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Worksheetsdemzz12
Total questions: 167
Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins
Enzymes catalyze chemical reactions by doing which of the following?
Increasing the number of reactants available
Decreasing the activation energy of the reaction
Decreasing the number of products formed
Increasing the amount of time needed to complete a reaction
Which of the following best describes the activation energy of a reaction?
The amount of energy stored in the enzyme
The amount of energy required for a reaction to start
The amount of energy released from a chemical bond
The amount of energy stored in the substrates
How can an active site best be described?
The area within an organism where the most reactions take place
The region of a substrate that binds to an enzyme
The region of a substrate that forms chemical bonds
A pocket on an enzyme where substrate binds
How do enzymes lower the activation energy of chemical reactions? Select all that apply.
Bringing reactants closer to one another
Bringing products closer together
Orienting reactants correctly in space for chemical reactions to occur
Increasing the number of reactants available
Which of the following reaction elements can be changed by an enzyme? Select all that apply.
Activation energy
The initial concentration of reactants
The energy of the products of a reaction
Time required for many reactions to occur
Enzymes decrease the activation energy of a reaction by______ to reactants and _________ the reaction. AFter the reaction has finished, the enzyme ______________
binding to, catalyzing, remains uncharged
separating, catalyzing, cannot catalyze reaction
synthesizing, inhibiting, must always be reactive
separating, inhibiting, must always be reactive
Endergonic reactions do which of the following? Select all that apply.
Release energy
Consume energy
Are nonspontaneous
Are spontaneous
Which two of the following apply to the products of an exergonic reaction?
Are more ordered than the reactants
Have less energy than the reactants
Are less ordered than the reactants
Have more energy than the reactants
Which of the following apply to some of the energy released by an exergonic reaction? Select all that apply.
End up being stored into new chemical bonds
Cease to exist after the reaction is complete
Be lost to the environment in the form of heat
Provide energy to drive an endergonic reaction
Endergonic and exergonic reactions are often coupled, with the energy released by the
____________ reaction used to power the
______ reaction.
endergonic, exergonic
exergonic, endergonic
exergonic, endergenetic
none of the above
During oxidative phosphorylation, which answer choice best describes how electrons move?
Across the inner mitochondrial membrane to the mitochondrial matrix.
Across the inner mitochondrial membrane to the inter-membrane space.
From electron carrier to electron carrier.
Through the ATP-synthase channel-like protein.
Which electron carrier delivers electrons to the electron transport chain?
NADH
ATP-synthase
ATP
ADP
During oxidative phosphorylation
_____________ are pumped into the intermembrane space, and then pass through
____________ back to the mitochondrial matrix.
protons, neutrons
atp synthase, protons
the space between the membrane lipase, protons
protons, ATP synthase
Where in the cell are the electron carrier proteins responsible for oxidative phosphorylation located?
The outer mitochondrial membrane
The cytosol
The inner mitochondrial membrane
The inner chloroplast membrane
During oxidative phosphorylation, where is the concentration of protons highest?
The inner mitochondrial membrane
The intermembrane space
The mitochondrial matrix
The outer mitochondrial membrane
Which of the following defines the first law of thermodynamics?
Energy tends to disperse spontaneously
he energy stored in the arrangement of objects in a system
The capacity to do work
Correct answer.
Energy cannot be created or destroyed
How does an enzyme affect a chemical reaction? Select all that apply.
Lowers the activation energy
increases the rate of the reaction
Decreases the rate of the reaction
Increases the activation energy
In the following chemical reaction, which compounds are the products?
Carbon dioxide + Water → Sugar + Oxygen
Sugar and oxygen
Water and oxygen
Carbon dioxide and water
Carbon dioxide and sugar
What is the minimum amount of energy required to start a chemical reaction?
Activation energy
Net energy input
Potential energy
Net energy output
What are the features of an energy-requiring reaction? Select all that apply.
Small molecules are converted into complex organic compounds.
The reaction requires an input of energy.
Complex organic compounds are broken down into small molecules.
The reaction results in the output of energy.
