WorksheetsCASA - 1 DISA QA
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
10. A key element in a risk analysis is:
a)
audit planning.
b)
controls.
c)
vulnerabilities.
d)
liabilities.
2.
13. The MAJOR advantage of the risk assessment approach over the baseline approach to information security management is that it ensures:
a)
information assets are overprotected.
b)
a basic level of protection is applied regardless of asset value.
c)
appropriate levels of protection are applied to information assets.
d)
an equal proportion of resources are devoted to protecting all information assets.
3.
22. The PRIMARY purpose of audit trails is to:
a)
improve response time for users.
b)
establish accountability and responsibility for processed transactions.
c)
improve the operational efficiency of the system.
d)
provide useful information to auditors who may wish to track transactions.
4.
28. Reviewing management's long-term strategic plans helps the IS auditor:
a)
gain an understanding of an organization's goals and objectives.
b)
test the enterprise's internal controls.
c)
assess the organization's reliance on information systems.
d)
determine the number of audit resources needed.
5.
30. In planning an audit, the MOST critical step is the identification of the:
a)
areas of high risk.
b)
skill sets of the audit staff.
c)
test steps in the audit.
d)
time allotted for the audit.
6.
32. The extent to which data will be collected during an IS audit should be determined based on the:
a)
availability of critical and required information.
b)
auditor's familiarity with the circumstances.
c)
auditee's ability to find relevant evidence.
d)
purpose and scope of the audit being done.
7.
34. While planning an audit, an assessment of risk should be made to provide:
a)
reasonable assurance that the audit will cover material items.
b)
definite assurance that material items will be covered during the audit work.
c)
reasonable assurance that all items will be covered by the audit.
d)
sufficient assurance that all items will be covered during the audit work.
8.
38. An IS auditor has evaluated the controls for the integrity of the data in a financial application. Which of the following findings would be the MOST significant?
a)
The application owner was unaware of several changes applied to the application by the IT department.
b)
The application data are backed up only once a week.
c)
The application development documentation is incomplete.
d)
Information processing facilities are not protected by appropriate fire detection systems.
9.
44. During a security audit of IT processes, an IS auditor found that there were no documented security procedures. The IS auditor should:
a)
create the procedures document.
b)
terminate the audit.
c)
conduct compliance testing.
d)
identify and evaluate existing practices.
10.
48. During a review of the controls over the process of defining IT service levels, an IS auditor would MOST likely interview the:
a)
systems programmer.
b)
legal staff.
c)
business unit manager.
d)
application programmer.
11.
49. Which of the following normally would be the MOST reliable evidence for an auditor?
a)
A confirmation letter received from a third party verifying an account balance
b)
Assurance from line management that an application is working as designed
c)
Trend data obtained from World Wide Web (Internet) sources
d)
Ratio analysis developed by the IS auditor from reports suppliedby line management
12.
52. An IS auditor discovers evidence of fraud perpetrated with a manager's user id. The manager had written the password, allocated by the system administrator, inside his/her desk drawer. The IS auditor should conclude that the:
a)
manager's assistant perpetrated the fraud.
b)
perpetrator cannot be established beyond doubt.
c)
fraud must have been perpetrated by the manager.
d)
system administrator perpetrated the fraud.
13.
54. During a review of a customer master file, an IS auditor discovered numerous customer name duplications arising from variations in customer first names. To determine the extent of the duplication, the IS auditor would use:
a)
test data to validate data input.
b)
test data to determine system sort capabilities.
c)
generalized audit software to search for address field duplications.
d)
generalized audit software to search for account field duplications.
14.
59. Which of the following forms of evidence for the auditor would be considered the MOST reliable?
a)
An oral statement from the auditee
b)
The results of a test performed by an IS auditor
c)
An internally generated computer accounting report
d)
A confirmation letter received from an outside source
15.
68. An IS auditor performing a review of an application's controls would evaluate the:
a)
efficiency of the application in meeting the business processes.
b)
impact of any exposures discovered.
c)
business processes served by the application.
d)
application's optimization.
16.
71. During an implementation review of a multiuser distributed application, the IS auditor finds minor weaknesses in three areas-the initial setting of parameters is
a)
record the observations separately with the impact of each of them marked against each respective finding.
b)
advise the manager of probable risks without recording the observations, as the control weaknesses are minor ones.
c)
record the observations and the risk arising from the collective weaknesses.
d)
apprise the departmental heads concerned with each observation and properly document it in the report.
17.
73. An IS auditor reviewing the effectiveness of IT controls found a prior audit report, without workpapers. How should the IS auditor proceed?
a)
Suspend the audit until work papers are available.
b)
Rely upon the previous audit report.
c)
Retest the controls associated with the highest risk areas.
d)
Inform audit management and propose retesting the controls.
18.
74. When developing a risk-based audit strategy, an IS auditor should conduct a risk assessment to ensure that:
a)
controls needed to mitigate risks are in place.
b)
vulnerabilities and threats are identified.
c)
audit risks are considered.
d)
a gap analysis is appropriate.
19.
78. In an audit of an inventory application, which approach would provide the BEST evidence that purchase orders are valid?
a)
Testing whether inappropriate personnel can change application parameters
b)
Tracing purchase orders to a computer listing
c)
Comparing receiving reports to purchase order details
d)
Reviewing the application documentation
20.
86. An IS steering committee should:
a)
include a mix of members from different departments and staff levels.
b)
ensure that IS security policies and procedures have been executed properly.
c)
have formal terms of reference and maintain minutes of its meetings.
d)
be briefed about new trends and products at each meeting by avendor.
21.
88. Effective IT governance will ensure that the IT plan is consistent with the organization's:
a)
business plan.
b)
audit plan.
c)
security plan.
d)
investment plan.
22.
100. An IS auditor should be concerned when a telecommunication analyst:
a)
monitors systems performance and tracks problems resulting from program changes.
b)
reviews network load requirements in terms of current and future transaction volumes.
c)
assesses the impact of the network load on terminal response times and network data transfer rates.
d)
recommendsnetwork balancing procedures and improvements.
23.
103. In reviewing the IS short-range (tactical) plan, the IS auditor should determine whether:
a)
there is an integration of IS and business staffs within projects.
b)
there is a clear definition of the IS mission and vision.
c)
there is a strategic information technology planning methodology in place.
d)
the plan correlates business objectives to IS goals and objectives.
