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Big Fat Y7 Revision Quiz

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Name the place in France William the Conqueror came from.
a)
Paris
b)
Normandy
c)
Provence
d)
Toulon
2.

Viking King of Norway that claimed the English throne through King Cnut.

a)

The Normans

b)

William the Conqueror

c)

The Vikings

d)

Harald Hadrada

3.
leader of the Saxon Armies
a)
Harald Hadrada
b)
Harold Godwinson
c)
Edward the Confessor
d)
William the Conqueror
4.

Battle between Harold Godwinson and King Harald Hardrada

a)

Battle of Hastings

b)

Battle of Stamford Bridge

c)

Battle of Fulford Gate

d)

Battle of Pevensey

5.

The image used comes from the famous

a)

British tapestry

b)

Norman tapestry

c)

Bayeaux Tapestry

d)

Bayeux Tapestry

6.
The Norman army were made up of...
a)
Archers and cavalry
b)
Archers and the Fyrd
c)
The Fyrd and Housecarls
d)
Housecarls and Cavalry
7.
The Saxon army were made up mainly of...
a)
Archers and cavalry
b)
Archers and the Fyrd
c)
The Fyrd and Housecarls
d)
Housecarls and Cavalry
8.
Who did William fight for the throne of England?
a)
Harald Hardrada
b)
Harold Godwinson
c)
Harold Happyface
d)
Harold Good Win Son
9.

What structures did William build in order to help him control the population of England?

a)

Houses

b)

Castles

c)

Bridges

d)

Schools

10.

Which of these changes did William bring to England?

a)

he caused a change of language

b)

he replaced English nobles with Norman lords

c)

he built many castles

d)

he did all of these things

11.

How did William control the country?

a)

He allowed the Saxon nobles to keep their land

b)

He gave land to the Church

c)

He gave land to the Norman nobles and imposed the feudal system

12.

What was the Domesday book?

a)

A list of people who fought against William of Normandy

b)

A story of how the English were conquered by the Normans

c)

A list of who owned what lands in England

d)

A book on cathedral architecture

13.
Latitude lines run
a)
East to West
b)
North to South
14.
What is the approximate location of letter B?
a)
80oN, 0o
b)
0o, 80oW
c)
80oS, 0o
d)
0o, 80oE
15.
What is this object known as?
a)
map symbol
b)
map key
c)
map scale
d)
compass rose
16.
Name Continent C!
a)
Antarctica
b)
Europe
c)
Asia
d)
North America
17.
Continent F is ________.
a)
Antarctica
b)
Australia
c)
Europe
d)
North America
18.
A _______________ is exactly half of the earth.
a)
Equator
b)
Hemisphere
c)
Tropic of Cancer
d)
Arctic Circle
19.
Which letter would you find at 15oS, 60oW?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
L
d)
H
20.

What line divides the earth into Eastern and Western Hemispheres?

a)

Prime Meridian

b)

Equator

c)

Latitude

d)

Longitude

21.

What lines run from South to North alongside the Prime Meridian?

a)

latitude (parallels)

b)

longitude (meridians)

c)

Equator

d)

Prime Meridian

22.

Identify the OS Map symbol.

a)

Camp site

b)

Caravan Site

c)

Picnic Site

d)

Car Park

23.

Identify the OS map symbol.

a)

Coniferous Wood

b)

Non-coniferous Wood

c)

Mixed Wood

24.

Identify the OS Map Symbol.

a)

Nature Reserve

b)

Pet Shop

c)

Bird Nest

d)

Duck Pond

25.

What is the symbol for Clubhouse?

a)

CH

b)

ch

26.

Identify the OS Map Symbol.

a)

Information Centre

b)

Island

c)

Internet Cafe

27.

Identify the OS Map Symbol.

a)

Railway track under construction

b)

Railway track

c)

Footpath

d)

Road

28.

What is the golden rule for finding a Grid Reference?

a)

Never eat soggy Weet-a-Bix.

b)

Along the corridor, then up the stairs.

c)

Along the pathway, and through the gate.

d)

Eastings before bee-stings.

29.
What is the 6-figure GR for the letter A?
a)
1334
b)
145345
c)
139344
d)
135345
30.

The main compass points are:

a)

North, West, South, East.

b)

West, North, East, South.

c)

North, South, East, West.

d)

North, West, East, South.

31.

What is the grid reference of the snake?

a)

(B,9)

b)

(9,B)

c)

(C,7)

d)

(F,3)

32.

What is at F2?

a)

Mountains

b)

River

c)

Treasure

d)

Lake

33.

What is the interval of the above contour map?

a)

10 meters

b)

5 meters

c)

1 meter

d)

20 meters

34.