What is the active site of an enzyme?
A specific ion or molecule that binds to an enzyme to enhance or inhibit its activity
Specific molecule that acts as the reactant in an enzyme-mediated reaction
The part of an enzyme where substrates bind and a reaction occurs
An ion or nonprotein organic molecule that associates with an enzyme and is necessary for its functio
What is a regulatory mechanism in which a reaction product slows or stops a metabolic pathway that produces it?
Phosphorylation
Feedback inhibition
Electron transfer chain
Coenzyme
What distinguishes a linear metabolic pathway from a cyclic metabolic pathway?
The last step of the pathway regenerates a reactant for the first step.
The product inhibits an enzyme in the pathway, slowing or stopping the metabolic pathway.
A linear pathway runs straight in one direction from reactant to product.
Enzymes convert reactants into intermediates before separate enzymes convert intermediates into products.
Which of the following compounds can diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane? Select all that apply
Large polar molecules
Gases and hydrophobic molecules
Small polar molecules like water
Ions
Which of the statements about diffusion are true? Select all that apply.
Solutes diffuse from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
Solutes diffuse from regions of low concentration to regions of high concentration.
Correct answer.
Lower temperatures will slow rates of diffusion.
Negatively charged solutes diffuse toward regions of positive charge.
Positively charged solutes diffuse toward regions of positive charge.
When comparing the solute concentrations of two fluids, the fluid with the higher solute concentration will be which of the following?
Hypotonic
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Which of these processes are membrane-crossing mechanisms that require no energy input? Select all that apply.
Osmosis
Sodium-potassium pump
Sodium-potassium pump
Which of these transport pathways require ATP? Select all that apply.
Glucose transporter
Calcium pump
Sodium-potassium pump
Osmotic diffusion
What is exocytosis?
The process by which a cell engulfs a large particle or another cell, eating it
The process by which a cell expels the contents of an internal vesicle to the extracellular fluid
Pressure that a fluid exerts against a structure that contains it
The process by which a cell takes in a small amount of extracellular fluid and its contents by the ballooning inward of the plasma membrane
What factors of the physical environment impact enzymatic activity? Select all that apply.
Salt concentration
pH concentration
Coenzymes
Changes in temperature
Which step of cellular respiration is responsible for making the most ATP molecules?
The electron transport chain
The citric acid cycle
Pyruvate oxidation
Glycolysis
In fermentation, what molecule is converted to lactate (lactic acid)?
Pyruvate
NADH
Sugar
Citric acid
What factor determines whether pyruvate is processed by cellular respiration or by fermentation?
Oxygen levels in the cells
The number of ATP produced
The presence of lactic acid
The conversion of sugar to pyruvate
Both aerobic respiration and fermentation begin with ________
glycolysis
electron transfer chain
pyruvate
Where in the cell does fermentation take place? Select all that apply.
The thylakoid membrane
The mitochondrial matrix
The mitochondrial membrane
The cytosol
Which step of fermentation is responsible for the majority of ATP production?
Glycolysis
NADH recycling
The electron transport chain
Conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
Which of the following compounds is NOT produced during glycolysis?
ATP
Glucose
Pyruvate
NADH
______________ of the ATP produced during aerobic cellular respiration is produced via substrate-level phosphorylation.
Assessment question
all
most
none
some
Which of the following molecules carry electrons from the citric acid cycle to the electron transfer chain? Select all that apply.
Pyruvate
NADH
FADH2
Acetyl-CoA
In a molecule of sugar, where is energy stored?
In ATP
In high-energy electrons in molecular bonds
In an electrochemical gradient
In electron carriers
Energy removed from sugar molecules is transferred to the ETC by which of the following?
High-energy electrons in molecular bonds
Electron carriers
An electrochemical gradient
ATP
Which stage of cellular respiration releases energy from electrons in slow, controlled steps?
The ETC
Glycolysis
Pyruvate oxidation
The citric acid cycle
Which of the following are outputs of the aerobic respiration of sugar? Select all that apply.