24.
111. The PRIMARY objective of an audit of IT security policies is to ensure that:
a)
they are distributed and available to all staff.
b)
security and control policies support business and IT objectives.
c)
there is a published organizational chart with functional descriptions.
d)
duties are appropriately segregated.
25.
115. The development of an IS security policy is ultimately the responsibility of the:
a)
IS department.
b)
security committee.
c)
security administrator.
d)
board of directors.
26.
122. In an organization where an IT security baseline has been defined, the IS auditor should FIRST ensure:
a)
implementation.
b)
compliance.
c)
documentation.
d)
sufficiency.
27.
124. IT control objectives are useful to IS auditors, as they provide the basis for understanding the:
a)
desired result or purpose of implementing specific control procedures.
b)
best IT security control practices relevant to a specific entity.
c)
techniques for securing information.
d)
security policy.
28.
131. An IS auditor reviewing an outsourcing contract of IT facilities would expect it to define the:
a)
hardware configuration.
b)
access control software.
c)
ownership of intellectual property.
d)
application development methodology.
29.
133. An organization has outsourced its software development. Which of the following is the responsibility of the organization's IT management?
a)
Paying for provider services
b)
Participating in systems design with the provider
c)
Managing compliance with the contract for the outsourced services
d)
Negotiating contractual agreement with the provider
30.
135. The risks associated with electronic evidence gathering would MOST likely be reduced by an e-mail:
a)
destruction policy.
b)
security policy.
c)
archive policy.
d)
audit policy.
31.
139. When developing a risk management program, the FIRST activity to be performed is a(n):
a)
threat assessment.
b)
classification of data.
c)
inventory of assets.
d)
criticality analysis.
32.
140. A team conducting a risk analysis is having difficulty projecting the financial losses that could result from a risk. To evaluate the potential losses, the team should:
a)
compute the amortization of the related assets.
b)
calculate a return on investment (ROI).
c)
apply a qualitative approach.
d)
spend the time needed to define exactly the loss amount.
33.
158. Which of the following provides the best evidence of the adequacy of a security awareness program?
a)
The number of stakeholders including employees trained at various levels
b)
Coverage of training at all locations across the enterprise
c)
The implementation of security devices from different vendors
d)
Periodic reviews and comparison with best practices
34.
159. When auditing the proposed acquisition of a new computer system, the IS auditor should FIRST establish that:
a)
a clear business case has been approved by management.
b)
corporate security standards will be met.
c)
users will be involved in the implementation plan.
d)
the new system will meet all required user functionality.
35.
165. Assumptions while planning an IS project involve a high degree of risk because they are:
a)
based on known constraints.
b)
based on objective past data.
c)
a result of a lack of information.
d)
often made by unqualified people.
36.
169. When reviewing a system development project at the project initiation stage, an IS auditor finds that the project team is following the organization's quality manual. To meet critical deadlines the project team proposes to fast track the validation and verification processes, commencing some elements before the previous deliverable is complete. Under these circumstances, the IS auditor would MOST likely:
a)
report this as a critical finding to senior management.
b)
accept that different quality processes can be adopted for each project.
c)
report to IS management the team's failure to follow quality procedures.
d)
report the risks associated with fast tracking to the project steering committee.
37.
174. An enterprise has established a steering committee to oversee its e-business program. The steering committee would MOST likely be involved in the:
a)
documentation of requirements.
b)
escalation of project issues.
c)
design of interface controls.
d)
specification of reports.
38.
176. An existing system is being extensively enhanced by extracting and reusing design and program components. This is an example of:
a)
reverse engineering.
b)
prototyping.
c)
software reuse.
d)
reengineering.
39.
177. The reason for establishing a stop or freezing point on the design of a new system is to:
a)
prevent further changes to a project in process.
b)
indicate the point at which the design is to be completed.
c)
require that changes after that point be evaluated for cost-effectiveness.
d)
provide the project management team with more control over the project design.
40.
181. The IS auditor finds that a system under development has 12 linked modules and each item of data can carry up to 10 definable attribute fields. The system handles several million transactions a year. Which of these techniques could the IS auditor use to estimate the size of the development effort?
a)
Program evaluation review technique (PERT)
b)
Counting source lines of code (SLOC)
c)
Function point analysis
d)
White box testing
41.
188. Before implementing controls, management should FIRST ensure that the controls:
a)
satisfy a requirement in addressing a risk issue.
b)
do not reduce productivity.
c)
are based on a cost-benefit analysis.
d)
are detective or corrective.
42.
189. To make an electronic funds transfer (EFT), one employee enters the amount field and another employee reenters the same data again, before the money is transferred. The control adopted by the organization in this case is:
a)
sequence check.
b)
key verification.
c)
check digit.
d)
completeness check.
43.
190. Information for detecting unauthorized input from a terminal would be BEST provided by the:
a)
console log printout.
b)
transaction journal.
c)
automated suspense file listing.
d)
user error report.
44.
192. Which of the following types of data validation editing checks is used to determine if a field contains data, and not zeros or blanks?
a)
Check digit
b)
Existence check
c)
Completeness check
d)
Reasonableness check
45.
195. To reduce the possibility of losing data during processing, the FIRST point at which control totals should be implemented is:
a)
during data preparation.
b)
in transit to the computer.
c)
between related computer runs.
d)
during the return of the data to the user department.
46.
197. The impact of EDI on internal controls will be:
a)
that fewer opportunities for review and authorization will exist.
b)
an inherent authentication.
c)
a proper distribution of EDI transactions while in the possession of third parties.
d)
that IPF management will have increased responsibilities over data center controls.
47.
198. Which of the following is MOST effective in controlling application maintenance?
a)
Informing users of the status of changes
b)
Establishing priorities on program changes
c)
Obtaining user approval of program changes
d)
Requiring documented user specifications for changes
48.
200. In a data warehouse, data quality is achieved by:
a)
cleansing.
b)
restructuring.
c)
source data credibility.
d)
transformation.
49.
203. Which of the following ensures completeness and accuracy of accumulated data?
a)
Processing control procedures
b)
Data file control procedures
c)
Output controls
d)
Application controls
50.
204. A control that detects transmission errors by appending calculated bits onto the end of each segment of data is known as a:
a)
reasonableness check.
b)
parity check.
c)
redundancy check.
d)
check digits.
51.