What is the grid reference for car park?

4 lines
35.

Who does NOT use a grid reference while working?

a)

pilot

b)

driver

c)

cook

d)

travellers

36.

What is the missing number at the end of this grid reference for the church 24....?

a)

00

b)

01

c)

02

d)

03

37.

What is the six figure grid reference for the train station?

a)

180 440

b)

180 444

c)

181 445

d)

180 443

38.

The scale of a map is 1 cm to 2.5 km. Find the scale of the map.

a)

1 : 250

b)

1 : 2500

c)

1 : 250000

d)

1 cm : 250 cm

39.

Who was Henry VIII's father?

a)

Edward VIII

b)

Arthur Tudor

c)

Henry VII

d)

Prince Albert

40.

How many wives did Henry VIII have?

a)

none

b)

8

c)

1

d)

6

41.

Who was Elizabeth I's mother?

a)

Anne Boleyn

b)

Mary I

c)

Catherine of Aragon

d)

Elizabeth of York

42.

What religion was Henry VII?

a)

Protestant

b)

Catholic

c)

Puritain

d)

Muslim

43.

What was the English Reformation?

a)

Changes made by Henry VIII to religion in England

b)

Joining England with Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland

c)

Henry's divorce from Anne Boleyn

d)

A letter from the Pope

44.

How many people did Mary I supposedly burn?

a)

2483

b)

284

c)

79

d)

726

45.

What changes did Edward make to the English Church?

a)

Bible in English

b)

Smashing stained glass windows

c)

Allowed priests to marry

d)

Painted the walls with colourful murals

e)

Smashed statues

46.

Henry VIII had 6 wives. Select one wife that did NOT have any children with Henry.

a)

Catherine of Aragon

b)

Jane Seymour

c)

Catherine Howard

d)

Anne Boleyn

47.

Write a definition for the word "Reformation"

4 lines
48.

Why did Henry VIII close the monasteries from 1536?

a)

Because the monks and nuns lived sinful lives

b)

To sell the land and raise money for his war in France

c)

Because he was a strict protestant

d)

Because the monasteries were too rich

49.

Edward VI was (a)   years old when he became King

50.
What are three things that rivers do naturally?
a)
a.erode, transport, and deposit
b)
b. dissolve, precipitate, sublime
c)
c. evaporate, percolate, infiltrate
d)
d.none of these
51.
Which of the following is the key term that describes the point at which a small river enters another river
a)
Tributary
b)
Watershed
c)
Source
d)
Confluence
52.
A small stream or river feeding into the main river is known as...
a)
Confluence
b)
Source
c)
Tributary
d)
Mouth
53.
What is the name of the point where a river starts?
a)
 Source
b)
 Point A
c)
 Heart
d)
Opening 
54.
 Deposition is a process that
a)
Dissolves sediment
b)
Breaks down rock to form sediment
c)
Removes sediment from land forms
d)
Drops sediment to form landforms
55.
Why are the rocks and pebbles found in riverbeds usually smooth?
a)
The rocks are very old.
b)
Animals in the river keep rubbing against the rocks.
c)
Rivers only flow where rocks are smooth.
d)
The rocks are worn smooth by rubbing against other rocks.
56.
An oxbow lake is an old
a)
meander bend
b)
floodplain
c)
terrace
d)
channel bed
57.

This part of the drainage basin is the edge of highland. It surrounds a drainage basin and marks the boundary between two drainage basins.

a)

Catchment Area

b)

Confluence

c)

Watershed

d)

Tributary

58.

Which of the following transportation process involves small rocks bouncing along the river bed?

a)

Traction

b)

Saltation

c)

Suspension

d)

Solution

59.

Which of the following erosion process involves small particles scraping of other materials along the river banks.

a)

Corrosion (solution)

b)

Corrasion (abrasion)

c)

Attrition

d)

Hydraulic Action

60.

True/False: The greater the energy a river carries, the higher the rate of river erosion.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

_______________ is responsible for making the river deeper and wider.

a)

Erosion

b)

Transportation

c)

Deposition

d)

Suspension

62.
A waterfall is created because of ...
a)
the types of layers of rock
b)
the force of gravity
c)
deforestation
d)
deposition
63.

What helps create Waterfalls? (Choose 3)

a)

Abrasion

b)

Solution

c)

Silting

d)

Hydraulic Action

64.
The area that contains a river system is called a what?
a)
Drain Bassoon
b)
Drainage Basinet
c)
Drainage Basin
d)
Drain Basalt
65.

Attrition is when ..

a)

large rocks smash against each other.

b)

small rocks rub against the river bed.

c)

sand and other fine particles float.

d)

water flows into the rocks.