ATP
Heat
Oxygen
Water
Which of the following steps contribute electron carriers to oxidative phosphorylation? Select all that apply.
Glycolysis
Citric acid cycle
Pyruvate oxidation
The electron transport chain
Potential energy in the form of________________ is transformed into ATP during oxidative phosphorylation.
water
carbon dioxide
an electrochemical gradient
NADH
Which of the following distinguishes fermentation from aerobic respiration?
Fermentation breaks down all of the carbon–carbon bonds in a glucose molecule.
Fermentation has a higher ATP yield than aerobic respiration.
Fermentation requires an input of oxygen.
Fermentation occurs under anaerobic conditions.
After glycolysis, the steps of aerobic respiration proceed from
acetyl-coA formation to
the citric acid cylce to
electron transfer phosphorylation
Which of the following are the outputs of aerobic respiration? Select all that apply.
Carbon dioxide
Glucose
Water
ATP
Oxygen
Which of the following is an energy-requiring step of glycolysis?
A phosphate group is transferred from ATP to glucose to produce glucose-6-phosphate.
Electrons and hydrogen ions are transferred to NADH when a phosphate group is added to PGAL.
Two phosphate groups are transferred from each intermediate to ADP, forming ATP.
What is the net yield of ATP from glycolysis?
Thirty-eight ATP
Two ATP
Thirty-four ATP
Four ATP
Which of the following is NOT produced during the reactions of acetyl-CoA formation?
ATP
Electrons
Acetyl CoA
Where does the citric acid cycle take place in the cells of eukaryotic organisms?
Mitochondrial intermembrane space
Mitochondrial matrix
Mitochondrial inner membrane
Cytoplasm
Which of the following are stages of electron transfer phosphorylation? Select all that apply.
The NADH and FADH produced in the prior steps of aerobic respiration deliver electrons and hydrogen ions to the electron transfer chain.
Hydrogen ion flow through an ATP synthase produces ATP.
Hydrogen ion flow through an ATP synthase produces ATP.The electron transfer chain fuels active transport of hydrogen ions from the matrix to the intermembrane space.
Oxygen collects electrons from the end of the electron transfer chain to combine with hydrogen ions to form water.
Where in mitochondria does electron transfer phosphorylation occur?
Inner membrane
Intermembrane space
Outer membrane
Matrix
Which stage of aerobic respiration requires an input of oxygen?
Citric acid cycle
Acetyl-CoA formation
Glycolysis
Electron transfer phosphorylation
Which of the following organisms can use fermentation to produce energy? Select all that apply.
Humans
actobacillus bacteria
Saccharomyces yeasts
Which of the following is a useful application of lactate fermentation?
Yogurt production
Winemaking
Breadmaking
Beer brewing
Which of the following organic compounds is the richest source of energy?
Carbohydrates
Fat
Proteins
Which of the following compounds involved in aerobic respiration can originate from the breakdown of proteins? Select all that apply.
Acetyl-CoA
Pyruvate
Citric acid cycle intermediates
PGAL
Assessment questionWhich of the following distinguishes lactate fermentation from alcoholic fermentation?
Four ATP are produced by glycolysis during lactate fermentation.
Two ATP are used to initiate glycolysis during lactate fermentation.
Pyruvate is an input to regenerate NAD+ during lactate fermentation.
CO2
is not produced during lactate fermentation.
What is the name of the individual positively charged proteins that interact with DNA to form the structure of the chromosome?
Histones
Chromosomes
Nucleosomes
RNA polymerases
When is the chromosome in its most condensed state?
During RNA transcription
During cell division
During RNA translation
During DNA replication
How does chromosome condensation relate to gene expression?
Gene expression tends to be higher in less condensed areas of the chromosome.
Gene expression and chromosome condensation are unrelated to each other.
Gene expression tends to be higher in more condensed areas of the chromosome.
In a typical
________ chromosomes are visualized as tightly packed DNA.
western blot
histotype
histone
karyotype
charged DNA wraps around
postive
negative
charged histone proteins to form nucleosomes.
negative
positive
In a DNA molecule, the base adenine (A) forms a hydrogen bond with which base?
