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5G NCSA

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the three 5G usage scenarios for IMT 2020 and beyond defined by ITU-R

a)

Enhanced MBB, Massive Machine Type communication and Broadcast services

b)

Enhanced MBB, Massive Machine Type communication, Vehicle to vehicle and Vehicle to infrastructure (V2X)

c)

Enhanced MBB, Massive Machine Type communication and Ultra reliable/low latency communications

d)

Enhanced MBB, Massive Machine Type communication and critical services

2.

What is "over the air latency" in SG

a)

0.5 ms

b)

1 ms

c)

2 ms

d)

3 ms

3.

What is target user plane latency for eMBB

a)

1 ms

b)

2 ms

c)

3 ms

d)

4 ms

4.

5G System architecture is defined in 3GPP as

a)

Service Based

b)

Network Element based

c)

Network Function based

d)

Interface based

5.

New Functional Element introduced in 5G Core with NO Equivalent in 4G networks is

a)

Network Repository Function ( NRF)

b)

Access and Mobility Management Function (AMF)

c)

Session Management Function (SMF)

d)

User Plane Function ( UPF)

6.

Which Node performs the function "Selection of an AMF at UE attachment" when NO routing to an AMF can be determined from the information provided by the UE

a)

gNB

b)

AMF

c)

SMF

d)

UE

7.

Which statement about "ng-eNB" is BEST Fit

a)

Providing E-UTRA user plane and control plane protocol terminations towards UE , Supports connectivity to 5GC and EPC

b)

Providing E-UTRA user plane and control plane protocol terminations towards UE , Supports connectivity to 5GC only

c)

Providing NR user plane and control plane protocol terminations towards UE , supports connectivity with 5GC only

d)

Providing NR user plane and control plane protocol terminations towards UE , supports connectivity with EPC only

8.

Which 5G Network architecture deployment Option uses "5G Core with eNB as Master and gNB as Secondary Node"

a)

Option 2

b)

Option 3

c)

Option 4

d)

Option 7

9.

What is Stand alone Option 1

a)

SA LTE with EPC

b)

SA NR with 5GC

c)

SA LTE with 5GC

d)

SA NR with EPC

10.

What does "gNB-DU" stands for

a)

Next generation Node B - Data Unit

b)

Next generation Node B - Diversified Unit

c)

Next generation Node B - Distributed Unit

d)

Next generation Node B - Divided Unit

11.

In the cloud configuration, the L2-RT processing function is performed by

a)

gNB-CU

b)

gNB-DU

c)

gNB

d)

RU

12.

Which of the following AirScale plugin-units are supported in 5G19

a)

ASOD

b)

ASIA and ABIL

c)

ASIK and ABIL

d)

ASIK and ABIK

13.

Which entity handles data traffic in 5G Core(5GC)

a)

AMF

b)

SMF

c)

UPF

d)

UDR

14.

VM (Virtual Machine) gets deployed on

a)

Switch

b)

Controller

c)

Storage

d)

Compute

15.

Which interface is defined between Centralized Unit (gNBCU) and a Distributed Unit (gNB-DU) in a gNB

a)

X2

b)

F1

c)

Xn

d)

NG

16.

Which interface is defined between AF and PCF

a)

N1

b)

N3

c)

N4

d)

N5

17.

Which protocol sublayers are in CU for Option 3x adopted in R15

a)

RRC & PDCP

b)

Physical & MAC

c)

RLC & MAC

d)

RLC & PHYSICAL

18.

Which new radio protocol introduced in 5G

a)

PDCP

b)

RRC

c)

SDAP

d)

RLC

19.

SDAP belongs to protocol

a)

Layer-1

b)

Layer-2

c)

Layer-3

d)

Application

20.

Which node work as MASTER in EN-DC

a)

gNB-CU

b)

gNB-DU

c)

eNB

d)

AMF

21.

In EN-DC, interface between eNB & en-gNB

a)

X2

b)

F1

c)

Xn

d)

NG

22.

How many symbol in 1 slot

a)

2

b)

4

c)

7

d)

14

23.