205. Which of the following integrity tests examines the accuracy, completeness, consistency and authorization of data?
a)
Data
b)
Relational
c)
Domain
d)
Referential
52.
210. A manufacturing firm wants to automate its invoice payment system. Objectives state that the system should require considerably less time for review and authorization and the system should be capable of identifying errors that require follow up. Which of the following would BEST meet these objectives?
a)
Establishing an inter-networked system of client servers with suppliers for increased efficiencies
b)
Outsourcing the function to a firm specializing in automated payments and accounts receivable/invoice processing
c)
Establishing an EDI system of electronic business documents and transactions with key suppliers, computer to computer, in a standard format
d)
Reengineering the existing processing and redesigning the existing system
53.
211. An IS auditor is told by IS management that the organization has recently reached the highest level of the software capability maturity model (CMM). The software quality process MOST recently added by the organization is:
a)
continuous improvement.
b)
quantitative quality goals.
c)
a documented process.
d)
a process tailored to specific projects.
54.
215. Who of the following is ultimately responsible for providing requirement specifications to the software development project team?
a)
Team leader
b)
Project sponsor
c)
System analyst
d)
Steering committee
55.
216. Failure in which of the following testing stages would have the GREATEST impact on the implementation of new application software?
a)
System testing
b)
Acceptance testing
c)
Integration testing
d)
Unit testing
56.
221. When selecting software, which of the following business and technical issues is the MOST important to be considered?
a)
Vendor reputation
b)
Requirements of the organization
c)
Cost factors
d)
An installed base
57.
235. Which of the following is an advantage of prototyping?
a)
The finished system normally has strong internal controls.
b)
Prototype systems can provide significant time and cost savings.
c)
Change control is often less complicated with prototype systems.
d)
It ensures that functions or extras are not added to the intended system.
58.
236. The use of fourth-generation languages (4GLs) should be weighed carefully against using traditional languages, because 4GLs:
a)
can lack the lower-level detail commands necessary to perform data intensive operations.
b)
cannot be implemented on both the mainframe processors and microcomputers.
c)
generally contain complex language subsets that must be used by skilled users.
d)
cannot access database records andproduce complex online outputs.
59.
237. A decision support system (DSS):
a)
is aimed at solving highly structured problems.
b)
combines the use of models with nontraditional data access and retrieval functions.
c)
emphasizes flexibility in the decision-making approach of users.
d)
supports only structured decision-making tasks.
60.
244. Testing the connection of two or more system components that pass information from one area to another is:
a)
pilot testing.
b)
parallel testing
c)
interface testing.
d)
regression testing.
61.
248. During which of the following phases in system development would user acceptance test plans normally be prepared?
a)
Feasibility study
b)
Requirements definition
c)
Implementation planning
d)
Postimplementation review
62.
250. Which of the following development methods most heavily relies on the usage of a prototype that can be updated continually to meet changing user or business requirements?
a)
Data-oriented system development (DOD)
b)
Object-oriented system development (OOD)
c)
Business process reengineering (BPR)
d)
Rapid application development (RAD)
63.
252. When reviewing the quality of an IS department's development process, the IS auditor finds that he/she does not use any formal, documented methodology and standards. The IS auditor's MOST appropriate action would be to:
a)
complete the audit and report the finding.
b)
investigate and recommend appropriate formal standards.
c)
document the informal standards and test for compliance.
d)
withdraw and recommend a further audit when standards are implemented.
64.
257. A company has contracted with an external consulting firm to implement a commercial financial system to replace its existing in-house-developed system. In reviewing the proposed development approach, which of the following would be of GREATEST concern?
a)
Acceptance testing is to be managed by users.
b)
A quality plan is not part of the contracted deliverables.
c)
Not all business functions will be available on initial implementation.
d)
Prototyping is being used to confirm that the system meets business requirements.
65.
261. Which of the following tasks occurs during the research stage of the benchmarking process?
a)
Critical processes are identified.
b)
Benchmarking partners are visited.
c)
Findings are translated into core principles.
d)
Benchmarking partners are identified.
66.
262. Which of the following systems or tools can recognize that a credit card transaction is more likely to have resulted from a stolen credit card than from the holder of the credit card?
a)
Intrusion detection systems
b)
Data mining techniques
c)
Firewalls
d)
Packet filtering routers
67.
265. The MAJOR concern for an IS auditor reviewing a CASE environment should be that the use of CASE does not automatically:
a)
result in a correct capture of requirements.
b)
ensure that desirable application controls have been implemented.
c)
produce ergonomic and user-friendly interfaces.
d)
generate efficient code.
68.
266. During the development of an application, the quality assurance testing and user acceptance testing were combined. The MAJOR concern for an IS auditor reviewing the project is that there will be:
a)
increased maintenance.
b)
improper documentation of testing.
c)
inadequate functional testing.
d)
delays in problem resolution.
69.
268. The GREATEST advantage of rapid application development (RAD) over the traditional system development life cycle (SDLC) is that it:
a)
facilitates user involvement.
b)
allows early testing of technical features.
c)
facilitates conversion to the new system.
d)
shortens the development time frame.
70.
270. When implementing an acquired system in a client-server environment, which of the following tests would confirm that the modifications in the Windows registry do not adversely impact the desktop environment?
a)
Sociability testing
b)
Parallel testing
c)
White box testing
d)
Validation testing
71.
277. When auditing the conversion of an accounting system an IS auditor should verify the existence of a:
a)
control total check.
b)
validation check.
c)
completeness check.
d)
limit check.
72.
283. Which of the following data validation edits could be used by a bank, to ensure the correctness of bank account numbers assigned to customers, thereby helping to avoid transposition and transcription errors?
a)
Sequence check
b)
Validity check
c)
Check digit
d)
Existence check
73.
284. During an application audit, the IS auditor finds several problems related to corrupted data in the database. Which of the following is a corrective control that the IS auditor should recommend?
a)
Implement data backup and recovery procedures.
b)
Define standards and closely monitor for compliance.
c)
Ensure that only authorized personnel can update the database.
d)
Establish controls to handle concurrent access problems.
74.
295. An IS auditor assigned to audit a reorganized process should FIRST review which of the following?
a)
A map of existing controls
b)
Eliminated controls
c)
Process charts
d)
Compensating controls
75.