Uracil (U)
Cytosine (C)
Thymine (T)
Guanine (G)
The 5' end of a DNA sequence is characterized by which chemical group?
Thymine
Adenine
Oxygen
Phosphate
What is the complementary DNA sequence for the following DNA sequence: 5'-GTGATGCTT-3'?
3'-CACTACGAA-5'
3'-AAGCATCAC-5'
5'-CACTACGAA-3'
3'-GTGATGCTT-5'
When DNA is synthesized, the 5’
_______ is joined to a 3’
________
phosphate group, oxygen
nitrogeous base, oxygen
When not otherwise indicated, a single sequence of DNA is assumed to be which of the following?
Single stranded, written 3’ to 5’
Double stranded, written 3’ to 5’
Double stranded, written 5’ to 3’
Single stranded, written 5’ to 3’
After DNA replication has completed, each new double helix contains how many strands of newly synthesized DNA?
one
zero
two
three
Two
Assessment questionIn the figure in the narrative content, which word describes the relationship between the two blue sequences of DNA?
Identical
Unrelated
Reversed
Complementary (to each other)
After the process of DNA replication and cell division, how many genes will be present in each of the daughter cells relative to the original cell?
The same number of genes
Double the number of genes
Half the number of genes
According to the semi-conservative model of DNA replication, each daughter cell receives
________Coriginal strand(s) of DNA from the parent cell.
1
2
3
4
If an uncorrected mutation occurs during DNA replication, where would you expect to see this mutation after cell division is complete?
Neither daughter cell.
In both daughter cells.
In one daughter cell.
The parent cell.
In the figure in the narrative content, which word describes the relationship between the two red sequences of DNA?
Identical
Unrelated
Reversed
Complementary (to each other)
What is the molecule of inheritance in all living organisms?
Lipid
DNA
RNA
Protein
What were the findings of Hershey and Chase's experiments with bacteriophages? Select all that apply.
Radiolabeled viral DNA was found only outside of bacteria cells.
Radiolabeled viral protein was found only outside of bacteria cells.
Radiolabeled viral protein was found only inside of bacteria cells.
Radiolabeled viral DNA was found only inside of bacteria cells.
What components make up a single nucleotide of DNA? Select all that apply.
Three phosphate groups
Nitrogen containing base
Ribose sugar
Deoxyribose sugar
Which of the following are nucleotide base pairs found in DNA? Select all that apply.
Adenine and thymine
Guanine and cytosine
Thymine and guanine
Cytosine and adenine
What is a chromosome?
A structure that consists of tightly bundled DNA together with associated proteins
The two attached DNA molecules of a duplicated eukaryotic chromosome
A type of protein that associates with eukaryotic DNA and structurally organizes chromosomes
A constricted region where sister chromatids attach to each other in a duplicated eukaryotic chromosome
What is the structure of a DNA molecule?
Two nucleotide strands coiled into a double helix held together by bonds between internal nucleotide bases
Two nucleotide strands coiled into a double helix held together by bonds between external nucleotide bases
Three nucleotide strands coiled into a triple helix held together by bonds between internal nucleotide bases
A single nucleotide strand held together by bonds between internal nucleotide bases
What defines a diploid cell?
A cell with three sets of chromosomes
A cell with two sets of chromosomes
A cell with four sets of chromosomes
A cell with one set of chromosomes
What is DNA polymerase?
An enzyme that corrects mutations that arise during the replication of DNA
An enzyme that seals any gaps that remain between bases of replicating strands of DNA
An enzyme that carries out DNA replication
Short, single strand of DNA that base-pairs with a specific DNA sequence
Why is DNA replication considered semiconservative?
One strand of each replicating DNA molecule is conserved and the other strand is newly synthesized.
One strand of each replicating DNA molecule is conserved and the other strand is newly synthesized.
Both strands of each replicating DNA molecules are conserved.
Both strands of each replicating DNA molecule are new.
What aspects of DNA can be used to differentiate species? Select all that apply.