What is the max UL power 5G UE in for FR2 >6GHz

a)

23

b)

24

c)

30

d)

33

24.

How many frequency range for NR in 3GPP

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

25.

Which opton supports 5G standalone deployment?

a)

option 3x

b)

option 2

c)

option 4

d)

option 7

26.

Where beam recovery function performed

a)

On RRC & LLC

b)

on MAC & LLC

c)

on PHY & MAC

d)

on PHY & LLC

27.

In beam management for initial access, gNB is transmitting SSB with same content

a)

PSS, SSS

b)

PSS, SSS, PBCH

c)

SSS, PBCH

d)

PSS, SSS, PRACH

28.

Which 3GPP Release for mMIMO available for 5G

a)

R8

b)

R9-10

c)

R13-14

d)

R15

29.

What statement is TRUE about hybrid beamforming

a)

Adaptive TX/RX weighting at baseband

b)

Single transceiver per RF beam

c)

Low Flexibility

d)

High power consumption

30.

mMIMO stands for

a)

Maximum Multiple Input Multiple Output

b)

Massive Multiple Input Multiple Output

c)

Multi Maasive Input Massive Output

d)

Maximum Antenna Gain

31.

Network Slice isolation is crucial mechanism in Network Slicing. How network isolation is provided in Transport.

a)

By equipment specific mechanism on (non Virtualized) RAN equipment

b)

By NFV mechanism in Central/Edge cloud

c)

By encrypting the traffic all base stations and Core Network using IPSec

d)

By robust implementation of Virtualization layer

32.

What is Network Slicing

a)

a concept for separation UP & CP

b)

a concept for deployments using NFV

c)

a concept for the RAN architecture to allow the deployment of new services rapidly and efficiently

d)

a concept for running multiple logical networks as virtual Independent business operations on a common physical infrastructure

33.

With of the following is NOT true about Network Slicing

a)

Network Slicing is an e2e concept

b)

NFV and SDN are the enablers

c)

Network Slicing is a logical instantiation of a network

d)

Network slicing requires resources from different PLAN

34.

What is the procedure initiated by the UE to establish a secure connection to the network

a)

Notification

b)

Paging

c)

Service request

d)

TAU

35.

What is the Mobility management state of the UE when a 5GMM context has been established

a)

5GMM Deregistered

b)

5GMM Registered

c)

NG CM Idle

d)

NG CM Connected

36.

A PDU session is established between the:

a)

UE and UPF

b)

UE and gNB

c)

gNB and UPF

d)

gNB and AMF

37.

The PDU Session Establishment Accept message is sent to UE by

a)

UPF

b)

gNB

c)

AMF

d)

SMF

38.

Which node is used to establish secure connection between the UE and the 5GC for Non 3GPP access

a)

N3IWF

b)

UPF

c)

PCF

d)

NEF

39.

What is eCall in 5G Systems

a)

It Is an Enhanced Emergency Alert System used in European Union

b)

It Is an Encrypted Emergency Alert System used In European Union

c)

It Is an Automatic Emergency Alert System used In European Union

d)

It is an Authenticated Emergency Alert System used in European Union

40.

In 5G system, RAT fallback for Emergency Services is performed when

a)

NR connected to 5GC does not support Emergency Services

b)

E-UTRA connected to 5GC does not support Emergency Services

c)

EPC does not support Emergency Services

d)

5GC does not support Emergency Services

41.

Which of the applications requires Ultra Low Latency?

a)

Immersive 360 Video

b)

Smart electric meters

c)

Industry robotics and automation

d)

Fixed wireless access

42.

Which new 5G network characteristic allows it to support rapidly digitilizing industries?

a)

Highly distributed architecture

b)

Improved coverage from the hgh operating bands

c)

Centrelized architecture

d)

Support of Iot devices

43.

How can 5G achieve lower latency than 4G?

a)

with the help of MIMO and Beamforming

b)

with the help of highly distributed network architecture e.g Edge cloud

c)

with the help of multi connectivity

d)

with the help of software defined networking (SDN)

44.