296. An IS auditor evaluating data integrity in a transaction-driven system environment should review atomicity to determine whether:
a)
the database survives failures (hardware or software).
b)
each transaction is separated from other transactions.
c)
integrity conditions are maintained.
d)
a transaction is completed or a database is updated.
76.
299. As a business process reengineering (BPR) project takes hold it is expected that:
a)
business priorities will remain stable.
b)
information technologies will not change.
c)
the process will improve product, service and profitability.
d)
input from clients and customers will no longer be necessary.
77.
301. A programmer included a routine into a payroll application to search for his/her own payroll number. As a result, if this payroll number does not appear during the payroll run, a routine will generate and place random numbers onto every paycheck. This routine is known as:
a)
scavenging.
b)
data leakage.
c)
piggybacking.
d)
a Trojan horse.
78.
304. A tax calculation program maintains several hundred tax rates. The BEST control to ensure that tax rates entered into the program are accurate is:
a)
an independent review of the transaction listing.
b)
a programmed edit check to prevent entry of invalid data.
c)
programmed reasonableness checks with a 20 percent data entry range.
d)
a visual verification of data entered by the processing department.
79.
308. Once an organization has finished the business process reengineering (BPR) of all its critical operations, the IS auditor would MOST likely focus on a review of:
a)
pre-BPR process flowcharts.
b)
post-BPR process flowcharts.
c)
BPR project plans.
d)
continuous improvement and monitoring plans.
80.
312. Which of the following represents the GREATEST potential risk in an EDI environment?
a)
Transaction authorization
b)
Loss or duplication of EDI transmissions
c)
Transmission delay
d)
Deletion or manipulation of transactions prior to or after establishment of application controls
81.
320. Which of the following will BEST ensure the successful offshore development of business applications?
a)
Stringent contract management practices
b)
Detailed and correctly applied specifications
c)
Awareness of cultural and political differences
d)
Postimplementation reviews
82.
322. An IS auditor reviewing a project, where quality is a major concern, should use the project management triangle to explain that a(n):
a)
increase in quality can be achieved, even if resource allocation is decreased.
b)
increase in quality is only achieved, if resource allocation is increased.
c)
decrease in delivery time can be achieved, even if resource allocation is decreased.
d)
decrease in delivery time can only beachieved, if quality is decreased.
83.
325. The waterfall life cycle model of software development is most appropriately used when:
a)
requirements are well understood and are expected to remain stable, as is the business environment in which the system will operate.
b)
requirements are well understood and the project is subject to time pressures.
c)
the project intends to apply an object-oriented design and programming approach.
d)
the project will involve the use of new technology.
84.
326. An IS auditor is conducting a review of an application system after users have completed acceptance testing. What should be the IS auditor’s major concern?
a)
Determining whether test objectives were documented
b)
Assessing whether users documented expected test results
c)
Reviewing whether test problem logs were completed
d)
Determining if there are unresolved issues
85.
330. Documentation of a business case used in an IT development project should be retained until:
a)
the end of the system's life cycle.
b)
the project is approved.
c)
user acceptance of the system.
d)
the system is in production.
86.
332. When transmitting a payment instruction, which of the following will help verify that the instruction was not duplicated?
a)
Use of a cryptographic hashing algorithm
b)
Enciphering the message digest
c)
Deciphering the message digest
d)
A sequence number and time stamp
87.
333. Which of the following reports should an IS auditor use to check compliance with a service level agreement's (SLA) requirement for uptime?
a)
Utilization reports
b)
Hardware error reports
c)
System logs
d)
Availability reports
88.
334. A benefit of quality of service (QoS) is that the:
a)
entire network's availability and performance will be significantly improved.
b)
telecom carrier will provide the company with accurate service-level compliance reports.
c)
participating applications will have guaranteed service levels.
d)
communications link will be supported by security controls to perform secure online transactions.
89.
337. Which of the following would normally be found in application run manuals?
a)
Details of source documents
b)
Error codes and their recovery actions
c)
Program flowcharts and file definitions
d)
Change records for the application source code
90.
343. Which of the following would an IS auditor consider to be the MOST helpful when evaluating the effectiveness and adequacy of a computer preventive maintenance program?
a)
A system downtime log
b)
Vendors' reliability figures
c)
Regularly scheduled maintenance log
d)
A written preventive maintenance schedule
91.
344. Which of the following is the MOST effective means of determining which controls are functioning properly in an operating system?
a)
Consulting with the vendor
b)
Reviewing the vendor installation guide
c)
Consulting with the system programmer
d)
Reviewing the system generation parameters
92.
346. Which of the following exposures associated with the spooling of sensitive reports for offline printing should an IS auditor consider to be the MOST serious?
a)
Sensitive data can be read by operators.
b)
Data can be amended without authorization.
c)
Unauthorized report copies can be printed.
d)
Output can be lost in the event of system failure.
93.
348. Which of the following can be used to verify output results and control totals by matching them against the input data and control totals?
a)
Batch header forms
b)
Batch balancing
c)
Data conversion error corrections
d)
Access controls over print spools
94.
358. The MOST significant security concern when using flash memory (e.g., USB removable disk) is that the:
a)
contents are highly volatile.
b)
data cannot be backed up.
c)
data can be copied.
d)
device may not be compatible with other peripherals.
95.
360. Web and e-mail filtering tools are PRIMARILY valuable to an organization because they:
a)
protect the organization from viruses and nonbusiness materials.
b)
maximize employee performance.
c)
safeguard the organization's image.
d)
assist the organization in preventing legal issues
96.
366. To maximize the performance of a large database in a parallel processing environment, which of the following is used for separating indexes?
a)
Disk partitioning
b)
Mirroring
c)
Hashing
d)
Duplexing
97.
373. IS management has recently informed the IS auditor of its decision to disable certain referential integrity controls in the payroll system to provide users with a faster report generator. This will MOST likely increase the risk of:
a)
data entry by unauthorized users.
b)
a nonexistent employee being paid.
c)
an employee receiving an unauthorized raise.
d)
duplicate data entry by authorized users.
98.
375. The method of routing traffic through split-cable facilities or duplicate-cable facilities is called:
a)
alternative routing.
b)
diverse routing.
c)
redundancy.
d)
circular routing.
99.
378. The interface that allows access to lower- or higher-level network services is called:
a)
firmware.
b)
middleware.
c)
X.25 interface.
d)
utilities.
100.