66.
Transportation in river systems has four main categories. These are ...
a)
Suspension, Solution, Attrition, Abrasion.
b)
Suspension, Solution, Saltation, Abrasion.
c)
Suspension, Solution, Saltation, Attrition.
d)
Suspension, Solution, Saltation, traction.
67.
Explain the differences in the size and shape of the material on the river bed in the upper and lower courses of a river
a)
A. In the upper course load is smaller and more rounded than in the lower course because of erosional processes such as attrition and corrasion.
b)
B. As a river moves through its course, because of the greater incidence of larger settlements, more supermarket shopping trolleys are likely to be found in rivers, adding to the load that has already been deposited.
c)
C. In the lower course load is smaller and more rounded than in the upper course because of erosional processes such as attrition and corrasion.
68.
What features are associated with waterfalls
a)
A. Niagara, Victoria, Angel, High Force
b)
B. Plunge pool, undercutting, hard and soft rock.
c)
C. Weathering, erosion, transportation and deposition
69.

Looking at the long profile of the river's course, where does most erosion occur?

a)

Upper course

b)

Middle course

c)

Lower course

d)

The mouth

70.

In the river process of erosion, when rocks and stones in the water act like sandpaper and scrape the river bed and bank, wearing them away, this is called ____________ .

a)

Solution

b)

Attrition

c)

Hydraulic action

d)

Abrasion

71.
Which method of transportation is the rolling of large boulders along the river bed?
a)
Traction
b)
Suspension
c)
Saltation
d)
Solution
72.

Where does deposition mostly occur?

a)

Upper Course

b)

Middle Course

c)

Lower Course

73.

Name this river feature

a)

Ox-bow lake

b)

Meander

c)

Delta

d)

Waterfall and Gorge

74.

Name this river feature

a)

Waterfall and Gorge

b)

Meander

c)

Ox-Bow Lake

d)

Delta

75.

The main way that deposition happens is...

a)

through increase of speed so that extra energy pushes rocks and sediment to places it can deposit.

b)

through loss of speed because it loses energy and cannot carry so much.

c)

when sediment and rocks flow over a waterfall.

d)

when the river is at bankfull.

76.

A flood plain is...

a)

the flat land alongside a river which sometimes floods

b)

flat land surrounding a river which never floods

c)

the source of water for a river

d)

the boundary between two drainage basins

77.

A cause of flooding is when more rain falls than the river channel can hold and water flows over the banks onto the flood plain.

a)

true

b)

false

78.

A "human" cause of flooding is...

a)

impermeable rocks

b)

building roads, houses and factories

c)

heavy rain

d)

steep valley sides

79.

A "natural" cause of flooding is...

a)

steep valley sides

b)

building roads

c)

building houses

d)

urbanisation

80.

Runoff is...

a)

water falling from the atmosphere as rain, hail, sleet or snow

b)

rainwater soaking into the ground

c)

evaporation of water from leaves

d)

rainwater moving over the ground surface

81.

What is flood management for?

a)

To help rivers flooding

b)

To protect certain areas from flooding

c)

To protect farms from flooding

d)

To prevent rivers going near a town or city

82.

What is hard engineering?

a)

Man-made ways to try and control flooding

b)

Natural ways to try and control flooding

83.

What is soft engineering

a)

Man-made ways to try and control flooding

b)

Natural ways to try and control flooding

84.

Which of the following are types of hard engineering?

a)

Flood warnings

b)

Straightening and dredging

c)

A dam

d)

Flood plane zoning

85.

Which of the following are types of soft engineering?

a)

A dam

b)

Flood plane zoning

c)

Straightening and dredging

d)

Flood warnings

86.

What are the positives of using a dam/reservoir?

a)

It can create electricity

b)

It stops flooding downstream

c)

It is cheap

d)

It is very effective

87.

What are the negatives of flood warnings?

a)

It is expensive

b)

Not everyone will get the message

c)

It doesn't stop the flooding

d)

It damages the environment

88.
What is an ‘interpretation’? 
a)
A translation from another language
b)
 A judgement or view/opinion
c)
A conversation between people
89.

What is a colony?

a)

Part of the human body

b)

a) A group of countries controlled and ruled by a more powerful country

c)

countries that make an alliance during the war

90.
What was the name of the company which first started the British Empire in India? 
a)
The India Company
b)
The West India Company
c)
The East India Company
91.

What did the British gain from India?

a)

Tea, bananas, curry

b)

Silk, coffee, spices

c)

Hinduism, Sikhism, Christianity

92.
Which country was the 'jewel in the crown' of the British Empire?
a)
New Zealand
b)
India
c)
Canada
d)
The Gold Coast
93.