Differences in DNA sequence
Different DNA structures
Different DNA base pairs
Differences in chromosome number
Which step follows the assembly of new DNA strands by DNA polymerase?
Repair enzymes correct potential mutations in the DNA sequence.
Enzymes unwind and separate the two strands of DNA.
DNA ligase seals any gaps remaining between bases of new DNA.
Primers base-pair with the exposed single DNA strands.
What can cause mutations in the DNA sequence? Select all that apply.
Exposure of cells to ionizing radiation
Nucleotide errors occurring during DNA replication
Recognition of mismatched bases by repair enzymes before and during DNA replication
Failure of repair enzymes to recognize mismatched nucleotides before and during DNA replication
What is a genetically identical copy of an organism?
Karyotype
Diploid
Autosome
Clone
What was the key discovery of the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty?
RNA degrading enzymes destroyed the ability of an extract to genetically transform bacteria.
DNA degrading enzymes destroyed the ability of an extract to genetically transform bacteria.
Protein degrading enzymes destroyed the ability of an extract to genetically transform bacteria.
Lipid degrading enzymes destroyed the ability of an extract to genetically transform bacteria.
What was the contribution of Rosalind Franklin to the discovery of DNA's structure?
Theoretical model of DNA's structure and the pairing of nitrogenous bases
Discovery that in DNA the amounts of adenine and thymine were identical as were the amounts of guanine and cytosine
X-ray diffraction images of DNA that showed that DNA had two chains twisted into a double helix with a backbone containing phosphate groups on the outside and bases on the inside
Which of the following is bases is not found in mRNA?
Uracil
Guanine
Adenine
Thiamine
During protein synthesis, tRNA molecules deliver
_________ to the A site of the ribosome. These tRNA molecules contain an
________ corresponding to the mRNA. This process usually takes place in the
________
amino acids, anticodon, cytoplasm
polypeptides, amino acids, nucleotides
What is the difference between a polypeptide and a functioning protein?
A polypeptide is a functioning protein that has been correctly folded and modified.
A polypeptide is in the nucleus, while a functioning protein is found in the cytoplasm.
A polypeptide is made of mRNA, while a protein is made of amino acids.
A functioning protein is a polypeptide that has been correctly folded and modified.
Uracil (U) forms a base pair with which of the following nucleotides?
Thymine (T)
Uracil (U)
Guanine (G)
Adenine (A)
Given a template strand of DNA 3’-T-G-A-5’, transcribe the corresponding mRNA sequence.
5’- A-C-U-3’
5’ -T-C-A-3’
5’- A-C-T-3’
5’ -U-C-A-3’
Which of the following codons begins the DNA sequence of gene's coding strand?
CAT
AUG
TTA
ATG
Which of the following are true of mRNA but NOT true of chromosomal DNA? Select all that apply.
Contains the base uracil
Contains the base adenine
Has 5' and 3' ends
mRNA is single stranded
Which of the following is NOT a type of epigenetic modification?
Altering the accessibility of transcription binding sites
X-chromosome inactivation
DNA methylation
Changing the identity of a nucleotide in a DNA sequence
Which of the following best describes DNA methylation?
A small molecule (CH3)
is added to nucleotides, which causes a mutation in the base pair on the opposite strand, altering gene expression.
A small molecule (CH3)
is added to nucleotides, which alters the accessibility of the DNA to transcription machinery.
Nucleotides are replaced by methyl groups, which alters the accessibility of the DNA to transcription machinery.
A small molecule (CH3)
is added to RNA polymerase, which alters the accessibility of the protein to access DNA.
Which of the following are true of epigenetic modifications? Select all that apply.
Epigenetic modifications are heritable.
Epigenetic modifications cause permanent changes to the DNA sequence.
Epigenetic markers can be passed down through generations.
Epigenetic modifications may occur in response to environmental conditions.
Epigenetic modifications can influence the
_____________
of genes without altering the __________
of the genes.
sequence,expression
expression, sequence
Which of the following may cause changes to the epigenetic makeup of an individual's genome? Select all that apply.