379. Which of the following controls will detect MOST effectively the presence of bursts of errors in network transmissions?
a)
Parity check
b)
Echo check
c)
Block sum check
d)
Cyclic redundancy check
101.
381. Which of the following reports is a measure of telecommunication transmissions and determines whether transmissions are completed accurately?
a)
Online monitor reports
b)
Downtime reports
c)
Help desk reports
d)
Response-time reports
102.
386. A programmer, using firecall IDs, as provided in the manufacture's manual, gained access to the production environment and made an unauthorized change. Which of the following could have prevented this from happening?
a)
Deactivation
b)
Monitoring
c)
Authorization
d)
Resetting
103.
388. An organization is moving its application maintenance in-house from an outside source. Which of the following should be the main concern of an IS auditor?
a)
Regression testing
b)
Job scheduling
c)
User manuals
d)
Change control procedures
104.
403. Which of the following network components is PRIMARILY set up to serve as a security measure by preventing unauthorized traffic between different segments of the network?
a)
Firewalls
b)
Routers
c)
Layer 2 switches
d)
VLANs
105.
407. An IS auditor is PRIMARILY concerned about electromagnetic emissions from a cathode ray tube (CRT) because they may:
a)
cause health disorders (such as headaches) and diseases.
b)
be intercepted and information may be obtained from them.
c)
cause interference in communications.
d)
cause errors in the motherboard.
106.
408. A company is implementing a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP). Given that the following conditions exist, which represents the GREATEST concern?
a)
Most employees use laptops.
b)
A packet filtering firewall is used.
c)
The IP address space is smaller than the number of PCs.
d)
Access to a network port is not restricted.
107.
414. By establishing a network session through an appropriate application, a sender transmits a message by breaking it into packets, but the packets may reach the receiver out of sequence. Which OSI layer addresses the out-of-sequence message through segment sequencing?
a)
Network layer
b)
Session layer
c)
Application layer
d)
Transport layer
108.
417. Analysis of which of the following would MOST likely enable the IS auditor to determine if an unapproved program attempted to access sensitive data?
a)
Abnormal job termination reports
b)
Operator problem reports
c)
System logs
d)
Operator work schedules
109.
419. Congestion control is BEST handled by which OSI layer?
a)
Data link layer
b)
Session layer
c)
Transport layer
d)
Network layer
110.
421. Which of the following line media would provide the BEST security for a telecommunication network?
a)
Broadband network digital transmission
b)
Baseband network
c)
Dial-up
d)
Dedicated lines
111.
422. Which of the following types of firewalls would BEST protect a network from an Internet attack?
a)
Screened subnet firewall
b)
Application filtering gateway
c)
Packet filtering router
d)
Circuit-level gateway
112.
423. Neural networks are effective in detecting fraud, because they can:
a)
discover new trends since they are inherently linear.
b)
solve problems where large and general sets of training data are not obtainable.
c)
attack problems that require consideration of a large number of input variables.
d)
make assumptions about the shape of any curve relating variables to the output.
113.
426. The following question refers to the diagram. For locations 3a, 1d and 3d, the diagram indicates hubs with lines that appear to be open and active. Assuming that is true, what control(s), if any, should be recommended to mitigate this weakness?
a)
Intelligent hub
b)
Physical security over the hubs
c)
Physical security and an intelligent hub
d)
No controls are necessary since this is not a weakness.
114.
430. An organization provides information to its supply chain partners and customers through an extranet infrastructure. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing the firewall security architecture?
a)
A Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) has been implemented for user authentication and remote administration of the firewall.
b)
On the basis of changing requirements, firewall policies are updated.
c)
Inbound traffic is blocked unless the traffic type and connections have been specifically permitted.
d)
The firewall is placed on top of the commercial operating system with all installation options.
115.
431. In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
a)
communications handler.
b)
EDI translator.
c)
application interface.
d)
EDI interface.
116.
433. Which of the following systems-based approaches would a financial processing company employ to monitor spending patterns to identify abnormal patterns and report them?
a)
A neural network
b)
Database management software
c)
Management information systems
d)
Computer-assisted audit techniques
117.
439. Receiving an EDI transaction and passing it through the communication's interface stage usually requires:
a)
translating and unbundling transactions.
b)
routing verification procedures.
c)
passing data to the appropriate application system.
d)
creating a point of receipt audit log.
118.
448. Which of the following protocols would be involved in the implementation of a router and an interconnectivity device monitoring system?
a)
Simple Network Management Protocol
b)
File Transfer Protocol
c)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
d)
Telnet
119.
461. Which of the following is the MOST critical when evaluating the delivery of IT services?
a)
Tools used to record and analyze incidents
b)
Service level agreements negotiated by all appropriate parties
c)
Capacity management tools
d)
Problem management
120.
465. Which of the following is the BEST method for preventing exploitation of system vulnerabilities?
a)
Log monitoring
b)
Virus protection
c)
Intrusion detection
d)
Patch management
121.
466. Reverse proxy technology for web servers should be deployed if:
a)
http servers’ addresses must be hidden.
b)
accelerated access to all published pages is required.
c)
caching is needed for fault tolerance.
d)
bandwidth to the user is limited.
122.
470. The GREATEST risk when end users have access to a database at its system level, instead of through the application, is that the users can:
a)
make unauthorized changes to the database directly, without an audit trail.
b)
make use of a system query language (SQL) to access information.
c)
remotely access the database.
d)
update data without authentication.
123.
475. An IS auditor observed that some data entry operators leave their computers in the midst of data entry without logging off. Which of the following controls should be suggested to prevent unauthorized access?
a)
Encryption
b)
Switch off the computer when leaving
c)
Password control
d)
Screen saver password
124.
479. Which of the following is the MOST effective control procedure for security of a stand-alone small business computer environment?
a)
Supervision of computer usage
b)
Daily management review of the trouble log
c)
Storage of computer media in a locked cabinet
d)
Independent review of an application system design
125.
480. Which of the following physical access controls would provide the highest degree of security over unauthorized access?
a)
Bolting door lock
b)
Cipher lock
c)
Electronic door lock
d)
Fingerprint scanner
126.
481. Which of the following is the PRIMARY safeguard for securing software and data within an information processing facility?
a)
Security awareness
b)
Reading the security policy
c)
Security committee
d)
Logical access controls
127.