What is an empire?

a)

a collection of countries that are controlled by one ruler

b)

when a country is free

c)

when one country is taken over by another

d)

a chunk of land that is connected

94.

The city of Jerusalem is important to what three major religions?

a)

Buddhism, Hinduism, and Islam

b)

Islam, Christianity, and Hinduism

c)

Islam, Christianity, and Judaism

95.

The First Crusade got started when the Seljuk Turks did what?

a)

Made it dangerous for Christians to go to Jerusalem

b)

Attacked Rome

c)

Burnt down the city of Jerusalem

d)

Destroyed the Byzantine Empire

96.

Why was the First Crusade the most successful?

a)

The crusaders captured and gained control of Jerusalem.

b)

The crusaders took over the Byzantine Empire.

c)

The crusaders drove the Muslims out of the Iberian Peninsula.

97.

The crusaders were from which place?

a)

throughout Europe

b)

The Eastern Mediterranean

c)

The Holy Land

d)

Spain and Italy

98.

The population is distributed evenly across the world

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Population density is usually higher in places

a)

along the coast or near water

b)

in the high latitudes

c)

in the desert

d)

in the mountain ranges

100.

What is not a concerning issue with the growing population of the planet?

a)

running out of resources

b)

climate change/global warming

c)

running out of space

d)

lack of sanitation and opportunities for disease to spread

101.

What country has the highest life expectancy?

a)

US

b)

Japan

c)

Australia

d)

China

102.

For population to grow what essentially has to happen?

a)

people have to have more children

b)

more people have to die than what is being born

c)

birth rate must exceed death rate

d)

death rate must exceed birth rate

103.

Most people live in

a)

rural areas

b)

suburban areas

c)

urban areas

104.

Birth rates tend to be higher in

a)

less developed countries

b)

developed countries

c)

industrialized countries

105.

Which is not a push factor?

a)

Peace

b)

Crime

c)

Loss of job

d)

War

106.

Which is not a pull factor?

a)

Good schools

b)

Job opportunities

c)

Peace

d)

Crime

107.

Why would an area be sparsely populated?

a)

lack of natural resources

b)

land is covered with ice

c)

land cannot be developed

d)

all of the above

108.

When people have to leave their country to escape war, persecution or a natural disaster they are called

a)

rock stars

b)

traveling salesmen

c)

refugees

d)

high maintenance people

109.

True or false: The movement of people from rural to urban areas is called urbanization

a)

true

b)

false

110.

What word describes a poor country with an economy based on farming?

a)

standard of living

b)

dependent population

c)

less developed nation

d)

more developed nation

111.

Lower birth rate

a)

More developed

b)

Less developed

112.

True/False: Less developed countries have more dependents than independents.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

What age groups does the bottom of a population pyramid represent?

a)

The elderly

b)

The working adults

c)

The children

d)

Males

114.

What does the whole right side of the population pyramid represent?

a)

Males

b)

Females

c)

Unemployed

d)

Young people

115.

What does the whole left side of the population pyramid represent?

a)

Males

b)

Females

c)

The working class

d)

The young

116.

What growth rate does this population pyramid represent?

a)

Rapid Growth

b)

Slow Growth

c)

Negative Growth

d)

Zero Growth

117.

What population growth rate does this population pyramid represent?

a)

Zero Growth

b)

Negative Growth

c)

Slow Growth

d)

Rapid Growth

118.

Which growth rate does this population pyramid represent?

a)

Slow Growth

b)

Zero Growth

c)

Rapid Growth

d)

Negative Growth

119.

Describe the likely GDP of this country

a)

They have a high GDP

b)

They have a low GDP

c)

They are super poor

d)

They have no GDP

120.

What does 'HIC' stand for?

(a)  

121.

What does 'NEE' stand for?

(a)  

122.

What does 'LIC' stand for?

(a)  

123.

How many stages of the DTM are there?

(a)  

124.

2. Development is most commonly measured using:

a)

Social, economic and environmental indicators.

b)

Economic indicators.

c)

Social indicators.

d)

Social and economic indicators.

125.

The birth rate is....

a)

the number of babies born per 1000 population per year

b)

the number of babies a woman will have in her lifetime

c)

the number of babies born per 1000 people who do not survive past their 1st birthday

126.

Which of these is a physical reason a country may not have been able to develop?

a)

corrupt government

b)

lack of healthcare

c)

lack of schools

d)

the country is prone to flooding

127.

Colonialism is a reason some countries have not been able to develop. Which category would this fall under?

a)

physical

b)

historical

c)

social

d)

economic

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