The epigenetic makeup of the individual's parents
Life-history
Health
Age
Which of the following is the definition of a gene?
RNA that delivers amino acids to a ribosome during translation
A unit of information encoded in the sequence of nucleotide bases in DNA
RNA that carries a protein-building message
The RNA component of ribosomes
In gene expression, a gene is
__________ into mRNA, which is then
___________ into a protein.
transcribed, translated
translated, transcribed
Which of the following is the function of transfer RNA?
Stores genetic information
Delivers amino acids to ribosomes
Carries the message that guides polypeptide assembly
Makes up the structure of ribosomes
Which of the following are steps of transcription? Select all that apply.
RNA polymerase binds to a gene's promoter.
RNA polymerase moves over the gene and unzips the double helix to form a "transcription bubble."
RNA polymerase assembles a strand of mRNA complementary to the noncoding strand of DNA.
RNA polymerase assembles a strand of mRNA complementary to the coding strand of DNA.
Before mRNA exits the nucleus, it is modified to remove
___________ and keep
_________
exons, introns
introns,exons
___________________ are three nucleotide units of information in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid. They correspond to complementary sets of three nucleotides on tRNA called
________________
codons,anticodons
anticodons,codons
Which of the following codons is called the "start" codon?
AUG
UAA
UGA
UAG
Where does the transcription of DNA into mRNA occur in eukaryotes?
Nucleus
Cytoplasm
tRNA
Ribosomes
Where does translation of mRNA into polypeptides occur?
Cytoplasm
Nuclear pores
Nucleus
Cell membrane
Which of the following amino acids is carried by the tRNA that initiates translation?
Alanine
Tryptophan
Leucine
Methionine
Which of the following are stages of translation? Select all that apply.
Ribosomal subunits and a tRNA-carrying methionine converge on the start codon of an mRNA.
When the ribosome reaches a stop codon, its subunits detach, and the mRNA and new polypeptide are released.
As the ribosome moves from codon to codon, amino acids brought by successive tRNAs to the ribosome form a growing polypeptide.
The binding of a tRNA to the third codon causes the ribosome to release the first tRNA and move to the next codon.
Which of the following mutations can cause a single amino acid difference during the translation of mRNA into protein?
Base pair-substitution
Mutations in regulatory sites
Deletion
Insertion
How can transcription factors influence the transcription of DNA? Select all that apply.
Inhibit transcription by preventing RNA polymerase from binding to promoters
Enhance transcription by helping RNA polymerase bind to promoters
Inhibit translation by preventing the binding of mRNA to ribosomes
Inhibit transcription by blocking the progress of RNA polymerase along a DNA molecule
Which of the following defines a master regulator?
A regulatory protein that influences transcription by binding directly to DNA
A technique of introducing a mutation that disables expression of a gene in an organism
A gene whose expression triggers a gene expression cascade that ultimately changes cells in a lineage to more differentiated types
A condensed, inactivated X chromosome in the body cell of a female mammal
Which of the following causes epigenetic modifications to DNA that affect gene expression without changing the DNA sequence?
Base-pair substitution
Gene knockout
Mutation in regulatory sites
DNA methylation
Which terms typically apply to eukaryotic chromosomes? Select all that apply.
Multiple origins of replication
A single origin of replication
Linear
Found in nucleosomes
Special DNA sequences at the end of linear eukaryotic chromosomes are known as _______
.
polymerases
telomerases
telomeres
Which of the following best describes the process of DNA replication in eukaryotes?
DNA replication always proceeds in a 3’ to 5’ direction.
Leading strand DNA replication proceeds in a 5’ to 3’ direction, while lagging strand DNA replication proceeds in a 3’ to 5’ direction.
Leading strand DNA replication proceeds in a 3’ to 5’ direction, while lagging strand DNA replication proceeds in a 5’ to 3’ direction.
DNA replication always proceeds in a 5’ to 3’ direction.
Which of the following is true for both meiosis and mitosis?
All daughter cells produced are genetically identical.
