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BCS Networking Architecture - Mock Exam

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It consists of different numbers of copper wire that have been twisted into matching pair.

a)

Video Cable

b)

HDMI Cable

c)

Fiber Optic Cable

d)

UTP Cable

2.

It is a device designed to measure and test existing LAN connection.

a)

Voltage Tester

b)

Cable Tester

c)

Circuit Tester

d)

Appliance Tester

3.

It is a standard type of physical connector for network cables, which is especially used for Ethernet networking.

a)

Crimp-on connectors

b)

Soldered connectors

c)

RJ45

d)

Blade Connectors

4.

UTP cable consists of ______ different numbers of copper wire.

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

5.
What is the core of a fiber optic cable made of?
a)
Copper
b)
Wire
c)
Glass
d)
Rubber
6.
Data is converted into light and transferred at high speeds in this device.
a)
Fibre Optic Cable
b)
Hub
c)
Modem
d)
Router
7.

What does USB stand for?

a)

Universal Serial Bus

b)

Unedited System Bracket

c)

Unified Sound Bar

d)

Unique Sequencing Bus

8.

What are VGA cables used for?

a)

Video

b)

Audio

c)

Data Transfer

d)

Power

9.

What are Ethernet cables used for?

a)

Networking

b)

Internet

c)

Audio

d)

Both Internet & Networking

10.
Of the following, which is the fastest category of UTP cabling? 
a)
CAT5
b)
CAT3
c)
CAT5e
d)
CAT6
11.

What are two types of Twisted Pair? (Select two answers)

a)

Broadband

b)

Shielded Twisted Pair

c)

Fiber Optic

d)

Unshielded Twisted Pair

12.

The recommended topology for Cat5 - Cat6 cable is:

a)

Star

b)

Bus

c)

Mesh

d)

Ring

13.

What is the name for a block of data that is sent across a computer network?

a)

Packet

b)

Package

c)

File

d)

Byte

14.

The amount of data that can be transferred over a network in a certain amount of time.

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Node

c)

FTP

d)

NOS

15.
What does ISP stand for?
a)
Internet Service Provider
b)
Icee Secret Professional
c)
Intranet Service Person
d)
Interpersonal Secret Professional
16.
What does URL stand for?
a)
Uniform Resource Locator
b)
Universal Resource Lap
c)
Under Reef Locator
d)
Upper Respiratory Lab
17.
What term describes the physical layout of a network?
a)
Topology
b)
topping
c)
topiology
d)
toppology
18.
Which of the following is a type of wireless encryption?
a)
WPS
b)
WWW
c)
WWF
d)
WSS
19.
description of POP (Post Office Protocol)
a)
commonly used protocols used to receive e-mail on many e-mail clients
b)
Additional Security, Fully Automated, recovery far easier, easy data sync
c)
free to send, files can be attached, can copy other people
d)
free to use, open most proprietary software, intuitive adaptable.
20.
description of TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
a)
a protocol or standard that enables two hosts to establish a connection and exchange streams of data
b)
Ability to connect to other people all over the world, Easy and instant communication,Real-time news and information discovery
c)
tasks take longer, idle time is higher
d)
more accurate, can save and edit
21.
description of IP (Internet Protocol)
a)
a set of rules governing the format of data sent over the Internet or other network - the IP address states the destination of the data.
b)
software used to design a product and for controlling manufacturing processes
c)
increases productivity, better decisions, better communication
d)
lack of features, poorer bug fixing support, some apps aren't compatable
22.
description of FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
a)
a standard network protocol (set of rules) used for moving files between a client and server on a network.
b)
easy to keep track, team members can be anywhere, action taken quickly
c)
managing e-mail and snail-mail , ,Answering and screening phone calls., Personal, private, or business research and purchasing.
d)
needs access to a computer, takes time to learn, handwriting deteriorates
23.
description of HTTP ( Hyper Text Transfer Protocol)
a)
an application protocol for distributed, collaborative, and hypermedia information systems
b)
cheap,fast,can be sent anytime
c)
slow data restoration, privacy of backed up data, offsite provider might go out of business
d)
managing e-mail and snail-mail , ,Answering and screening phone calls., Personal, private, or business research and purchasing.
24.
description of SMTP ( Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
a)
an Internet standard for electronic mail (email) transmission
b)
sets of rules that different devices use when they ommunicate
c)
an Internet standard for electronic mail (email) transmission
d)
low cost, flexibility, phone calls using PC interface
25.
characteristics of FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
a)
iser can transfer files to a host server from their local machine
b)
Data held in tables that can be edited and compared
c)
software�used to prevent, detect and remove malicious�software
d)
software for a particular purpose that cannot run without the operating system - smartphone apps for example
26.
characteristics of POP (Post Office Protocol)
a)
mail is deleted as soon as user downloads it
b)
most people understand it, usually free, available on most mobile phones
c)
cheap,fast,can be sent anytime
d)
makes it less likely that software will fail, increasing customer satisfaction
27.

