the nucleus 

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