498. Which of the following provides the framework for designing and developing logical access controls?
a)
Information systems security policy
b)
Access control lists
c)
Password management
d)
System configuration files
128.
500. The reliability of an application system's audit trail may be questionable if:
a)
user IDs are recorded in the audit trail.
b)
the security administrator has read-only rights to the audit file.
c)
date and time stamps are recorded when an action occurs.
d)
users can amend audit trail records when correcting system errors.
129.
505. Which of the following would be the BEST access control procedure?
a)
The data owner formally authorizes access and an administrator implements the user authorization tables.
b)
Authorized staff implement the user authorization tables and the data owner sanctions them.
c)
The data owner and an IS manager jointly create and update the user authorizationtables.
d)
The data owner creates and updates the user authorization tables.
130.
506. Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce social engineering incidents?
a)
Security awareness training
b)
Increased physical security measures
c)
E-mail monitoring policy
d)
Intrusion detection systems
131.
508. To ensure compliance within security policy requiring that passwords be a combination of letters and numbers, the IS auditor should recommend that:
a)
the company policy be changed.
b)
passwords be periodically changed.
c)
an automated password management tool be used.
d)
security awareness training be delivered.
132.
511. The information security policy that states "each individual must have their badge read at every controlled door" addresses which of the following attack methods?
a)
Piggybacking
b)
Shoulder surfing
c)
Dumpster diving
d)
Impersonation
133.
512. Which of the following presents an inherent risk, with no distinct identifiable preventive controls?
a)
Piggybacking
b)
Viruses
c)
Data diddling
d)
Unauthorized application shutdown
134.
513. Which of the following intrusion detection systems (IDSs) monitors the general patterns of activity and traffic on a network and creates a database?
a)
Signature-based
b)
Neural networks
c)
Statistical-based
d)
Host-based
135.
514. The MOST important difference between hashing and encryption is that hashing:
a)
is irreversible.
b)
output is the same length as the original message.
c)
is concerned with integrity and security.
d)
is the same at the sending and receiving end.
136.
515. Which of the following cryptography options would increase overhead/cost?
a)
The encryption is symmetric rather than asymmetric.
b)
A long asymmetric encryption key is used.
c)
The hash is encrypted rather than the message.
d)
A secret key is used.
137.
517. Which of the following virus prevention techniques can be implemented through hardware?
a)
Remote booting
b)
Heuristic scanners
c)
Behavior blockers
d)
Immunizers
138.
518. Which of the following append themselves to files as a protection against viruses?
a)
Behavior blockers
b)
Cyclical redundancy checkers (CRCs)
c)
Immunizers
d)
Active monitors
139.
521. Which of the following results in a denial-of-service attack?
a)
Brute-force attack
b)
Ping of death
c)
Leapfrog attack
d)
Negative acknowledgement (NAK) attack
140.
524. The risk of gaining unauthorized access through social engineering can BEST be addressed by:
a)
security awareness programs.
b)
asymmetric encryption.
c)
intrusion detection systems.
d)
a demilitarized zone.
141.
530. Which of the following is an example of a passive attack initiated through the Internet?
a)
Traffic analysis
b)
Masquerading
c)
Denial of service
d)
E-mail spoofing
142.
535. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle obsolete magnetic tapes before disposing of them?
a)
Overwriting the tapes
b)
Initializing the tape labels
c)
Degaussing the tapes
d)
Erasing the tapes
143.
543. A TCP/IP-based environment is exposed to the Internet. Which of the following BEST ensures that complete encryption and authentication protocols exist for protecting information while transmitted?
a)
Work is completed in tunnel mode with IP security using the nested services of authentication header (AH) and encapsulating security payload (ESP).
b)
A digital signature with RSA has been implemented.
c)
Digital certificates with RSA are being used.
d)
Work is being completed in TCP services.
144.
544. Which of the following is the MOST effective technique for providing security during data transmission?
a)
Communication log
b)
Systems software log
c)
Encryption
d)
Standard protocol
145.
546. In the ISO/OSI model, which of the following protocols is the FIRST to establish security for the user application?
a)
Session layer
b)
Transport layer
c)
Network layer
d)
Presentation layer
146.
550. Which of the following can identify attacks and penetration attempts to a network?
a)
Firewall
b)
Packet filters
c)
Stateful inspection
d)
Intrusion detection system (IDs)
147.
551. Which of the following is a technique that could be used to capture network user passwords?
a)
Encryption
b)
Sniffing
c)
Spoofing
d)
Data destruction
148.
557. Which of the following is the MOST effective type of antivirus software?
a)
Scanners
b)
Active monitors
c)
Integrity checkers
d)
Vaccines
149.
561. An Internet-based attack using password sniffing can:
a)
enable one party to act as if they are another party.
b)
cause modification to the contents of certain transactions.
c)
be used to gain access to systems containing proprietary information.
d)
result in major problems with billing systems and transaction processing agreements.
150.
564. When planning an audit of a network setup, the IS auditor should give highest priority to obtaining which of the following network documentation?
a)
Wiring and schematic diagram
b)
Users' lists and responsibilities
c)
Application lists and their details
d)
Backup and recovery procedures
151.
572. Applying a digital signature to data traveling in a network provides:
a)
confidentiality and integrity.
b)
security and nonrepudiation.
c)
integrity and nonrepudiation.
d)
confidentiality and nonrepudiation.
152.
573. Which of the following would an IS auditor consider a weakness when performing an audit of an organization that uses a public key infrastructure with digital certificates for its business-to-consumer transactions via the Internet?
a)
Customers are widely dispersed geographically, but the certificate authorities are not.
b)
Customers can make their transactions from any computer or mobile device.
c)
The certificate authority has several data processing subcenters to administer certificates.
d)
The organization isthe owner of the certificate authority.
153.
574. Which of the following implementation modes would provide the GREATEST amount of security for outbound data connecting to the Internet?
a)
Transport mode with authentication header (AH) plus encapsulating security payload (ESP)
b)
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) mode
c)
Tunnel mode with AH plus ESP
d)
Triple-DES encryption mode
154.
575. Which of the following is the MOST reliable sender authentication method?
a)
Digital signatures
b)
Asymmetric cryptography
c)
Digital certificates
d)
Message authentication code
155.
580. The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol addresses the confidentiality of a message through:
a)
symmetric encryption.
b)
message authentication code.
c)
hash function.
d)
digital signature certificates.