It is a protocol that resolves device and domain names (website names) to IP addresses, and vice versa.

a)

HTTP

b)

SNMP

c)

DNS

d)

IPS

28.

What is the type of IP address shown in the image?

a)

IPv6

b)

APIPA

c)

Gateway

d)

IPv4

29.

The three main Cloud services models are

a)

Software as a Service (SaaS)

b)

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

c)

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

d)

Internet as a Service (IaaS)

30.
Which of the following are types of Wi-Fi encryption?
a)
WET, WPA
b)
WEP and WPA, WPA2
c)
WEP, WYA, WDA
d)
WPA, WGH
31.
Which is the more robust Wi-Fi encryption?
a)
WEP as it uses a 10-digit hex key
b)
WPA2 as it keeps generating different keys each time data is transferred.
32.

Which connection type(s) are wireless?

a)

Ethernet

b)

WiFi

c)

Bluetooth

d)

GPRS

33.

Which connection type(s) do you use with your mobile phone?

a)

Ethernet

b)

WiFi

c)

Bluetooth

d)

GPRS

34.
What is the access point (AP) in wireless LAN?
a)
device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
b)
both (a) and (b)
c)
none of the mentioned
d)
wireless devices itself
35.

Which of the following standard is WLAN

a)

IEEE 802.3

b)

IEEE 802.11

c)

IEEE 802.4

d)

IEEE 802.5

36.

This is the family of specifications for wireless local area networks (WLANs) developed by a working group of the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).

a)

3G

b)

802.11

c)

802.3

d)

802.5

37.
Which of these is the correct sequence for the place values for binary numbers?
a)
1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128
b)
1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16
c)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
d)
0, 1
38.

What kind of 'base' system is binary known as?

a)

Base 12

b)

Base 8

c)

Base 2

d)

Base 10

39.
Convert 37 to binary
a)
00100101
b)
00100011
c)
00100111
d)
01000101
40.
Convert 00010001 to decimal
a)
17
b)
27
c)
37
d)
47
41.
What is 1011 in denary?
a)
11
b)
14
c)
26
d)
1011
42.
How does a computer system work?
a)
Input - Process - Output
b)
Process- Output -Input
c)
Output - Input - Process
43.

A version number goes from 2.3 to 2.4. What has happened?

a)

A new piece of software has been installed

b)

Software has been updated

c)

Software has been upgraded

d)

Software has been removed

44.

Select two downsides to maintaining software

a)

Reduces security

b)

Training may be needed

c)

Functionality may be added

d)

Functionality may be lost

45.

What are the three types of patch?

a)

Hardware, software, firmware

b)

Bug fix, feature, security

c)

BIOS, RAM, HDD

d)

Peripheral, CPU, Memory

46.

Name two positive aspects of maintaining software

a)

New features are added

b)

Bugs are introduced

c)

Productivity increases

d)

Downtime increases

47.

Provides a central method of control to computers and objects through the usage of Domain Controllers (DC).

a)

Active Directory

b)

Domain

c)

Forest

d)

Workgroup

48.

A network of Windows machine utilizing the same name to share resources

a)

Active Directory

b)

Domain

c)

Forest

d)

Workgroup

49.

Microsoft network directory services is also known as

a)

Active Directory

b)

Domain

c)

Forest

d)

Workgroup

50.

Object that allow users to log on to the network

a)

Computers

b)

Groups

c)

Organizational Units (OU)

d)

User Accounts

51.

company.com, facebook.com, kpmim.edu.my are examples of

a)

Hostname

b)

Domain Name

c)

Fully Qualified Domain Name

d)

Servers

52.

A group of domain that share the same root namespace

a)

Active Directory Domain

b)

Domain Trees

c)

Forests

d)

Domain Controllers

53.

Choose the reasons to have more than one domain.

a)

Improve domain performance for users

b)

To follow regulatory needs / compliance

c)

To centralize administration

d)

To divide users based on organizational needs

e)

To create a separate domain for each divisions in an organization

54.