How 5G will benefit the healthcare Industry?

a)

Drone to inspect, identity proactively and address issues

b)

Remotely supported complex health interventions

c)

Immersive device Augmented Realty, eith personilzed experience

d)

Dynamic production control, increased capacity and greater agility

45.

How 5G will benefit the transportation industry to achieve an increase traffic efficiency?

a)

Drones to inspect, identity proactively and address issues

b)

Instaneous, proactive threat recognation via video

c)

Autonomous robotic machinery

d)

Dynamic platooning with shorter distance

46.

Which node hosts the function "Idle State Mobility Handling"?

a)

UPF

b)

gNB or ng-eNB

c)

AMF

d)

SMF

47.

Which network Function within the 5G Core Integrates "Untrusted WLAN Access" to the Universal Core?

a)

Not Supported

b)

NEF

c)

N3iWF

d)

AMF

48.

Which of the following are main functions of the AMF?

a)

NAS security and idle State mobility handling

b)

Mobility anchoring and PDU handling

c)

UE IP address allocation and PDU session control

d)

Radio Bearer Control and Dynamic Resources Allocation

49.

Which statement BEST fits the introduction of the F1 interface in 5G?

a)

Allows gNB CU and gNB DU to be from different vendors

b)

Requires gNB CU and gNB DU to be from the same vendor

c)

Requires all the gNB DU's connected to gNB CU to be from the same vendor

d)

Requires all the gNB CU's connected to the 5G core to be from the same vendor

50.

With the "option2" NR RAN functional split, which protocol entities are within the CU?

a)

RRC & PDCP

b)

RRC,PDCP & RLC

c)

RRC, PDCP & RLC LO

d)