156.
581. The PRIMARY goal of a web site certificate is:
a)
authentication of the web site that will be surfed.
b)
authentication of the user who surfs through that site.
c)
preventing surfing of the web site by hackers.
d)
the same purpose as that of a digital certificate.
157.
582. IS auditors in performing detailed network assessments and access control reviews should FIRST:
a)
determine the points of entry.
b)
evaluate users' access authorization.
c)
assess users' identification and authorization.
d)
evaluate the domain-controlling server configuration.
158.
584. The most common problem in the operation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) is:
a)
the detection of false positives.
b)
receiving trap messages.
c)
reject-error rates.
d)
denial-of-service attacks.
159.
587. While copying files from a floppy disk, a user introduced a virus into the network. Which of the following would MOST effectively detect the existence of the virus?
a)
A scan of all floppy disks before use
b)
A virus monitor on the network file server
c)
Scheduled daily scans of all network drives
d)
A virus monitor on the user's personal computer
160.
595. Which of the following should be a concern to an IS auditor reviewing a wireless network?
a)
128-bit-static-key WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) encryption is enabled.
b)
SSID (Service Set IDentifier) broadcasting has been enabled.
c)
Antivirus software has been installed in all wireless clients.
d)
MAC (Media Access Control) access control filtering has been deployed.
161.
596. To detect attack attempts that the firewall is unable to recognize, the IS auditor should recommend placing a network intrusion detection system (IDS) between the:
a)
firewall and the organization's network.
b)
Internet and the firewall.
c)
Internet and the web server.
d)
web server and the firewall.
162.
597. Which of the following ensures a sender's authenticity and an e-mail's confidentiality?
a)
Encrypting the hash of the message with the sender's private key and thereafter encrypting the hash of the message with the receiver's public key
b)
The sender digitally signing the message and thereafter encrypting the hash of the message with the sender's private key
c)
Encryptingthe hash of the message with the sender's private key and thereafter encrypting the message with the receiver's public key
d)
Encrypting the message with the sender's private key and encrypting the message hash with the receiver's public key
163.
607. Which of the following methods of suppressing a fire in a data center is the MOST effective and environmentally friendly?
a)
Halon gas
b)
Wet-pipe sprinklers
c)
Dry-pipe sprinklers
d)
Carbon dioxide gas
164.
608. Which of the following environmental controls is appropriate to protect computer equipment against short-term reductions in electrical power?
a)
Power line conditioners
b)
A surge protective device
c)
An alternative power supply
d)
An interruptible power supply
165.
610. An IS auditor inspected a windowless room containing phone switching and networking equipment and documentation binders. The room was equipped with two handheld fire extinguishers—one filled with CO2, the other filled with halon. Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority in the auditor's report?
a)
The halon extinguisher should be removed because halon has a negative impact on the atmospheric ozone layer.
b)
Both fire suppression systems present a risk of suffocation when used in a closed room.
c)
The CO2 extinguisher should be removed, because CO2 is ineffective for suppressing fires involving solid combustibles (paper).
d)
The documentation binders should be removed from the equipment room to reduce potential risks.
166.
618. Which of the following provides the MOST relevant information for proactively strengthening security settings?
a)
Bastion host
b)
Intrusion detection system
c)
Honeypot
d)
Intrusion prevention system
167.
627. The IS management of a multinational company is considering upgrading its existing virtual private network (VPN) to support voice-over IP (VoIP) communications via tunneling. Which of the following considerations should be PRIMARILY addressed?
a)
Reliability and quality of service (QoS)
b)
Means of authentication
c)
Privacy of voice transmissions
d)
Confidentiality of data transmissions
168.
628. Which of the following antispam filtering techniques would BEST prevent a valid, variable-length e-mail message containing a heavily weighted spam keyword from being labeled as spam?
a)
Heuristic (rule-based)
b)
Signature-based
c)
Pattern matching
d)
Bayesian (statistical)
169.
629. Which of the following public key infrastructure (PKI) elements provides detailed descriptions for dealing with a compromised private key?
a)
Certificate revocation list (CRL)
b)
Certification practice statement (CPS)
c)
Certificate policy (CP)
d)
PKI disclosure statement (PDS)
170.
631. Active radio frequency ID (RFID) tags are subject to which of the following exposures?
a)
Session hijacking
b)
Eavesdropping
c)
Malicious code
d)
Phishing
171.
632. When conducting a penetration test of an organization's internal network, which of the following approaches would BEST enable the conductor of the test to remain undetected on the network?
a)
Use the IP address of an existing file server or domain controller.
b)
Pause the scanning every few minutes to allow thresholds to reset.
c)
Conduct the scans during evening hours when no one is logged-in.
d)
Use multiple scanning tools since each tool has different characteristics.
172.
634. An organization can ensure that the recipients of e-mails from its employees can authenticate the identity of the sender by:
a)
digitally signing all e-mail messages.
b)
encrypting all e-mail messages.
c)
compressing all e-mail messages.
d)
password protecting all e-mail messages.
173.
635. Sending a message and a message hash encrypted by the sender's private key will ensure:
a)
authenticity and integrity.
b)
authenticity and privacy.
c)
integrity and privacy.
d)
privacy and nonrepudiation.
174.
644. An IS auditor examining a biometric user authentication system establishes the existence of a control weakness that would allow an unauthorized individual to update the centralized database on the server that is used to store biometric templates. Of the following, which is the BEST control against this risk?
a)
Kerberos
b)
Vitality detection
c)
Multimodal biometrics
d)
Before-image/after-image logging
175.
645. A virtual private network (VPN) provides data confidentiality by using:
a)
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
b)
Tunnelling
c)
Digital signatures
d)
Phishing
176.
646. A firm is considering using biometric fingerprint identification on all PCs that access critical data. This requires:
a)
that a registration process be executed for all accredited PC users.
b)
the full elimination of the risk of a false acceptance.
c)
that the usage of the fingerprint reader be accessed by a separate password.
d)
assurance that it will be impossible to gain unauthorized access to critical data.
177.
647. Which of the following would BEST support 24/7 availability?
a)
Daily backup
b)
Offsite storage
c)
Mirroring
d)
Periodic testing
178.
