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Final Exam

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 3hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

VMs runs on

a)

Physical hosts

b)

Logical hosts

c)

Both physical and logical hosts

d)

none

2.

In order to make VM highly available, files are required to get stored on

a)

SMB 3.0

b)

Host

c)

Guest clustering

d)

All the options

3.

One disadvantage of using virtual machines is that you can utilize resources (such as processor and memory) more efficiently.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

With which of the following options in VMM, one could configure how VMs are placed?

a)

Preferred host

b)

Availability sets

c)

Placement rules

d)

All the options

5.

Virtual machine placement allows VMM to evaluate hosts.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

What could be used to guarantee bandwidth to multiple services that are running on the same aggregated network adapters.

a)

QoS

b)

PoS

c)

QQos

d)

OSDW

7.

What should be the first step when planning Hyper-V Networks?

a)

Identify network requirements

b)

identify roles and features

c)

manage Hyper-V

d)

Turn on PC

8.

A Physical Network is a user-defined grouping of IP subnets and/or VLANs that are associated with one or more network sites.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Network site associates with how much subnets and VLANs with a logical network?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

Many

10.

IP address pool allows VMM to assign

a)

Static IP

b)

Dynamic IP

c)

BOTH Static and Dynamic

d)

None.

11.

VMM can assign static MAC addresses automatically for IP address pools to new virtual network devices on Windows-based machines that are running on Hyper-V, VMware ESX/ESXi, and Citrix XenServer.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Which of them can use both local and remote storage?

a)

Hyper-V

b)

VMM

c)

Both hyper-v and vmm

d)

None

13.

Fibre Channel is a megabit-speed or higher network technology primarily used for a storage network.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The virtual Fibre Channel feature has which of the following prerequisites:

a)

HBAs

b)

NPIV-enabled SAN

c)

Both HBAs and NPIV-enabled SAN

d)

NO one

15.

ISCI carries which commands over IP networks?

a)

SCSI

b)

ISSI

c)

DSDE

d)

Both SCSI and DSDE

16.

LM allows you to move the entire VM or its storage from one physical host to another physical host without interrupting your users and the process is called

a)

Shared nothing

b)

Shared everything

c)

Shared VM

d)

Shared group

17.

The live migration process consists of how many steps:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

18.

OVF is an open standard for packaging and distributing virtual machines and requires the OVF Import/Export tool, which is available from the Microsoft Download Center.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Static optimization performs live migration of virtual machines within host clusters that are configured for such migrations.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Which settings are included with PRO configuration?

a)

VMM Maximum Dynamic Memory Monitor

b)

VMM Dynamic Memory VM pressure

c)

BOTH Memory monitor and VM presssure

d)

None

21.

The Active Directory connector is used to enrich the data that is populated from configuration and operational data.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) is a server role does not allows you to issue and manage digital certificates as part of a public key infrastructure.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The primary component of the PKI is the?

a)

CA

b)

US

c)

IN

d)

NZ

24.

Within the PKI, the certificate authority (CA) binds a ____________with respective user identities and issues digital certificates containing the ________.

a)

public key, public key

b)

private key, public key

c)

public key, private key

d)

private key, private key

25.

Symmetric encryption uses

a)

Same key

b)

Different key

c)

Both same and different

d)

Really depends

26.

TLS is often referred to as SSL 3.0, it does not interoperate with SSL.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

A digital signature is a mathematical scheme that is used to demonstrate the authorization of a digital message or document.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

To enhance the security of a CA and of the PKI, you can use a _____________.

a)

Hardware security module

b)

software security module

c)

adware security module

d)

encryption module

29.

Network Device Enrollment Services (NDES) is used to assign certificates to routers, switches, and other network devices.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Certificate Revocation List is a digitally signed list issued by a CA that contains a list of certificates issued by the CA that have not been revoked.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

The CSP encrypts a private key and stores the encrypted private key in the local profile and registry.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

AD FS configuration consists of two types of organizations, which of them they are:

a)

Resource organization

b)

Account organization

c)

Both Resource and Account

d)

None.

33.

The authentication policy specifies the type of authentication globally for applications and services that are secured by AD FS or for a particular application per Relying Party Trust.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

A TUD is a trust between AD RMS infrastructures that donot allows one environment to accept identities from another environment as valid subjects.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Server licensor certificate (SLC) is a certificate that contains the public key that encrypts the content key in a Publishing License.

a)

True

b)

False