RRC, PDCP & RLC HI

51.
With the "option 2" NR RAN functional split, the "FI interface" is between :
a)
RRC & PDCP
b)
PDCP & MAC
c)
RLC & MAC
d)
PDCP & RLC
52.
Why do operators nees to deploy the "standalone" (SA) architecture with 5GC?
a)
The full benefit of 5G cannot be realized with NSA
b)
SA allows the introduction of new Frequency Bands
c)
SA deliver Extreme broadband
d)
SA provides Massive IOT support
53.
When using the Nokia 5G Solution, which entity triggers the X2 establishment in NSA option 3x?
a)
eNB
b)
gNB
c)
UE
d)
MME
54.
Which kind of core network will be used by 5G NSA option 3x?
a)
MGW
b)
LTE evolved Packet Core (EPC)
c)
SGSN
d)
5G Core (5GC)
55.
Which entity within the 5GC assign the IP address to UE?
a)
UPF
b)
NRF
c)
MME
d)
SMF
56.
Which of the following is commonly referred to as the RAP (Radio Access Point)
a)
RAU
b)
RU and RAU
c)
RAC
d)
RU and RAU
57.
Which enity is used to deploy 5G VNF?
a)
CBIS
b)
CBAM
c)
WEBUI
d)
NETACT
58.
which cloud infrastructure is used by Nokia for the 5G "Radio Application"?
a)
NASM
b)
CBIS
c)
CBAM
d)
NCIR
59.
NDCS stands for :
a)
Nokia Designed Center Solution
b)
Nokia Different Center Solution
c)
Nokia Data Center Solution
d)
Nokia Distributed Center Solution
60.
Which interface is defined between UE and AMF
a)
N2
b)
N4
c)
N5
d)
N1
61.
Which interface is defined between NGRAN and UPF?
a)
N3
b)
N4
c)
N5
d)
N2
62.
Which interface is defined between AMF and SMF?
a)
N12
b)
N11
c)
N13
d)
N10
63.
Which interface is defined between UPF and SMF?
a)
N4
b)
N3
c)
N5
d)
N1
64.
Which protocol handle the mapping of core network data flows with certain QoS requirements to parameterized radio transmissions?
a)
RRC
b)
RLC
c)
PDCP
d)
SDAP
65.
Which protocol handles Per Packet QoS?
a)
RRC
b)
RLC
c)
PDCP
d)
SDAP
66.
Which layer performs segmentation and Reassembly?
a)
MAC
b)
RLC
c)
PDCP
d)
RRC
67.
Which protocol is used by layer 3 of the Control Plance
a)
PDCP
b)
RLC
c)
RRC
d)
SDAP
68.
In MR-DC with 5G (NGEN-DC, NE-DC), the master node and the secondary node are interconnected via which interface?
a)
F1
b)
NG
c)
X2
d)
Xn
69.
Which node operates as the MASTER NODE in E-UTRA-NR Dual connectivity (EN-DC)?
a)
gNB-DU
b)
AMF
c)
gNB-CU
d)
eNB
70.
What is the interface between two gNB?
a)
NG
b)
X2
c)
Xn
d)
S1
71.
In 5G the Multiple Access scheme for the NR physical layer is :
a)
Only SDMA
b)
OFDMA and CDMA
c)
OFDMA, TDMA and SDMA
d)
Only OFDMA
72.
How many OFDM symbol are supported in a slot ?
a)
4
b)
7
c)
2
d)
14
73.
How many Frequency range (FR) are defined for NR in 3GPP?
a)
3
b)
5
c)
2
d)
1
74.
From 3GPP release 15, NR will support spectrum operation between:
a)
From below 400Mhz up to 90Ghz
b)
From below 400MHz up to 52Ghz
c)
From below 1Ghz up to 52.6Ghz
d)
From 800Mhz and 90 Ghz
75.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the Non Standalone Architecture in 5G
a)
Both the eNB and gNB have both Control Plane and User Plane connections to th core network
b)
The gNB has a direct Control Plane connection with the LTE EPC
c)
Both Core networks (EPC & 5GC) can be used simultaneously
d)
The gNB is connected to the LTE EPC, while the eNB acts as an anchor for the control plane
76.
What is the purpose of the beam indication procedure?
a)
it is used for rapid link reconfigurations against sudden blockages
b)
It is to assist the Ue to set its reception and transmission beams properly for the reception of DL and transmission of UL, respectively
c)
It is used to provide the gNB with knowledge regarding the feasible DL and UL beams for the UE
d)
It is used to refine gNB and UE side beams to allow seamless handover between beams.
77.
What are the maximum number of 5G broadcast beams supported for the low, medium, and high frequency range
a)
4,8, and 16
b)
16,32, and 64
c)
8,16, and 32
d)
4,8, and 64
78.
Which procedure is used for rapid link reconfigurations against sudden blockages
a)
beam indication
b)
Beam tracking and refinement
c)
Beam recovery
d)
Beam Measurements and reporting
79.
In which 3GPP release in MIMO available for 5G?
a)
Release 8
b)
Release 15
c)
Release 13-14