Crossing over occurs, increasing genetic variation.
The genome is duplicated before mitosis or meiosis occurs.
All daughter cells produced are genetically identical to the parent cell.
During
_______________ a diploid cell undergoes genome duplication and a single division producing two
________ daughter cells.
mitosis,diploid
diploid, mitosis
Which of the following best describes anaphase II of meiosis?
Homologous chromosomes are pulled apart.
Sister chromatids are pulled apart.
Chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate.
Crossing over occurs, during which sections of homologous chromosomes are swapped.
Which of the following occur in both mitosis and meiosis? Select all that apply.
Crossing over
Separation of homologous chromosomes
Cytokinesis
Separation of sister chromatids
During which phase(s) are chromosomes lined up single-file along the center of the cell? Select all that apply.
Metaphase II of meiosis
Interphase
Metaphase of mitosis
Metaphase I of meiosis
Attempts left: 0
Assessment questionThe concept that the distribution of one chromosome does not affect the distribution of any other chromosome during meiosis is known as which of the following?
Crossing over
Random fertilization
Independent assortment
Which of the following is NOT true of crossing over?
Crossing over occurs during prophase I of meiosis.
Crossing over can occur multiple times per pair of homologous chromosomes.
Crossing over increases genetic variation.
Crossing over can occur only once per pair of homologous chromosomes.
The likelihood of any sperm cell reaching and fertilizing any egg cell
______ This phenomenon is known as
______
cannot be predicted, crossing ver
in approximately equal, random fertilization
When does independent assortment occur?
During metaphase II of meiosis
During metaphase of mitosis
During metaphase I of meiosis
During fertilization
Without taking crossing over into account, how many different potential gametes can be produced by a single human?
It is not possible to estimate
8 million
64 trillion
100 billion
_________________ refers to the inheritance pattern of separate chromosomes, while
_____________ refers to events that happen between homologous chromosomes.
crossing over, independent assortment
independent assortment, crossing over
Which of the following is a stage of mitosis? Select all that apply.
Anaphase
Metaphase
Interphase
Telophase
Prophase
____________ is a nuclear division mechanism that maintains the
________
mitosis, chromosome number
chromosome number, mitosis
During which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes aligned midway between the spindle poles?
Anaphase
Metaphase
Telophase
Prophase
What occurs during the prophase stage of mitosis?
Chromosomes are aligned midway between the spindle poles.
Sister chromatids separate and move toward opposite spindle poles.
Chromosomes arrive at opposite spindle poles and become enclosed by a new nuclear envelope.
Chromosomes pack tightly and become attached to a newly forming spindle.
Which of the following are stages in the cytokinesis of animal cells? Select all that apply.
The cell plate expands along the plane of division, and when the plate fuses with the plasma membrane, the cytoplasm is partitioned into two new cells.
After telophase, the contractile ring constricts the plasma membrane and forms a cleavage furrow.
A contractile ring of microfilaments and motor proteins forms under the plasma membrane during anaphase.
The contractile ring reaches its smallest diameter, and the spindle microtubules are cut as vesicles form the new membranes that separate the two new cells.
Which of the following demonstrates the link between oncogenes and cancer?
Oncogenes produce molecules that inhibit mitosis.
The mutations in oncogenes increase the activity or number of molecules that stimulate mitosis, leading to irregular cell division.
Oncogenes are genes that transform tumor cells into normal cells.
Oncogenes do not have mutations that increase the activity or number of molecules that stimulate mitosis.
Which of the following are characteristics of benign tumors? Select all that apply.
They are slow growing.
They can migrate and grow in other tissues through metastasis.
They stay in their home tissue.
They grow quickly.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a fail-safe mechanism that prevents the irregular cell divisions characteristic of cancer.
Shortening of telomeres
Triggered cell death
Mutation in a tumor suppressor gene
Cell division limit
Which of the following is an advantage of asexual reproduction over sexual reproduction?
It leads to offspring with high genetic diversity.
It requires a partner.
The resulting offspring have no genetic diversity.