649. Which of the following is the MOST important criterion for the selection of a location for an offsite storage facility for IS backup files? The offsite facility must be:
a)
physically separated from the data center and not subject to the same risks.
b)
given the same level of protection as that of the computer data center.
c)
outsourced to a reliable third party.
d)
equipped with surveillance capabilities.
179.
652. As updates to an online order entry system are processed, the updates are recorded on a transaction tape and a hard copy transaction log. At the end of the day, the order entry files are backed up on tape. During the backup procedure, a drive malfunctions and the order entry files are lost. Which of the following are necessary to restore these files?
a)
The previous day's backup file and the current transaction tape
b)
The previous day's transaction file and the current transaction tape
c)
The current transaction tape and the current hard copy transaction log
d)
The current hard copy transaction log and the previous day's transactionfile
180.
655. Which of the following procedures would BEST determine whether adequate recovery/restart procedures exist?
a)
Reviewing program code
b)
Reviewing operations documentation
c)
Turning off the UPS, then the power
d)
Reviewing program documentation
181.
656. A company performs full backup of data and programs on a regular basis. The primary purpose of this practice is to:
a)
maintain data integrity in the applications.
b)
restore application processing after a disruption.
c)
prevent unauthorized changes to programs and data.
d)
ensure recovery of data processing in case of a disaster.
182.
657. Which of the following findings should an IS auditor be MOST concerned about when performing an audit of backup and recovery and the offsite storage vault?
a)
There are three individuals with a key to enter the area.
b)
Paper documents are also stored in the offsite vault.
c)
Data files that are stored in the vault are synchronized.
d)
The offsite vault is located in a separate facility.
183.
661. Which of the following ensures the availability of transactions in the event of a disaster?
a)
Send tapes hourly containing transactions offsite.
b)
Send tapes daily containing transactions offsite.
c)
Capture transactions to multiple storage devices.
d)
Transmit transactions offsite in real time.
184.
662. IS management has decided to install a level 1 Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID) system in all servers to compensate for the elimination of offsite backups. The IS auditor should recommend:
a)
upgrading to a level 5 RAID.
b)
increasing the frequency of onsite backups.
c)
reinstating the offsite backups.
d)
establishing a cold site in a secure location.
185.
665. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization's backup facility is at a warm site?
a)
Timely availability of hardware
b)
Availability of heat, humidity and air conditioning equipment
c)
Adequacy of electrical power connections
d)
Effectiveness of the telecommunications network
186.
666. Which of the following recovery strategies is MOST appropriate for a business having multiple offices within a region and a limited recovery budget?
a)
A hot site maintained by the business
b)
A commercial cold site
c)
Reciprocal arrangement between its offices
d)
A third-party hot site
187.
671. An organization's disaster recovery plan should address early recovery of:
a)
all information systems processes.
b)
all financial processing applications.
c)
only those applications designated by the IS manager.
d)
processing in priority order, as defined by business management.
188.
672. An advantage of the use of hot sites as a backup alternative is that:
a)
the costs associated with hot sites are low.
b)
hot sites can be used for an extended amount of time.
c)
hot sites can be made ready for operation within a short period of time.
d)
they do not require that equipment and systems software be compatible with the primary site.
189.
673. Which of the following is a practice that should be incorporated into the plan for testing disaster recovery procedures?
a)
Invite client participation.
b)
Involve all technical staff.
c)
Rotate recovery managers.
d)
Install locally stored backup.
190.
674. Disaster recovery planning addresses the:
a)
technological aspect of business continuity planning.
b)
operational piece of business continuity planning.
c)
functional aspect of business continuity planning.
d)
overall coordination of business continuity planning.
191.
684. There are several methods of providing telecommunications continuity. The method of routing traffic through split cable or duplicate cable facilities is:
a)
alternative routing.
b)
diverse routing.
c)
long-haul network diversity.
d)
last-mile circuit protection.
192.
693. A financial institution that processes millions of transactions each day has a central communications processor (switch) for connecting to automated teller machines (ATMs). Which of the following would be the BEST contingency plan for the communications processor?
a)
Reciprocal agreement with another organization
b)
Alternate processor in the same location
c)
Alternate processor at another network node
d)
Installation of duplex communication links
193.
696. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of an organization's disaster recovery readiness?
a)
The disaster recovery plan
b)
Customer references for the alternate site provider
c)
The process for maintaining the disaster recovery plan
d)
The results of tests and drills
194.
701. As part of the business continuity planning process, which of the following should be identified FIRST in the business impact analysis?
a)
Organizational risks, such as single point-of-failure and infrastructure risk
b)
Threats to critical business processes
c)
Critical business processes for ascertaining the priority for recovery
d)
Resources required for resumption of business
195.
702. Which of the following activities should the business continuity manager perform FIRST after the replacement of hardware at the primary information processing facility?
a)
Verify compatibility with the hot site.
b)
Review the implementation report.
c)
Perform a walk-through of the DRP.
d)
Update the IS assets inventory.
196.
703. Which of the following would contribute MOST to an effective business continuity plan (BCP)? The BCP:
a)
document is circulated to all interested parties.
b)
planning involves all user departments.
c)
is approved by senior management.
d)
is audited by an external IS auditor.
197.
709. After a full operational contingency test, the IS auditor performs a review of the recovery steps. He concludes that the time it took for the technological environment and systems to return to full-functioning exceeded the required critical recovery time. Which of the following should the auditor recommend?
a)
Perform an integral review of the recovery tasks.
b)
Broaden the processing capacity to gain recovery time.
c)
Make improvements in the facility's circulation structure.
d)
Increase the amount of human resources involved in the recovery.
198.
723. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor reviewing the BCP?
a)
The disaster levels are based on scopes of damaged functions, but not on duration.
b)
The difference between low-level disaster and software incidents is not clear.
c)
The overall BCP is documented, but detailed recovery steps are not specified.
d)
The responsibility for declaring a disaster is not identified.
199.
724. During an audit of a business continuity plan (BCP), the IS auditor found that, although all departments were housed in the same building, each department had a separate BCP. The IS auditor recommended that the BCPs be reconciled. Which of the following areas should be reconciled FIRST?
a)
Evacuation plan
b)
Recovery priorities
c)
Backup storages
d)
Call tree
200.
725. Which of the following should be the MOST important criterion in evaluating a backup solution for sensitive data that must be retained for a long period of time due to regulatory requirements?
a)
Full backup window
b)
Media costs
c)
Restore window
d)
Media reliability
100 %