d)
Release 9-10
80.
What is meant by the team active antenna?
a)
it comprises of only radiating elements but may include phase shifters
b)
It refers to the integration of small RF units inside the antenna
c)
It refers to antennas with very high gain
d)
it refers to antennas with very small size
81.
How many Transceiver (TRx's) per polarization are there in the case of 5G Analog Beamforming?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
4
d)
8
82.
Which statements is TRUE regarding hybrid beamforming?
a)
Hybrid Beamforming has lower flexibility than analog beamforming
b)
There are adaptive TX/RX weightings at both RF and baseband
c)
Hybrid beamforming does NOT support multi data streams
d)
Hybrid beamforming has higher power consumption than digital beamforming
83.
In the case of digital beamforming, beamforming precoding is applied :
a)
partially before Digital-Analog Conversation and Partially After Digital Analog Conversion.
b)
before digital-analog conversion of the signal
c)
after digital-analog conversion of the signal
d)
at the antenna elements
84.
What is the benefit of having more transmitters (TRX's) within an active antenna?
a)
it increase the cell capacity
b)
it is beneficial for analog beamforming at higher frequency bands
c)
it is cost effective and reduces power consumption
d)
It allows the creation of a single constructive beam for providing enhanced coverage
85.
On what basis is a 5G network sliced when using Network slicing?
a)
Per different Radio Access Technologu
b)
Per type of core network (EPC or 5GC)
c)
Perdifferent Numerology
d)
Perdifferent service type or use case
86.
Single NSSAI (S-NSSAI) is comprised of which components ?
a)
Network slice Instance (NSI) + Registration Area (RA)
b)
Network Slice Subnet Instance (NSSI) + PLMN ID
c)
Tracking Area (TA) + Registration Area (RA)
d)
Slice/Service Type (SST) + Service Differentiator (SD)
87.
What is the registration procesdure when entering a new TA outside the TAI List?
a)
initial registration
b)
Mobility registration update
c)
periodic registration update
d)
Registration Update
88.
During initial registration, what is the mobility managament state of the UE prior to NAS signalling connection establishment between the UE and AMF?
a)
NG CM Idle
b)
5GMM Deregistered
c)
NG GM Connected
d)
5GMM registered
89.
5GS Session Managament comprises procedure for :
a)
Lawful interception of PDU sessions
b)
Paging for PDU sessions
c)
Authentication and authorization of PDU session
d)
Registration of PDU sessions
90.
After packaging into a NAS message, the PDU Session Establishment Accept is sent to UE by the :
a)
SMF
b)
AMF
c)
UPF
d)
gNB
91.
A PDU session is
a)
An establishment of a NAS signalling connection
b)
A procedure to connect a UE to and SMF
c)
The support of an exchange of a single type of PDU requested by the UE
d)
An association between the UE and a Data Network that provides a PDU connectivity service
92.
Which interface is defined between 5G UE and N3IWF ?
a)
Y1
b)
NWc
c)
Y2
d)
Nwu
93.
When using the 5G System, what type of resources are utilized to transport IMS Voice/Video media?
a)
GBR
b)
RQA
c)
Non-GBR
d)
Delay Critical GBR
94.
Which of the following is NOT a 5G Mission Critical Service (MCX)
a)
Mission Critica Push To Talk (MCPTT)
b)
Mission Critica Data (MCData)
c)
Mission Critica Voice (MCVoice)
d)
Mission Critica Video (MCVideo)
95.
When using the 5G system, RAT fallback for emergency services is performed when :
a)
E-UTRA does not support Emergency Srvices when connected to the 5GC
b)
5GC does not support Emergency Services
c)
EPC does not support Emergency Services
d)
NR does not support Emergency Services when connected to the 5GC
96.
What is the MAXIMUM number of ABIL per AMIA subrack?
a)
4
b)
6
c)
1
d)
2
97.
The AAHF (FR1) Active antenna is designed to give high cell throughput and spectrum efficiency performance using :
a)
Massive MIMO and Digital Beamforming
b)
Massive MIMO and Analog Beamforming
c)
TDD Massive MIMO and Analog Beamforming
d)
TDD. Multi Technology support and MIMO
98.