It does not require a partner.
In which stage of meiosis is the chromosome number halved?
Metaphase I
Prophase I
Anaphase I
Telophase I
During which stage of meiosis does crossing over occur?
Anaphase II
Prophase II
Prophase I
Metaphase I
In fertilization,
_________ fuse to produce a
__________
zygote, a male gamete and a female gamete
a male gamete and a female gamete, zygote
Which of the following are an organism’s observable traits known as?
Alleles
Phenotype
Genome
Genotype
Biologists commonly represent genotypes using letters. Consider a gene that codes for eye-color. Two alleles for this gene exist in a population, B, which encodes brown eyes, and b, which encodes blue eyes. Based on what you have learned about genetic notation, which allele is likely to be dominant to the other allele?
Both alleles are dominant.
The brown eye allele is likely dominant to the blue eye allele.
Neither allele is dominant.
The blue eye allele is likely dominant to the brown eye allele.
Which of the following genotypes is possible for an individual with brown eyes? Select all that apply.
B
bb
BB
Bb
An individual that is
________ for a trait has two identical copies of the allele for that trait.
homozygous
heterozygous
dominant
a (n) ______ is one of the two or more version of ________
allele,gene
genome, gene
allele,phenotype
What do the letters on the outside of a Punnett square represent?
The genotype of the parents
The phenotype of the parents
The phenotype of the offspring
The genotype of the offspring
In a pedigree, affected individuals are usually represented in which of the following ways?
As squares
As empty shapes
As filled-in shapes
As circles
What do horizontal rows represent in a pedigree?
Generations
Marriages
Siblings
If a trait skips a generation, this is a sign that the trait may be
__________
dominant
lethal
recessive
Which of the following defines a genotype?
An individual's observable traits
A part of a chromosome that encodes an RNA or protein product in its DNA sequence
Forms of a gene with slightly different DNA sequences that may encode slightly different versions of the gene's product
The particular set of alleles that is carried in an individual's chromosomes
An individual with the same allele of a gene on both homologous chromosomes is
__________ for the allele. An individual with different alleles of a gene is ________ for the allele.
homozygous, heterozygous
heterozygous,homozygous
Which of the following genotypes is indicative of an individual who is homozygous for a recessive allele?
PP
Pp
pp
If an individual is homozygous dominant for a given allele (AA), what allele will be carried by that individual's gametes?
a
aa
A
AA
What characterizes the independent assortment of genes into gametes?
Alleles of genes on one pair of homologous chromosomes sort depending on the assortment of alleles on other chromosomes.
Different alleles on the same chromosome that are far apart usually sort together.
Different alleles on the same chromosome that are close together usually sort independently.
What does a phenotype ratio of 3:1 among offspring in a monohybrid cross indicate?
It indicates that the alleles governing the phenotypes do not have a dominant-recessive relationship.
The alleles that govern one trait assort into gametes independently of alleles that govern another trait.
Which of the following defines polygenic inheritance?
A pattern of inheritance in which multiple genes affect one trait
An inheritance pattern in which a single gene affects multiple traits
An inheritance pattern in which the full and separate phenotypic effects of two alleles are apparent in heterozygous individuals
In a pedigree, the relationships between individual family members are represented as ______
circle
coma
square
lines
Individuals who have the studied trait are represented by _________
open polygons
filled polygons
Which genotype is indicative of the carriers of a trait associated with an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern?
BB
Bb
bb
Which of the following statements about X-linked recessive patterns is true?
Heterozygous females always express the X-linked recessive trait.
An affected father can never pass an X-linked recessive allele to a daughter.
The X-linked trait appears more often in females than in males.
Which of the following processes leads to aneuploidy, the condition of having too many or too few copies of a particular chromosome? Select all that apply.
Proper separation of chromosomes during mitosis
Nondisjunction of chromosomes during mitosis
Nondisjunction of chromosomes during meiosis
What condition results from the fusion of a normal gamete (n) and a gamete missing a chromosome (n – 1)?
Tetraploid
Monosomy
Trisomy