Choose all that is related and compulsory for basic Active Directory implementation

a)

DHCP Server

b)

DNS Server

c)

IIS Server

d)

Domain Controller 1

e)

Domain Controller 2

55.

Which Windows 10 service delivers security fixes, performance and reliability improvements, and updated device drivers?

a)

Windows Updates

b)

Windows Defender

c)

Windows Store

d)

Windows Features

56.

Which Windows 10 Update type are major version upgrades delivered twice a year?

a)

Feature Updates

b)

Quality Updates

c)

Servicing Stack Updates

d)

Driver Updates

57.

What are the two different ways on how you can acquire Client Access Licenses (CAL).

a)

User CAL

b)

Device CAL

c)

Client CAL

d)

Server CAL

58.
This tool tracks levels of activity for hardware and software and will help you decide if an upgrade is needed to improve performance. 
a)
Event viewer
b)
Performance Monitor
c)
Task scheduler
d)
Component services
59.
What windows tool can be used to perform maintenance on hard disks? 
a)
system configuration
b)
services
c)
disk defragmenter
d)
windows memory dianostics
60.
This Windows tool logs the history of Windows applications, system, and security occurrences. 
a)
task scheduler
b)
event viewer
c)
Microsoft Management console
d)
services
61.

Enrique's Windows 10 PC is operating much more slowly than usual. Which tool is best to use to quickly diagnose & fix the problem?

a)

Computer Management

b)

Disk Degragmenter

c)

Disk Management

d)

Task Manager

62.

Sonya wants to disable Microsoft Teams from automatically starting every time she boots her Windows 8.1 PC. Which Windows system feature/tool should she use?

a)

Computer Management

b)

MSConfig

c)

Task Manager

d)

Task Scheduler

63.
What is the most durable?
a)
Magnetic Tape
b)
Solid State Drive
c)
Hard Drive
d)
CD
64.

The way a file is organized. File formats are indicated by an extension such as .jpg, .gif, .png., .mp3, .wav, .wma, .mp4, .avi, and .wmv.

a)

File Format

b)

File System

c)

Compression

d)

Encryption

65.

The use of user and file attributes that control which users can read, write, move, or delete each file.

a)

File Permissions

b)

Journaling

c)

Drive

d)

Partitioning

66.

The process of dividing a single physical disk into multiple logical drives called volumes.

a)

Journaling

b)

Drive

c)

Partitioning

d)

Fragmentation

67.

When parts of a single file, program, or application are stored in different areas of a physical disk.

a)

Drive

b)

Partitioning

c)

Fragmentation

d)

Defragmentation

68.

The two types of file systems used for Windows are:

a)

FAT32

b)

NTFS

c)

Linux

d)

iOS

69.

FAT stands for

a)

File Arithmetic Table

b)

File Allocation Table

c)

Folder Allocation Table

d)

Folder Allotment Table

70.

NTFS stands for

a)

New Terminal File System

b)

Nodal Terminal File System

c)

Normal Technology File System

d)

New Technology File System

71.

Web sites are held on a ...

a)

Proxy Server

b)

Web Server

c)

Mail Server

d)

Print Server

72.
Where is the optimal place to have a proxy server?
a)
In between two private networks
b)
In between a private network and a public network
c)
In between two public networks
d)
On all of the servers
73.
What technology can you use temporarily to connect networks from two different companies?
a)
VPN
b)
HTTP
c)
DHCP
d)
passive router
74.
Which type of firewall blocks packets based on rules that are based on IP addresses or ports?
a)
packet filtering
b)
stateful packet inspection
c)
NAT filtering
d)
Application-level gateway
75.

A device that stands as an intermediary between an application such as a web browser and the Internet

a)

Caching

b)

Proxy Server

c)

Pop-up Blocker

d)

IP Address

76.

How many bits are in an ipv4 address?

a)

16

b)

32

c)

64

d)

128

77.

What is IPV6 stand for ?

a)

Intel protocol version 6

b)

internet provide vision

c)

Internet Protocol version 6

d)

internet protocol version 4

78.

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

24

d)

4

79.

How many bits are in an ipv6 address?

a)

64

b)

128

c)

256

d)

12

80.
Which of the following IP address is wrong?
a)
192.168.0.1
b)
0.0.0.255
c)
256.211.3.10
d)
1.1.1.1
81.

What is the purpose of IPv6

a)

To replace IPv4 because IPv4 is too short

b)

To replace IPv4 because the ammount of IP address in IPv4 is almost exhausted.

c)

Because newer computer only understand IPv6

d)

To stop connection of non personal computer devices such as smartphones/IPTV

82.