What is the MAXIMUM number of TRxs suported by an AAHF active antenna?
a)
8
b)
21
c)
44
d)
64
99.
What is the maximum number of Trx suported by an AEQN active antenna
a)
8
b)
32
c)
14
d)
90
100.
What is the color of the unit LED in case of a critical alarm affecting the whole RF modulle or all antenna carriers?
a)
stable Red
b)
Stable yellow
c)
Blinking red
d)
Blinking yellow
101.
Which of these application requires Ultra Low Latency
a)
Video Call
b)
Industrial Automation
c)
Vehicle to Vehicle Communication
d)
Immersive 360 Video
102.
How 5G will benefit the Manufacturing Industry
a)
Dynamic Platooning with shorter distance
b)
Impresive device Augmented Reality with personalized experience
c)
Dynamic production control, increased capacity and greater agility
d)
Remotely support complex health intervension
103.
What is the interface between a Ue and the NG-RAN
a)
Um
b)
Uu
c)
Ui
d)
Un
104.
Which interface is NOT supported by the gNB in NSA Option 3x
a)
X2-C
b)
X2-U
c)
S1-U
d)
S1-C
105.
Which interface is defined between NG-RAN and AMF
a)
N5
b)
N4
c)
N2
d)
N1
106.
What is the interface between a gNB and AMF/UPF
a)
X2
b)
Xn
c)
S1
d)
NG
107.
The MAXIMUM occupied channel BW of a single component carrier is
a)
FR1 80 Mhz and FR2 400Mhz
b)
FR1 80 Mhz and FR2 200Mhz
c)
FR1 100 Mhz and FR2 400Mhz
d)
FR1 100 Mhz and FR2 200Mhz
108.
What is the main propose of including mini-slots within the NR Frame structure
a)
To improve data rates, sacrifaing and increased latency
b)
To improve M2M communication data rates
c)
To support short allocation, minimize queuing and transmission latency
d)
The mini-slot concepe Is theoritical and will not implemented in 5G NR
109.
In 5G, a NG-RAN Node is
a)
gNB or ng-eNB
b)
a ng-eNB only
c)
a gNB only
d)
gNB or egNB
110.
Which of the following is an ABIL Function
a)
Synchronization
b)
Power feed
c)
RF Interface to Radio Units
d)
Loacl Operation and Maintenance
111.
which of following is benefit associated with distributed network architecture
a)
increase sharing of common hardware resources
b)
reduced latency
c)
increase sharing of common hardware resources
d)
reduced network operating cost
112.
Which NSA option is the most preferred by Operatios during the early deployment of 5G
a)
option 3a
b)
option 3x
c)
option 7
d)
option 3
113.
which of following 5G deployment scenarios are considered as Standalone architectures
a)
option 3 and option 5
b)
option 2 and option 4
c)
option 2 and option 5
d)
option 2 and option 7
114.
which of following is the nokia product responsible for SDN (software defined network)
a)
nuage network
b)
cloudband
c)
vmware
d)
openstack
115.
which of following elements is NOT part of the Telco cloud
a)
PNF
b)
Mano
c)
VNFM
d)
VNF
116.
Which of these application will require a large number of IoT devices
a)
Video Call
b)
Industrial Automation
c)
Vehicle to Vehicle Communication
d)
Immersive 360 Video
117.
The Cloud RAN architecture is split into
a)
Centralized L3 Processing Units and Centralized Radio Units
b)
Distributed L3 Processing Unit and Distributed Radio Units
c)
Distributed L3 Processing Unit and Centralized Radio Units
d)
Centralized L3 Processing Units and Distributed Radio Units
118.
In which NSA option does Data Bearer split happen at the gNB
a)
Option 3x
b)
Option 3a
c)
Option 7
d)
Option 3
119.
What are the benefits of Multi connectivity
a)
it enables connectivity to billions of low cost IoT devices
b)
it provides simultaneous connectivity between 2g, 3g, 4g and 5g networks
c)
it provides coverage, mobility and throughput enhancements
d)
it enables vehicle-to-vehicle connectivity and enables autonomous driving
120.
Which DL Reference Signal is used for Beam Management in connected mode
a)
SSS
b)
PBCH DMRS
c)
CSI-RS
d)
PSS
121.
Which core network function assigns network slice instances to the UE
a)
Access and Mobility Function (AMF)
b)
Network Repository Function (NRF)
c)
Network Slice Selection Function (NSSF)
d)
Network Exposure Function (NEF)
122.
If the 5GC supports SMS functionality, which Network Function sends the SMS Supported indication to UE
a)
SMSF (SMS Function)
b)
AMF (Access and Mobility Management Function)
c)
SMF (Session Management Function)
d)
UPF (User Plane Function)
123.
The AHBCB modules is an RRH for 5g/LTE, in the case of 5G NR, the supported carrier configurations are
a)
5 MHz only
b)
5 MHz, 10 Mhz and 20 Mhz only
c)
5 MHz, 10 Mhz, 15 Mhz and 20 Mhz
d)
5 MHz and 10 Mhz only
124.
What is the maximum number of antenna elements per polarization provided by the AEUA
a)
32
b)
256
c)
512
d)
64
125.
Which Statement about "Standalone Architecture Option 5" is CORRECT?
a)
eLTE splits USER PLANE data and forwards through the gNB and eLTE
b)
USER PLANE data flows to the UE through eLTE
c)
USER PLANE data flows to the UE through gNB
d)
eLTE splits USER PLANE data and forwards through the gNB
126.
What is the MAXIMUM bandwidth per carrier defined by 3GPP?
a)
200 MHz
b)
400 MHz
c)
20 MHz
d)
100 MHz
127.
Which of the following 5G Network options is NOT part of 3GPP Release 15 ?
a)
Option 4
b)
Option 3
c)
option 2
d)
Option 8
128.
Which access technology uses an array of antennas, along with 3D beamforming techniques to increase link capacity, and coverage while reducing interference?
a)
WiFi
b)
Adaptive Modulation and Coding
c)
Carrier Aggregation
d)
mMIMO
129.
E2E Network Slicing within One PLMN can be deployed with which 5G Architecture option?
a)
SA Option 1
b)
NSA Option 3a
c)
NSA Option 3x
d)
SA Option 2
130.
When using the 5G System, what type of resources are utilized to transport IMS Signalling?
a)
Non-GBR
b)
GFBR
c)
GBR
d)
Delay Critical GBR
131.
The Airscale subrack B-slot accommodates:
a)
Common plug-in units
b)
Common and Capacity plug-in units
c)
Capacity plug-in units
d)
Power plug-in units
132.
Please select the correct description for the Air Scale mmWave Radio Unit solution
a)
Small Cell: Wide area, Rural: Analog Beamforming
b)
Macro Cell; White Spot: Analog Beamforming
c)
Small Cell: White Spot; Analog Beamforming
d)
Macro Cell; Wide area. Rural: Digital Beamforming
133.
How can 5G achieve high Throughtput?
a)
with help of the Service based Architecture (SBA) within the Core Network
b)
with the help of sorftware Defined Networking (SDN)
c)
With the help of enablers like New increased Spectrum, Multi-Connectivity, mMIMO and Beamforming
d)
With the help of a highly distributed Network Architecture e.g Edge Cloud
134.
What is the Peak Throughput requirment for 5G
a)
>50Gps
b)
>100 Mbps
c)
>10 Gbps
d)
>1Gbps
135.
The MINIMUM occupied channel bandwidth of single component carrier is
a)
FR1: 5MHz and FR2 : 100 Mhz
b)
FR1: 10MHz and FR2 : 100 Mhz
c)
FR1: 5MHz and FR2 : 50 Mhz
d)
FR1: 30MHz and FR2 : 200 Mhz
136.
Which of the following Solutions correspond to the 5G BTS
a)
Airscale Advanced
b)
Airscale Legacy
c)
Airscale optimized
d)
Airscale Cloud and Airscale classical
137.
What is the main objective of Multi-Antenna technology in NR
a)
Reduce Latency
b)
Enhance Coverage and Spectral Efficiency
c)
Reduce Power Consumtion
d)
Reduce Phase Nois
138.
In the 5G radio architecture option "CPRI Baseband hotel" , what is the required CPRI data rate between RF and L1 LOW ?
a)
10 Gbps
b)
20 Gbps
c)
100 Gbps
d)
1 Tbps
139.
Where does the bearer split happen in Option 3x NSA?
a)
EPC
b)
gNB
c)
eNB
d)
MME
140.
Which of these applications requires Ultra High Reliability?
a)
Fixed Wireless Access
b)
Vehicle to Vehicle Communication
c)
Social Networking
d)
Wareables
141.
Which of the following is FALSE?
a)
The paging proceccre is performed via non-3GPP access
b)
Service area restrictions do not apply for non-3GPP access
c)
Registration for 3GPP access and ron-3GPP access are performed separately
d)
The Sesscn Management procecires defined for 3GPP access are re-used for non-3GPP access
142.
Within the 5GS Public Warning System architecture, which Entity is responsible for determining the time at which the broadcast of CBS messages should be stopped?
a)
AMF
b)
NG-RAN
c)
CBCF
d)
CBE
143.
What is the MAXIMUM number of ASIK per AMIA subrack?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
1

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