Which is the command to prompt out all IPv4 addressing?

a)

Ipconfig

b)

Ipconfig /all

c)

Ipv6config

d)

Ipv6config /all

83.

Which is the command to prompt out all IPv6 addressing?

a)

Ipconfig

b)

Ipconfig /all

c)

Ipv6config

d)

Ipv6config /all

84.
What logic gate is this?
a)
AND
b)
OR 
c)
NOT
d)
TO
85.

Which logic gate is this?

a)

AND

b)

OR

c)

XOR

d)

NOT

86.
A truth table lists every possible combination of input and the resulting output
a)
True
b)
False
87.

If I connect a domain via pointing, I need to make sure that these records are correct:

a)

Only the A record

b)

A and CNAME

c)

A, CNAME and NS

88.

Which is the option to pull up on the CMD when we're trying to delete the DNS records from the DNS resolver?

a)

CMD > Tracert

b)

CMD > ipconfig /flushdns

c)

CMD > ping (space) > Nameserver

d)

CMD > FIND/FINDSTR

89.

Match the Record to the Description: AAAA

a)

Address Record IPv4

b)

Address Record IPv6

c)

Canonical Name Record

d)

Mail Exchanger Record

90.

Match the Record to the Description: A

a)

Address Record IPv6

b)

Nameserver Record

c)

Address Record IPv4

d)

Text Record

91.

MX Record

a)

Address Record IPv4

b)

Mail Exchanger Record

c)

Pointer Record

d)

Text Record

92.

Match the Record to the Description: NS

a)

Nameserver Record

b)

Pointer Record

c)

Address Record IPv6

d)

Text Record

93.

Alias (CNAME) record...

a)

It essentially the reverse of A record where the “Name” field contains information of the IP address number and the “Data” field contains the hostname string.

b)

is mapping of a hostname into another hostname. and is used to create an alias for an existing A record.

c)

is used to point to the name of the server where a zone or domain name record is registered.

d)

provides information of what services are available in a particular zone or domain.

94.

Mail Exchanger (MX) record

a)

serves the basic function of DNS server which is to map a hostname string into its IP address.

b)

is used to point to the name of the server where a zone or domain name record is registered.

c)

is used specifically for the purpose of sending email.

d)

provides information of what services are available in a particular zone or domain

95.
Which two encryption protocols might be used to provide secure transmissions for browser and web server communications?
a)
HTTP & HTTPS
b)
SSL & TLS
c)
SSL & HTTP
d)
TCP & UDP
96.

Windows utilises the following patch management tool?

a)

WDS (Windows Deployment Services)

b)

WSUS (Windows sequencial update services

c)

WSUS (Windows Server Update Services)

d)

WDS (Windows download services)

97.

Which is the most secure way of remotely access a system

a)

Telnet

b)

HTTPS

c)

SSH

d)

Nano

98.

RDP stands for?

a)

Remote Desktop Programming

b)

Response Device Protocol

c)

Remote Deployment Protocol

d)

Remote Desktop Protocol

99.

The remote desktop protocol (RDP) allows for remote desktop to a PC. What port number does it function over?

a)

389

b)

80

c)

21

d)

3389

100.

SSH allows for remote management of a system. Whats does SSH stand for?

a)

Secure Software hosting

b)

Secure Socket host

c)

Security Socket Host

d)

Secure software host

101.

What port number is SSH associated with?

a)

21

b)

23

c)

22

d)

80

102.

You have the choice of using SSH or telnet to remote manage a machine, what would you choose?

a)

telnet as the commands are built into all operating systems

b)

SSH as it provides encryption of the commands being sent and recieved

c)

telnet as it provided encryption of the commands being sent and received

d)

SSH as all systems have it installed so its there to use

103.

Telnet is an insecure method of remote management of a system. What port does it utilise?

a)

20

b)

21

c)

22

d)

23

104.

What is this?

a)

DNS

b)

GPO

c)

Task Manager

d)

Network And Sharing Center

105.

What best describes the role of a security group?

a)

Used for bulk mailers

b)

Used for mailbox set up

c)

Used for user creation

d)

Used as an access control list

106.

Any user, system, resource or service tracked within Active Directory is known as:

a)

Site

b)

Domain

c)

Object

d)

Attribute

107.
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)  a protocol used to access a directory service
a)
Yes
b)
No

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